Cardiovascular Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the characteristic, and contrasting, features of chest pain resulting from myocardial ischaemia.

A

Pain similar to angina (retrosternal, crushing, worse with exertion/cold/after food) but more severe and not relieved by GTN spray.
Associated with nausea, sweating and vomiting.
Patients may experience “angor animi”, a feeling of impending doom.

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2
Q

Describe the characteristic, and contrasting, features of chest pain resulting from aortic dissection.

A

Severe tearing pain, felt behind the shoulder blades. Persistent but worse at onset.
Patient likely to be hypertensive and Marfan-oid.

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3
Q

Describe the characteristic, and contrasting, features of chest pain resulting from pleural and respiratory disease.

A

Sharp pain which is worse on inspiration and coughing. Not central - may be one sided and does not radiate.
May be associated with breathlessness and cyanosis.
Not relieved by GTN spray.

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4
Q

Describe the characteristic, and contrasting, features of chest pain resulting from Gastro-oesophageal disease.

A

GORD presents with ‘heartburn’. Retrosternal burning sensation after food, relieved by antacids.
Oesophageal spasm may be mistaken for MI.
Pain relieved by GTN spray but takes 20 minutes, longer than 2 minute relief present with angina.
Often associated with a history of dysphagia or dyspepsia.

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5
Q

Describe the characteristic, and contrasting, features of chest pain resulting from musculoskeletal disease.

A

Pain localised to one point on the chest
Pain worse on respiring and movement.
Tender to palpation.

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6
Q

What is the levine sign?

A

Levine’s sign is a clenched fist held over the chest to describe ischemic chest pain.

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7
Q

Describe the typical history of a patient with ACS.

A

Severe crushing retrosternal pain of a longer duration than angina pectoris.
This may also be accompanied by autonomic symptoms (these may not be present in elderly patients or those with diabetes.)
Associated symptoms may include: N/V and syncope.
Atypical symptoms include: dyspnoea, plueritic chest pain and indigestion.

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8
Q

Describe the clinical features of ACS.

A

Examination may show systolic murmurs or pulmonary oedema as well as pallor, sweating and tachycardia.
CXR may be normal or show pulmonary oedema or a widened mediastinum (suggesting aortic dissection).
Killip 1 = no crackles and no 3rd heart sound,
Killip 2 = crackles in <50% of lung or 3rd heart sound, Killip 3 = crackles in >50% of lung fields,
Killip 4 = cardiogenic shock.

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9
Q

Describe the use of oxygen and analgesia in ACS.

A

Patients are given high flow oxygen, aspirin, clopidogrel, LMWH.
IV opiates may be administered if necessary, alongside oral/sublingual/IV nitrates.
Anti-emetic must also be administered if opiates used.
Beta-blockers may also be given.

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10
Q

Describe the spectrum of the acute coronary syndromes: ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST-segment elevation syndromes (non-STEMI) and unstable angina (UA).

A

STEMI:
Complete occlusion of coronary artery.

NSTEMI:
Patients have elevated troponin without ST segment elevation.
Subtotal occlusion of the artery and infarct occurs.

Unstable angina:
Chest discomfort caused by minimal exercise or rest.
Creatine kinase and troponin are normal.
ECG may show ST segment depression or T wave inversion.
Usually atheromatous plaque rupture causes platelet aggregation, lumen narrowing and ischaemia.

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11
Q

Describe the role of ECG findings and serum Troponin to establish the diagnosis.

A

STEMI:
ST segment elevation, elevated troponin.

NSTEMI:
T wave inversion or ST segment depression, troponin elevated. No ST segment elevation.

Unstable angina:
No ECG or troponin changes.

Troponin is released 4-6 hours after the event and peaks at 24 hours. CK-MB (Creatine Kinase Myocardial B fraction) may be a better early marker.
Following ST elevation, R waves decrease in amplitude and Q waves may develop in full thickness infarcts.

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12
Q

What is the order of ECG changes following an MI?

A

First, large peaked T waves (or hyperacute T waves), then ST elevation, then negative T waves and finally pathologic Q waves develop.

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13
Q

Describe the role of anti-platelet agents, thrombolysis (including indications and contra-indications), primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) and ‘rescue’ PCI

A

Anti-platelet agents are first-line therapy in the treatment of occluded coronary vessels.
Fibrinolysis after 12 hours is not supported by evidence, however; if administered before then, it saves 30 lives per 1000 people treated.
Patients who fail to reperfuse after 60-90 minutes (as demonstrated by ECG), may be re-thrombolysed or sent for rescue coronary angioplasty.
PCI is the preferred treatment, within 90 minutes if possible.
PCI can be administered after thrombolysis.
Contraindications to thrombolysis include haemorrhagic stroke (however old), ischaemic stroke (within 6 months), CNS damage, neoplasm and trauma (within 3 months), GI bleed (within last month), any known bleeding disorder or aortic dissection.
Relative contraindications include: Pregnancy, liver damage, refractory hypertension, endocarditis, traumatic CPR, oral anticoagulant therapy.

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14
Q

Which anti-platelets are used in ACS?

A

Aspirin or if allergic clopidogrel.
Ticagrelor in combination with low-dose aspirin is recommended for up to 12 months as a treatment option in adults with acute coronary syndromes (ACS) that is, people:
with ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI)
defined as ST elevation or new left bundle branch block on electrocardiogram.
that cardiologists intend to treat with primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or
with non-ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI).

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15
Q

Describe the causes and pathological consequences of ACS.

A

Atheromatous plaques may fissure, leading to thrombus formation, or bleeding into the plaque.
Complete occlusion of coronary arteries, resulting in ischaemia leads to full thickness ischaemia, unless collateral blood supply is established or lysis occurs.
Such circumferential subendocardial infarction may occur in hypoperfused cardiac tissue, due to stenosed arteries.

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16
Q

Describe the difference in prognosis between STEMI, non-STEMI and UA with respect to mortality and morbidity.

A

6 month mortality in the GRACE registry was 13% for NSTEMI and 8% for UA.
1 month mortality in a community STEMI may be as high as 50%, with 50% of these deaths occurring within 2 hours.
Early death may be due to arrhythmia.
Of those who reach hospital, 80% survive up to 28 days. Prognosis is worse for anterior infarcts than inferior. Morbidity is likely to be related to the level of ischaemia and myocardial damage sustained.

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17
Q

Describe the potential complications of ACS: rhythm abnormalities, cardiac failure, ventricular septal defect, ruptured chordae tendineae, haemopericardium, Dressler’s syndrome, ventricular aneurysm and reinfarction.

A

Rhythm abnormalities (AF, VF, bradyarrhythm),
Cardiac failure (shock),
VSD (Usually occurs in the first week post MI, present with new onset murmur, patients lie flat),
Ruptured chordae tendinae (mitral regurgitation, may present with sudden pulmonary oedema or death),
Haemopericardium (cardiac tamponade),
Dressler’s syndrome (immune mediated pericarditis. Present with frisction rub, chest pain and fever (post-infection/MI)),
Ventricular aneurysm (5-7% of patients following STEMI. Bulging of ventricle, can result in death),
Reinfarction,
Post-infarct angina.

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18
Q

Describe the pathway of care developed within the hospital for STEMI/nonSTEMI/UA.

A

Aspirin 300mg + Clopidogrel 300mg.
Sublingual GTN.
Oxygen (*if <94%, check NICE guideline).
Brief history. IV access and bloods (troponin, FBC, lipids, biochemistry, glucose).
12-lead ECG.
IV opiate and antiemetic.
Beta-blocker if not contraindicated. GPIIb/IIIa inhibitor if PCI available.

“MONA” - Morphine, oxygen, nitrates, aspirin
“BROMANCE” - Beta-blocker, reassurance, oxygen, morphine, aspirin, nitrates, clopidogrel, enoxiparin.

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19
Q

What is the TIMI score?

A

An assessment of morbidity and mortality in MI.
TIMI for STEMI:
age>65,>75, Hx of angina, Hx of hypertension, Hx of DM, systolic BP<100, HR>100, Killip II-IV, weight>67kg, Anterior MI or LBBB, delay to Rx>4hrs.
TIMI for NSTEMI/UA:
age>65, >3 CAD RFs, known CAD (stenosis>50%), aspirin use in last 7 days, severe angina, ST deviation, elevated cardiac markers.

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20
Q

What is the GRACE score?

A

Similar to the TIMI score.

GRACE score is based on age, heart rate, systolic blood pressure, serum creatinine and Killip score.

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21
Q

Define stable angina.

A

Angina is chest discomfort which is precipitated by exercise and relieved with rest.
Usually lasts minutes.
Angina = Strangling.

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22
Q

Describe the typical history of a patient with stable angina.

A

Chest pain relieved by rest.
Pain may be tight, heavy or gripping and is usually located retrosternally but may radiate to the jaw and/or arms.
Cold weather, anger, excitement and food may all provoke angina.
May also cause angor amini, sweating and SOB.

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23
Q

Discuss the potential underlying causes of angina 4

A

Coronary artery disease reduces blood flow to cardiac muscle.
Valvular heart disease puts increased strain on cardiac muscle.
Cardiomyopathy disturbs contractility of cardiac muscle.
Anaemia reduces oxygenation of blood reaching cardiac muscle.

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24
Q

Describe relevant clinical features of angina 7

A

Xanthelasmata - Cholesterol deposits around the eyes, indicating high levels of cholesterol in the blood.
Tendon xanthoma - Appear as slowly enlarging subcutaneous nodules related to the tendons or ligaments. Most commonly found on the hands, feet, and Achilles tendon. Associated with severe hypercholesterolaemia and elevated LDL levels.
HTN
Anaemia
Hyperthyroidism causing tachycardia and irregular rhythm
Aortic stenosis - Ejection systolic murmur heard between heart sounds 1 and 2, may radiate into neck.

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25
Q

List recognised risk factors for coronary artery disease. 11

A

Obesity, smoking, male, hypertension, high cholesterol, hyperlipidaemia, diabetes, low exercise levels, age, family history, type A personality.

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26
Q

Describe the pathology of the coronary arteries in patients presenting with angina.

A

Fatty streaks develop in areas of stress or turbulence.
Damage to endothelium causes inflammatory cells to migrate to the area.
Macrophages ingest lipid, and release cytokines which stimulate smooth muscle cells to migrate to the intima and lay down hyaline fibrous matter.
Macrophages may also release TNF-alpha and IL1 which may lead to the destruction of this fibrous cap and subsequent thrombus formation.

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27
Q

Describe the investigation of a patient with suspected angina.

A

CV examination, resting ECG, FBC, exercise test ECG, scintigraphy, angiography

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28
Q

List the classes of drugs used to treat angina, mechanism of action and their common side effects.

A

Nitrates can relieve angina fairly quickly and are used when required. They cause vasodilation and side effects include headache and hypotension.
B-blockers have negative inotropic and chronotropic effects, reducing the strain on the heart. Side effects include fatigue, cold extremities and weight gain.
Calcium channel blockers inhibit the excitability of cardiac muscle. Rate limiting blockers such as verapamil and diltiazem inhibit conduction through the AV node and cause a bradycardia, dihydropyridine blockers may reduce contractility but may cause reflex tachycardia so are best used in combination with beta-blockers. Other side effects include dizziness, flushing, headache and peripheral oedema.
Nicorandil, a potassium channel agonist, acts similarly to nitrates to reverse angina pain.

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29
Q

Use the Framingham/QRISK tools to estimate cardiovascular risk.

A

The QRISK tools collate risk factor information and estimate a 10 year risk of heart attack or stroke.

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30
Q

Outline the ECG changes that may develop during an exercise stress test.

A

Down sloping ST segment depression, T wave inversion. False positives and false negatives are common (20%), though these patients will have good prognosis.

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31
Q

Describe the typical history of pulmonary oedema and its common causes.

A

SOB, especially when lying down.
Paroxsymal nocturnal dyspnoea - patients will wake up in the middle of the night totally out of breath due to fluid shift from interstitium to vascular compartments.
Cheynes-stokes respiratory cycles may also occur, due to impaired response of central chemoreceptors to carbon dioxide levels.
Common causes include: left sided heart failure, pulmonary hypertension, fluid overload, acute respiratory distress syndrome (causes including: pneumonia, aspiration, sepsis, severe trauma), both acute and chronic kidney disease, hypoalbuminaemia, morphine overdose, tumour, and altitude.

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32
Q

Describe the typical clinical features of pulmonary oedema

A
Tachycardia
Gallop rhythm - Presence of 3rd heart sound, may be suggestive of stenosis or regurgitation.
Bilateral basal crackles
Other features may indicate a cause:
Raised JVP in heart failure
Jaundice in liver failure
Hypo or hyper tension
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33
Q

Discuss the differential diagnosis for pulmonary oedema

A

If no cardiac cause for pulmonary oedema is present then ARDs should be suspected.
Chest infection may produce a cough but is less likely to produce pink frothy sputum and SOB.
Pulmonary embolism presents with SOB, pleuritic chest pain and cough.

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34
Q

Outline the general principles of management of pulmonary oedema including drugs used in treatment, their route of administration, mechanism of action and their common side effects.

A

High flow oxygen my be administered to reduce respiratory workload.
Obvs, sats and ECG and daily weights must be monitored.
Urinary catheter may be inserted and furesemide may be administered, initially IV, then switched to oral.
Furosemide is a loop diuretic (blocks Na/K/Cl ion channels in the thick ascending loop of Henle, thus decreasing water reabsorption.)
Common side effects include: numbness or tingling, headache, dizziness, blurred vision, low BP, dehydration.

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35
Q

Outline the investigations used in acute pulmonary oedema including ECG, CXR, Troponin, and echocardiography.

A

CXR is used to identify and quantify pulmonary oedema. It will show: Kerly B lines, fluid in the fissures, hazy hila and prominent vasculature (especially superiorly).
ECG, troponin and echocardiography will help determine the cause, be it cardiac.
FBC, U&Es, LFTs and urine dip are helpful in diagnosis of cause.

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36
Q

Define congestive cardiac failure and list common causes.

A

Congestive heart failure is the failure of both sides of the heart so that not enough blood is pumped out of the heart to adequately perfuse metabolically active tissues.
Common causes include ischaemic heart disease (30-35%), cardiomyopathies (30-34%) and hypertension (15-20%).
Other causes include: Infection, valvular heart disease, (poor ventricular filling (AV stenosis) or ventricular overload (regurgitation)), congenital heart disease (Septal defect), alcohol and drugs, arrhythmias (AF, tachymyopathy, CHB), pericardial disease and hyperdynamic circulation (anaemia, hyperthyroid, haemochromatosis).

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37
Q

Describe the typical history of a patient with CCF.

A

Exertional dyspnoea
Orthopnoea (SOB when lying flat)
Fatigue
Cachexia (from muscle dissuse, and reduced perfusion)

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38
Q

Describe the typical clinical findings in a patient with CCF

A

Most common clinical findings: RAISED JVP, cachexia, paroxsymal nocturnal dyspnoea, pulmonary oedema, s3 gallop, radiogrpahy cardiomegaly.

Less common: Hepatomegaly (causing ASCITES), PERIPHERAL OEDEMA, TACHYCARDIA.

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39
Q

What drugs are used to manage CCF?

A

Diuretcs - reduce water in system, reducing hypertension
Beta-blockers - used to reduce contraction force and tachycardia.
ACE-i - reduce BP
Digoxin
Vasodilators

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40
Q

Outline the common investigations used to define the cause of CCF.

A
CXR:
Cardiomegaly
Kerly B wings
Bat wings
Prominant upper lobe veins
Fluid in fissures

BNP:
Raised in heart failure, if low, HF unlikely.

ECG:
Indicate cause eg MI, as well as ischaemia, hypertrophy or arrhythmias.

Echocardiography:
Able to visualise major causes and pathologies such as hypertrophy, valve defects etc.

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41
Q

What are the 5 main groups of causes of valvular heart disease?

A

Congenital (aortic bicuspid)
Rheumatic (reaction to group A strep, 50% mitral stenosis)
Degenerative
Endocarditis (erodes into valves causing insufficiency)
Cardiac remodelling

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42
Q

What are the congenital causes of valvular heart disease? (4)

A

Bicuspid aortic valve
Lutembacher’s syndrome (congenital atrial spetal defect or acquired mitral stenosis)
Ebstein Anomaly (tricuspid regurgitation)
Fallot’s tetralogy (Pulmonary stenosis)

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43
Q

How can degenerative causes lead to valvular heart disease?

A

Senile calcification of the aortic valve often occurs.

Rupture of chordate tendinae after MI may also occur.

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44
Q

How can cardiac remodelling lead to valvular heart disease?

A

SLE, marfan’s, ankylosing spondylitis and syphilis may result in dilation of the valve ring, causing valvular insufficiency.

45
Q

Outline the common symptoms of patients with mitral stenosis or regurgitation (5)

A
If mild, no symptoms
Progressive SOB
AF
Palpitations
Cough with frothy sputum
Chest infections
46
Q

Outline the common symptoms of patients with aortic stenosis or regurgitation (4)

A
Symptoms usually only present when disease is very severe.
Exercise induced syncope
chest pain
SOB
Pounding of heart in regurg
47
Q

Outline the non-invasive tests used to assess heart valves.

A

ECG:
can show hypertrophies developed due to valvular insufficiencies.
Strain patterns due to pressure overload

CXR:
Can assess for pulmonary hypertension
Dilated aorta
Calcified valves

Echo:
Visualise valves and diagnose stenosis.

Doppler:
Can identify backflow through incompetent valves.

48
Q

What are the signs of mitral stenosis? (5)

A
Malar flush
Small volume pulse
Raised JVP
Thrills/heaves
Mid-diastolic rumble murmur
49
Q

What are the signs of mitral regurgitation? (5)

A
Pan-systolic murmur
Laterally displaced, weak apex beat
AF
Pulmonary congestion, rs HF
Prominent 3rd heart sound
50
Q

What are the signs of aortic regurgitation? (9)

A
Bounding or collapsing pulse 
Quincke’s sign (pulsatile nailbeds), 
De Musset’s sign (head nodding), 
Duroziez’s sign (pistol shot femorals), 
Mueller’s sign (pulsatile uvula), 
Corrigan’s sign (prominent carotids), 
Hill’s sign (higher BP in legs), 
laterally displaced, forceful apex beat
high pitched diastolic murmur.
51
Q

What are the signs of aortic stenosis? (4)

A

Small volume, slow rising pulse
Forceful apex beat
Ejection systolic murmur radiating to carotids (crescendo/decrescendo)
Aortic thrills

52
Q

Define infective endocarditis

A

Infective endocarditis is an endovascular infection of heart valves, endocardium, large intrathoracic vessels and cardiac foreign bodies.
Bacteraemia usually has to be associated with endocardium damage.

53
Q

Who is at risk of infective endocarditis? (6)

A
Patients with poor dental hygiene
IV drug users
Recent dental treatment
IV cannulation
Recent heart surgery
Septal defects
54
Q

Describe the typical clinical features of IE.

3 symptoms, 11 signs

A

Symptoms:
Malaise
Pyrexia
Arthralgia

Signs:
Murmurs
Splenomegaly
Blood in urine
petechia
Janeways lesions
Splinter haemorrhages
Oslers nodes
Clubbing
Roth spots
Cerebral emboli
Mycotic aneurysm
55
Q

List common infecting organisms that cause IE

A

Mouth - Alpha haemolytic strep viridans
IV cannulas, injections - staph aureus
Soft tissue infection - streptococcus
Gut - Enterococcus

56
Q

Describe the morphological changes seen on an affected heart valve. (2)

A

Infection usually occurs along the edge of the heart valve, which is also where damage usually occurs.
Endocardial damage may allow bacteria to attach, and if incased in a fibrin/platelet mesh, will allow for replication of the bacteria.

57
Q

Describe the pathological complications of infective endocarditis. 4 main consequences

A

Virulent pyogenic bacteria attach to the leaflets and proliferate. The large crumbly vegetations cause degeneration of valves, chordae and adjacent heart muscle due to spread.
This then leads to heart failure.
Less virulent bacteria may increase in size gradually to slowly cause HF.
Emboli of these collections of bacteria may cause infarction abscesses.
Immune complexes from the bacteria may lodge in the glomeruli to cause glomerulonephritis.

58
Q

Outline important investigations for IE 5

A

Blood cultures should be taken - 3 pairs from different sites.
EchoCG - May show evidence of vegetation on valves.
FBC - May show normochromic, normocytic anaemia or polymorphonuclear leukocytes.
CRP + ESR most likely raised indicating infection.
U+Es may show renal dysfunction

59
Q

Outline the general principles of management of suspected and confirmed infective endocarditis.

A

Antibiotics for 4-6 weeks.

60
Q

Describe the indications for surgery in infective endocarditis. 6

A
Consider surgery if: 
HF, 
fungal infection, 
valvular obstruction, 
repeated endocarditis, 
unstable infected prosthetic valve
Myocardial abscess.
61
Q

Describe how the electrical changes of the cardiac cycle relate to the ECG recording.

A

P wave = Atrial depolarisation
QRS complex = Ventricular depolarisation
T wave = Ventricular repolarisation

62
Q

Identify and classify the ECG features of each type of heart block.

A

1st degree: Prolonged PR interval

Mobitz 2nd degree type 1: Progressively prolonged PR interval, until QRS complex is dropped.

Mobitz 2nd degree type 2: Regular PR intervals. Some P waves not accompanied by QRS complex.

Type 3 - complete HB. No co-ordination between P waves and QRS complexes.

63
Q

Describe the ECG features of atrial fibrillation

A

Irregularly irregular
No P waves present
Normal QRS

64
Q

Describe the ECG features of atrial flutter

A

Saw tooth appearance of P waves

May show 2:1 AV block.

65
Q

Describe the ECG features of re-entrant tachycardia (SVT)

A

Narrow complex tachycardia

Wolff-Parkinson syndrome = slurred upstroke of QRS complex

66
Q

Describe the ECG features of ventricular tachycardia.

A

Broad complex tachcardia

67
Q

Describe the ECG features of ventricular fibrillation

A

No identifiable QRS complexes

68
Q

Describe the ECG features of left and right ventricular hypertrophy

A
LVH: 
Tall R waves in V5/6
Deep S wave in V1/2
May be some LAD 
T wave inversion if severe

RVH:
Deep S wave V6
RAD
Peaked P wave and T wave inversion if severe

69
Q

Describe the ECG features of left and right bundle branch block

A

LBB: WiLLiaM - V1 and V6
RBB: MaRRoW

ALTERNATIVELY TURN PAGE 90 DEGREES CLOCKWISE. WHICHEVER WAY QRS COMPLEXES ARE POINTING IS THE SIDE THAT IS BLOCKED.

70
Q

Describe the ECG features of STEMI and the changes over time.

A

ST elevation.
Then Q and T wave inversion begins to develop.
Q waves grows larger and larger
T waves inverts bigger before receding slightly

71
Q

Identify the common anatomic locations of deep venous thrombosis. 2 areas

A

Usually veins of legs and pelvis
Superficial thrombophlebitis may affect saphenous veins.
DVT more commonly affects calf veins.
Axillary DVT is very uncommon but can occur.

72
Q

List the risk factors for venous thrombosis. 15

A
Obesity
Age
Previous DVT/PE
Varicose veins
Pregnancy
Oestrogen therapy
Trauma/surgery
Venous catheter
Cardiorespiratory failure
IBD
Acute infection
Thrombophillia
Recent MI
Immobility
Malignancy
73
Q

What is the Wells score and when is it used? 8 criteria

A
Well's score is used to assess risk of DVT. Maximum score of 9, a score of above 1 should raise suspicion of DVT.
Criteria:
Bedridden >3 days
Swollen leg >3cm bigger than other
Visible collateral veins
localised tenderness in symptomatic leg
Malignancy
Major surgery
Previous DVT
Pitting oedema
74
Q

Describe the clinical features of a deep venous thrombosis. 6

A
Pain
Swelling
Redness
Engorged superficial veins
Oedema
Homan's sign (pain on dorsiflexion of the foot)
75
Q

Describe the use of a d-dimer test to triage patients with suspected DVT

A

D-dimers are breakdown products of fibrin.

Clinical diagnosis + raised d dimer has 80% sensitivity

76
Q

Describe a differential diagnosis in patients who present with pain or swelling of the lower limb distinguishing between deep vein thrombosis, superficial thrombo-phlebitis, chronic venous insufficiency, cellulitis, acute arterial ischaemia and hypoproteinaemia

A

Chronic venous insufficiency = VVV LAPS (Varicose veins, venous ulcers, venous scars, lipodermatosclerosis, atrophy blanche, pitting oedema, scars)
Arterial ischaemia = 6 Ps (Pain, pallor, paresthesia, cold, paralysis, pulseless)
Cellulitis = 4 signs of infection (redness, swelling, pain, heat)
Hypoproteinaemia presents with oedema.

77
Q

Describe the role and range of imaging modalities used when investigating suspected DVT

A

USS or dopler can be used

Venography with injection of venous contrast is definitive test.

78
Q

Describe the range of clinical presentation and associated pathology of pulmonary embolic disease depending on clot size and cardiopulmonary haemodynamics

A

Massive - sudden death, large pulmonary hypertension
Acute infarction - SOB, pleuritic CP, local tenderness, pleural effusion.
Acute, no infarction - tachycardia, tachypnoea, crackels in embulus region, pleuritic CP.
multiple emboli - Pulmonary hypertension or cor pulmonale, raised JVP.

79
Q

What is the classification of hypertension based on BP? How many measurements are needed?

A

<140, <90 = Stage 1 hypertension
<160, <100 = Stage 2 hypertension
<180, <110 = Stage 3 hypertension

At least 3 readings. Should be taken from both arms.
Over 14 measurements are used to calculate average when considering ABPM.

80
Q

Describe the clinical and pathological features of ‘accelerated phase’ or ‘malignant’ hypertension.

A

A BP of over 180/120 with signs of papilloedema and/or retinal haemorrhage.
Occurs rapidly months-years.
Affects people in 3rd or 4th decade.
Rapid increase in BP causes fibrinoid necrosis of arterioles: Acute HF, LVH, renal failure, encephalopathuy

81
Q

What are the causes of secondary hypertension?

A

Renal causes account for 80%: Renal artery stenosis, diabetic nephropathy, chronic GN, polycystic kidney disease,
Pregnancy
Drugs (NSAIDs, vasopressin, steroids.)
Endocrine: Conn’s, adrenal hyperplasia, phaeochromcytoma, Cushing’s, acromegaly, hyperthyroidism.
Congenital: Coarction of the aorta.

82
Q

Describe the pathological consequences of hypertension as they affect the cardiovascular, cerebrovascular and renal systems.

A

Accelerates atherosclerosis and can cause CAD, PVD, LVH, AAA, dissections
Increased risk of strokes
Varying levels of nephrosclerosis in kidneys

83
Q

How many Korotkoff sounds are there and what are they?

A

Sound 1: clear tapping sound (systolic BP) Sound 2: Soft swishing murmur
Sound 3: Loud slapping sound
Sound 4: Muffling of soun.
Sound 5: Disappearance of sound (diastolic BP – depends what book you read).

84
Q

What is the target for cholesterol levels?

A

Total cholesterol <5mM, LDL <3mM

85
Q

Define atherosclerosis and list the risk factors associated with its development.

A

Atherosclerosis is an inflammatory condition affecting blood vessels. Fat, macrophages and collagenous material collects on the inside of blood vessels
Risk factors:
Obesity, smoking, age, HTN, DM, hyperlipidaemia, gender, type A personality, stress, lack of exercise, alcohol.

86
Q

Distinguish between macro- and micro-vascular diseases.

A

Macrovascular disease may be caused by an MI, stroke, PVD

Microvascular disease occurs in diabetes and is characterised by nephropathy, neuropathy and retinopathy.

87
Q

List specific sites where atheroma may develop.

A

Usually at branch points, e.g. ostia, bifurcation of the aorta.

88
Q

Describe the common sites and relative incidence of atherosclerotic arterial aneurysms

A

Usually downward flowing high pressure vessels:
Abdominal aorta, iliac vessels, thoracic aorta, popliteal, femoral.
Berry aneurysms can occur in Circle of Willis but are not caused by atherosclerosis.

89
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of thoracic aortic dissection

A

Begins with a tear of the intima.
Blood then enters the media.
Either re-breaks through intima - double barreled aorta
May then break into adventitia - Haemorrhage or backtrack to occlude vessels leaving arch of the aorta or cause haemopericardium.

Type A = proximal to the subclavian
Type B = Distal to the subclavian

90
Q

What are the symptoms of thoracic aortic dissection?

A

Tearing pain radiating to back of chest and down arms.
Loss of blood supply to CNS may provide accompanying symptoms.
Shock.
Renal failure
Acute limb ischaemia

91
Q

List the symptoms and signs of a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm

A
Severe epigastric pain radiating to back
Hypotension
Tachycardia
Anaemia
Pulsatile but not expansile mass
Grey-Turner's sign (Flank bruising)
Cullen's sign (Bruising around umbilicus)
92
Q

DDx of AAA

A
Renal colic
Diverticulitis
Pancreatitis
Ruptured peptic ulcer
MI
93
Q

Describe the role of surveillance monitoring of abdominal aortic aneurysm.

A

If <5.5cm then ultrasound monitoring is favoured

If over 5.5cm then surgery is favoured

94
Q

List the clinical manifestations of chronic peripheral arterial occlusive disease.

A

Claudication may cause pain when exercising.
Pain in buttocks and thighs, associated with impotence is called Leriche syndrome.
Ulcers may be present.

Signs:
Cold skin
Hairless skin
Dry skin
Buerger's test positive.
95
Q

Differentiate symptoms of ischaemic rest pain and neuropathy

A

Neuropathic pain will not be relieved by swinging legs out of the bed.
Neuropathic pain may also be accompanied by allodynia and hyperalgesia.

96
Q

Outline the conservative management of arterial occlusive disease.

A

Risk factor management: (stop smoking, control BM in DM, resolve HTN, resolve hyperlipidaemia.)
Tell them to walk through pain - release VEGF, new vessels grow.

97
Q

Describe the non-invasive and invasive methods for investigation of arterial disease.

A

ABPI - 0.5-0.95 = intermittent claudication, 0.3-0.5 = pain at rest, <0.3 = Ulceration and gangrene
Dopplers
USS
Angiogram

98
Q

List the causes of acute arterial occlusion.

A

Either thrombotic (60%) or embolic (30%- trauma, air, iatrogenic, mycotic). Other causes: Trauma, aortic dissection, iatrogenic, popliteal aneurysm

99
Q

Differentiate embolic and thrombotic occlusion.

A

Thrombotic:
Less rapid onest (due to establishment of collateral circulation),
more likely to be elderly,
artery may feel calcified
bruit due to collateral circulation me be present
Other leg will have reduced pulses
Will have had symptoms in the past

Embolic:
Sudden onset
No prior symptoms
Artery will be soft
no bruit or collateral circulation
Other leg will be fine
100
Q

List the symptoms and signs of acute arterial occlusion 6

A
6 Ps:
Pain
Paralyses
Parasthesia
Perishingly cold
pulseless
Pallor
101
Q

Describe the natural history of treated and untreated acute arterial occlusion.

A

If left untreated, the limb will have to be amputated.

Even if treated, reperfusion injury may cause more damage than occlusion via oxidative injury, immflamation.
Compartment syndrome may occur.
Peripheral nerve damage and chronic pain syndromes.

102
Q

List the underlying diseases or disorders associated with vasospastic changes in the extremities.

A

Rheumatic autoimmune disorders: SLE, mixed connective tissue disorder, systemic sclerosis and RA.
Some haematological conditions: HEP B +C
Endocrine disorders such as paraneoplastic syndrome.
Neurological causes: Nerve entrapment.
Vascular causes: Thrombosis, atherosclerosis
Ergot containing drugs, B blockers, oestrogen therapy.

May all cause Raynauds syndrome

103
Q

Specify and explain the defining clinical characteristics of Raynaud’s disease (or phenomenon).

A
Spasm of the digital arteries:
Pallor 
Cyanosis
Erythema (white, blue, red)
Precipitated by the cold
More common in females, bilaterally and in hands
Attacks may last hours
Numbness, burning sensation and severe pain may occur when hands warm up.
104
Q

Recognise varicose veins and describe their anatomical distribution.

A

Dilated, tortuous veins in the lower limb.
More common in greater saphenous vein.
Dilation of saphenofemoral junction may also occur

105
Q

List the complications of varicose veins.

A

Haemorrhage into subcutaneous tissue
Lipodermatosclerosis (inflammation and pigmentation of gaiter area)
Inverted champagne bottle calf
Venous ulcers and oedema may also occur as a result of chronic venous insufficiency.

106
Q

Describe the use of the Hand Held Doppler and Duplex-scanning test in diagnosing venous disease

A

HHD detects the backflow reflux of blood
Duplex scanning combines grey-scale USS to visualise vessel architecture and HHD to highlight flow. This can be visualised using colour.

107
Q

Define lymphoedema

A

An abnormal accumulation of lymph in tissues causing swelling.
Mainly in the legs
Can create cobblestone effect
Most visible on second toe.

108
Q

Outline common causes of lymphoedema.

A

May be congenital abnormality of lymph vessels - Milroys disease.
May be due to a proximal obstruction of lymph vessels via a tumour, inflammation, injury.
Surgery to resect lymph nodes.
Radiotherapy

109
Q

What are the classic symptoms of asthma 3

A

Episodic wheeze
Cough
SOB
Are usually reversible and worse in the morning.
If poorly controlled may cause wakening at night.