cardiovascular disease and drugs Flashcards

1
Q

hypertension

  • _____ cause of cardiovascular disease
  • blood pressure: _____ = normal
  • _____ or _____ hypertension - unknown >95%
  • _____ hypertension - result of other diseases
  • _____
  • renovascular disease (_____)
  • _____
  • contraction of the _____
A
#1
120/80
primary
essential
secondary 
pheochromocytoma
renal artery stenosis
aldosteronism 
aorta
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

2017 new guidelines for hypertension
-high blood pressure should be treated earlier with _____ changes and in some patients with _____ - at _____ mm Hg rather than _____ mm Hg - based on new ACC and American Heart Association (AHA) guidelines

blood pressure categories in the new guidelines are:

  • normal: less than _____ mm Hg
  • elevated: systolic between _____ and diastolic less than _____
  • stage 1: systolic between _____ or diastolic between _____
  • stage 2: systolic at least _____ or diastolic at least _____
  • hypertensive crisis: systolic over _____ and/or diastolic over _____
A
lifestyle
medication
130/80
140/90
120/80
120-129
80
130-139
80-89
140
90
180
120
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

2017 new guidelines for hypertension

  • only prescribing medication for stage 1 hypertension if a patient has had a _____ event (_____ or _____)
  • patient at high risk of _____ or _____ based on _____
  • presence of _____, _____ or _____ risk (high cholesterol)
  • patients may need _____ or more types of medications
  • _____: multiple medications combined into single pill
  • identifying _____ status and psychosocial _____ as risk factors for high blood pressure
A
cardiovascular 
MI
CVA
MI
stroke
age
diabetes mellitus 
chronic kidney disease
atherosclerotic 
two
compliance 
socioeconomic 
stress
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

isolated systolic hypertension

  • not distinguished as a separate entity for BP management
  • _____ should be primarily considered during treatment and not just _____ BP
  • _____ is a cardiovascular risk factor after age 50
  • _____ is more important before age 50
A

SBP
diastolic
systolic BP
diastolic BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

secondary HTN- clues on Exam

  • _____, _____, other signs of _____ disease
  • _____ especially with a diastolic component (_____)
  • _____, purple _____, buffalo hump (_____)
laboratory tests:
-increased \_\_\_\_\_, abnormal \_\_\_\_\_ (renovascular and renal parenchymal disease)
-unexplained \_\_\_\_\_ (hyperaldosteronism) 
-impaired blood glucose (\_\_\_\_\_)
impaired \_\_\_\_\_ (hypo-/hyperthyroidism)
A
pallor
edema
renal
abdominal bruit
renovascular 
truncal obesity 
striae
hypercortisolism
creatinine
urinalysis
hypokalemia 
hypercortisolism
TFT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

target organ damage

  • heart
  • _____
  • MI
  • prior coronary revascularization _____
  • heart failure
  • brain: _____ or _____ attacks
  • chronic _____ disease
  • peripheral _____ disease
  • _____
A
left ventricular 
CABG
stroke
transient ischemic 
kidney
arterial
retinopathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

hypertensive crisis

  • acute elevation of BP associated with end _____ damage
  • potentially _____!
  • hypertensive crisis/ hypertensive emergency/ malignant hypertension
  • BP = _____ mm Hg x _____ consecutive readings
  • damage to _____ tissue, _____ end arteries, and _____ arteries as well as ischemia to the _____
  • hypertensive _____
  • acute _____
  • acute _____
  • acute _____ (_____)
A
organ
fatal
180/120
2
nervous 
renal
retinal
mural cardiac musculature
encephalopathy 
aortic dissection
MI
CVA 
cerebrovascular accident
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

common causes:

  • antihypertensive drug withdrawal (_____)
  • autonomic hyperactivity (_____)
  • collagen vascular disease (such as _____)
  • renal disease (name one _____)
  • trauma to the _____
  • neoplasia (example _____)
  • pre-eclampsia (leading to _____)
  • recreational drugs (such as _____)
A
clonidine
Adrenergic SLE
systemic lupus
renal stenosis, acute tubular necrosis
head
pheochromocytoma 
convulsions during pregnancy 
heroin, LSD, cocaine, cannabis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

evaluation of a patient

  • _____ history of the patient
  • _____ history past and present
  • _____ history of patient
  • _____ of all peripheral pulses/ _____
  • _____/ _____/ BUN/ creat/ _____
  • chest Xray/ _____/ _____ head

drugs commonly used:

  • _____/ nifedipine
  • _____/ _____
  • _____/ _____
A
BP
cardiovascular 
medication
palpation
fundoscopy 
CBC
electrolytes 
urinalysis
EKG
CT
sodium nitroprusside 
labetalol
esmolol
diazoxide 
minoxidil
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

major cardiovascular risk factors

  • _____
  • _____
  • _____ (BMI >30 kg/m2)
  • physical _____
  • _____
  • _____
  • _____ or estimated GFR <60 mL/min
  • age (older than _____ for men, _____ for women)
  • family history of premature cardiovascular disease
A
hypertension
cigarette smoking
obesity
inactivity 
dyslipidemia
diabetes mellitus 
microalbuminuria 
55
65
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

identifiable causes of hypertension

  • sleep apnea
  • _____-induced or related causes
  • chronic _____ disease
  • primary _____
  • _____ disease
  • chronic _____ therapy and _____ syndrome
  • _____
  • contraction of the _____
  • _____ or _____ disease
A
drug
kidney
aldosteronism 
renovascular 
steroid 
cushings
pheochromocytoma 
aorta 
thyroid 
parathyroid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

blood pressure = _____ x _____

A

cardiac output

peripheral vascular resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

antihypertensive drugs

  • _____
  • _____ (_____) inhibitors
  • _____ receptor blockers
  • _____ blockers
  • _____ (_____) blockers
  • _____ (_____) blockers
  • centrally acting _____
  • _____
A
diuretics 
angiotensin converting enzyme ACE
angiotensin 
beta B
alpha a
antihypertensives 
vasodilators
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

control of blood pressure

  • _____ reflexes modulate the sympathetic stimulation of _____ and _____ and adjust BP in response to _____ changes and altered physical activity
  • -provide short term regulation of BP via the _____ nervous system
  • kidney: regulation of _____, and the _____ axis
  • -provide _____-term control of BP
  • both mechanisms ensure BP remains in a narrow range
A
baroreceptor 
CO
PR
postural 
sympathetic 
plasma volume 
renin-angiotensin-aldosterone 
long
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

diuretics

  • diuretics act at various sites in the _____ to increase _____ production
  • inhibit _____ from the _____ into circulation
  • -causing an increase in _____ of _____ in _____
A
nephron 
urine
sodium
nephron 
excretion
sodium
urine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

clinical uses of diuretics

  • _____ diseases
  • treatment of _____
  • _____ diseases
  • _____ abnormalities
  • treatment of _____
  • increased _____ pressure
  • others
A
cardiovascular 
hypertension
renal
endocrine
glaucoma 
intracranial
17
Q

classification: diuretic drugs
- _____ (loop) diuretics (_____)
- _____ diuretics (_____)
- _____-sparing diuretics
- -_____: spironolactone
- -_____: triamterene
- others: _____ inhibitors, _____ diuretics

A
high ceiling 
furosemide 
thiazide 
hydrochlorothiaz
potassium
aldosterone 
non-aldosterone 
carbonic anhydrase
osmotic
18
Q

loop diuretics

  • _____ (Lasix)
  • _____
  • _____
  • _____

high ceiling or high threshold

  • act on the _____ of _____
  • inhibit _____, _____ and _____ reabsorption
  • these drugs are the _____ effective of the diuretics
A
furosemide 
bumetanide
torsemide 
ethacrynic acid 
ascending limb
henle
sodium
potassium 
chloride
most
19
Q

furosemide (Lasix)

  • MOA:
  • -acts on the _____ of _____
  • -results in the _____ of _____, _____ and _____ in the tubule
  • the drugs are the _____ efficacious of the diuretics
  • -potent _____ effect, highly efficient
  • produce _____ by increasing _____ - _____ exchange in the _____ and _____
  • increase _____ and _____ excretion
A
ascending loop
henle
retention 
Na+
Cl-
water
most
natriuretic 
kaliuresis 
sodium
potassium
late distal tubule 
collecting ducts
magnesium 
calcium
20
Q

adverse effects of loop (high ceiling) diuretics

  • _____: loss of potassium via increased secretion in the _____ (_____)
  • _____ (reversible) tinnitus, ear pain, vertigo and hearing impairment
  • _____: dry mouth; unusual thirst and scanty urine output
  • _____: dizziness, lightheadedness
A
hypokalemia 
distal nephron 
dysrhythmias 
ototoxicity 
dehydration
hypotension
21
Q

loop (high ceiling) diuretics

  • furosemide (lasix): drug interactions
  • -_____ induced ventricular dysrhythmias
  • –only when serum _____ level is low
  • -_____ causes _____
  • ototoxic drugs
  • -_____ (increased ototoxicity)
  • _____ excretion reduced
  • -increase serum _____ levels

-potassium sparing diuretics (_____, _____)

A
digoxin 
potassium
furosemide 
hypokalemia 
aminoglycosides 
lithium 
lithium 
spironolactone 
triamterene
22
Q

thiazide and related diuretics

  • very commonly used diuretics
  • _____ (effective), have moderate _____ effect
  • block reabsorption of _____ and _____ in the _____
  • increased renal excretion of _____, _____, _____ and _____
  • _____ ceiling diuretics
  • not effective when _____ diuresis required
  • use cautiously in _____-drug allergy
A
orally
natriuretic 
sodium
chloride
distal convoluted tubule 
sodium
chloride
potassium
water
low
immediate 
sulfa
23
Q

thiazides

  • hydrochlorothiazide: clinical uses
  • essential hypertension
  • –reduce _____: decrease load, immediate _____ effect
  • –reduce _____: this effect develops over time, mechanism unknown
  • _____:
  • -patients with heart failure (mild to moderate) or with renal or hepatic disease
  • _____- excessive _____ production
  • -a paradoxical effect; mechanism unknown
A
blood volume
anti-hypertensive
arterial resistance 
edema
diabetes insipidus 
urine
24
Q

thiazides

  • hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)
  • -HCTZ alone
  • -HCTZ in combination with other drugs
  • –HCTZ and _____ (Inderil)
  • chlorothiazide (diuril)
  • -chlorothiazide alone
  • -chlorothiazide and _____ (Diupres 20)
  • _____ (Lozide)
  • used in _____ term management of _____
  • long term management of _____
  • do not use during _____
A
propranolol
reserpine 
indapamide 
long
heart failure
hypertension
pregnancy
25
thiazides hydrochlorothiazide: adverse effects - _____ (excessive loss of K+) - elevated uric acid (_____) - -inhibit uric acid secretion from the _____ - elevated _____ levels (_____) - -altered serum lipids: _____, _____ - elevated blood glucose (_____) - -in part due to _____, which reduces _____ secretion by pancreatic beta cells - _____ allergies
``` hypokalemia hyperuricemia proximal tubule lipid levels hyperlipidemia HDL LDL hyperglycemia hypokalemia insulin sulfa ```
26
potassium-sparing diuretics - act in the _____ where _____ is normally reabsorbed in exchange for _____ - they decrease _____ reabsorption and thus decrease _____ excretion - useful to counteract _____ loss induced by _____ and _____ diuretics - they produce a modest increase in urine production. not potent as a stand alone drug to promote diuresis
``` distal tubule sodium potassium sodium potassium potassium thiazide loop ```
27
potassium sparing diuretics two types: -_____ blockers (_____; _____) -_____ receptor antagonists (spironolactone): _____ action of aldosterone (_____ hormone) --aldosterone promotes _____ retention and _____ excretion --decrease _____ reuptake (more in lumen) --increase retention of _____
``` epithelial sodium channel amiloride triamterene aldosterone receptor blocks adrenal cortex sodium potassium Na+ K+ ```
28
``` potassium-sparing diuretics adverse effects: -_____ -_____ effects --male: _____, _____ --female: _____ irregularities, _____ tenderness and enlargement ``` - spironolactone (aldactone) - -blocks action of _____ - --decreased _____ reuptake (more in lumen) - --increased retention of _____ (more recovered)
``` hyperkalemia endocrine gynecomastia impotence menstrual breast aldosterone Na+ K+ ```
29
``` potassium sparing diuretics clinical uses: -prevention and treatment of _____ -_____ -_____ disease (antiandrogen effect) -_____ ``` adverse effects: - _____ - -_____, vomiting, dizziness - -blood _____ (RARE)
``` hypokalemia primary hyperaldosteronism polycystic ovary hirsutism hyperkalemia nausea dyscrasias ```
30
osmotic diuretics - they are freely filtered at the _____ and undergo minimal reabsorption - they do not have a _____ (no _____) - they act via their physiochemical properties - -increase _____ pressure of tubular fluid, reducing _____ reabsorption - _____, _____, _____, _____
``` glomerulus molecular target receptors osmotic water mannitol isosorbide urea glycerol ```
31
carbonic anhydrase inhibitors - carbonic anydrase: enzyme - -present in many _____ sites - _____, _____ membranes and cytoplasm of the _____ cells and _____ - -luminal membranes of _____ - -critical step in _____ reabsorption carbonic anhydrase inhibitors -block _____ reabsorption, causing _____ diuresis and a reduction in body _____ stores
``` nephron luminal basolateral epithelial RBCs proximal tubule bicarbonate sodium bicarbonate sodium bicarbonate ```
32
carbonic anhydrase clinical uses: -_____: topical application of - _____ or _____ --reduces _____ - _____: acetazolamide - -increased urinary pH enhances excretion of _____ and _____ -_____: acetazolamide
``` glaucoma dorzolamide brizolamide IOP urinary alkalinization uric acid ASA metabolic alkalosis ```