Cardiovascular Flashcards

0
Q

What are the 3 main cardiac biomarkers used by clinician to diagnose MI?

A

1) Creatine Kinase
2) Myoglobin
3) Troponin T and 1

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1
Q

Describe the difference between the following:

1) Automaticity
2) Excitability
3) Conductivity

A

1) Automaticity - The ability of specialized cardiac cells to spontaneously initiate an electrical pulse.
2) Excitability - The ability of cardiac cells to respond to an electrical impulse.
3) Conductivity - The ability of cardiac cells to propagate impulses from one cell to another.

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2
Q

Explain why and how Creatine Kinase can be used as a biomarkers to diagnose MI? What time frames does it rise, peak, and return to normal in the blood?

A

Creatine Kinase is released from damaged myocardium (as well as damaged skeletal muscle and brain tissue). It rises within 4 to 8 hours of myocardial injury peaks in 12 to 24 hours, and returns to normal within 3 to 4 days.

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3
Q

Explain why and how Myoglobin can be used as a biomarker to diagnose MI? What time frames does it rise, peak, and return to normal in the blood?

A

Myoglobin is a blood protein that transports oxygen. It is released when myocardial tissue becomes damaged.
Rise - 1 to 3 hours
Peak - 4 to 12 hours
Return to Normal - 24 hours

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4
Q

Explain why and how Troponin T and 1 can be used as a biomarkers to diagnose MI? What time frames does it rise, peak, and return to normal in the blood?

A

Troponin T and 1 are blood protein that regulate the contractile function of the myocardium and are released when the myocardium becomes injured.
Rise - 3 to 4 hours
Peak - 4 to 24 hours
Return to Normal - 1 to 3 weeks

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5
Q

Which biomarkers cannot be used alone to diagnose MI and why?

A

Myoglobin - because elevations can occur in patients with renal or musculoskeletal diseases.

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6
Q

Which biomarker make late diagnoses of MI possible in patients who delay seeking medical care for several days after the onset of acute MI symptoms?

A

Troponin T and 1 - because levels remain elevated for 1 to 3 weeks after injury of myocardium.

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7
Q

Briefly describe the following types of Angina:

1) Stable Angina
2) Unstable Angina
3) Intractable or Refractory Angina
4) Variant Angina
5) Silent Ischemia

A

1) Stable Angina - Predictable and consistent pain that occurs on exertion and is relieved by rest.
2) Unstable Angina - Aka preinfarction or crescendo angina; symptoms occur more frequently and lasts longer than in stable angina, and pain may occur at rest.
3) Intractable or Refractory Angina - Severe incapacitating chest pain.
4) Variant Angina - Aka Prinzmetal’s Angina; Includes pain at rest with reversible ST-segment elevation.
5) Silent Ischemia - Objective evidence of ischemia (such as ECG changes with a stress test), but patient reports no symptoms.

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8
Q

Describe the difference between the following terms:

1) Positive Chronotropic
2) Positive Dromotropic
3) Positive Inotropic

A

1) Positive Chronotropic - Increases Heart rate
2) Positive Dromotropic - Increases AV nodal conduction
3) Positive Inotropic - Increases contraction strength

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9
Q

Describe the S3 (the third heart sound).

A

S3 (aka ventricular gallop) - The rapid, forceful inrush of blood into a stiff, non-resilient, hypertrophied ventricle. Heard early diastole, after S2 and best heard in the mitral area. It is pathologic and usually seen in volume overload or cardiac failure.

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10
Q

Describe S4 (the forth heart sound).

A

S4 (aka atrial gallop) - Caused by forceful atrial contraction due to fluid overload. Heard just before S1 in late diastole. It is best head in the mitral area with patient either in the left side or setting up and leaning forward.

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11
Q

S4 is pathological and can sometimes be seen in patients with which types of conditions?

A

1) Heart Failure - fluid overload
2) Pulmonary hypertension
3) Pulmonary stenosis
4) Cardiac myopathies
5) Pregnant women

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12
Q

How are quality of murmurs charted?

A

1) By location (over aortic, mitral, etc.)
2) Intensity (i.e., 1/6 scale)
- 1/6 very faint
- 2/6 quiet but not difficult to hear
- 3/6 moderately loud
- 4/6 loud +/- thrills
- 5/6 very loud +/- thrills, may be heard with stethoscope entirely off chest.
- 6/6 may be heard with stethoscope off chest, +/- thrills.
3) Pitch - high, med, low
4) Timing in cardiac cycle - mid systolic, diastolic
5) Configuration/Shape - Crescendo(grows louder) or decrescendo
6) Radiation - i.e., murmur heard in back, neck, etc.

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13
Q

Are all systolic murmurs pathologic? diastolic murmurs?

A

1) Systolic Murmurs - Not all are pathologic

2) Diastolic Murmurs - All are pathologic

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14
Q

Label the following murmurs as Systolic or Diastolic:

1) Mitral Regurgitation
2) Aortic Stenosis
3) Mitral Stenosis
4) Aortic Regurgitation

A

1) Mitral Regurgitation - Systolic murmur
2) Aortic Stenosis - Systolic murmur
3) Mitral Stenosis - Diastolic Murmur
4) Aortic Regurgitation - Diastolic Murmur

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15
Q

What is a Pericardial Friction Rub and what are some of the causes of this condition?

A

Pericardial Friction Rub - A rubbing sound with every heart beat (at lower sternum) that indicates inflammation of the lining around the heart.
Caused by cardiac tamponade, viral pericarditis and post open heart surgery.

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16
Q

Describe which arteries branch from the left and right coronary artery and which parts of the the heart they supply blood to.

A

1) Left Coronary Artery - Arises from the aorta and divides into the left anterior descending and circumflex artery. These two supply the left atrium, left ventricle, intraventricular septum, lateral wall, posterior wall, and part of the right ventricle.
2) Right Coronary Artery - Arises from the aorta and supplies the right atrium (SA node and AV node - often goes bradycardic), right ventricle, a portion of the posterior wall of the left ventricle, and inferior wall.

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17
Q

How does coronary perfusion differ from that of the rest of the body?

A

1) Timing - Fills during diastole

2) Extraction - Maximal extraction of O2 from the blood at all times.

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18
Q

Which lipid levels represents a modifiable risk factor for CAD?

A

1) Cholesterol > 200 mg/dL
2) Triglycerides > 150 mg/dL
3) LDL > 160 mg/dL
4) HDL < 40 mg/dL

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19
Q

What is Metabolic Syndrome?

A

Metabolic Syndrome is a cluster of the most dangerous heart attack risk factors: diabetes, abdominal obesity, high cholesterol, and high BP.

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20
Q

What is Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS)?

A

ACS - The clinical manifestation of CAD.
Physiologic Definition - Plaque rupture leading to thrombus formation, which leads partial or complete blocking of a coronary artery with or without mooch the death.
Spectrum of ACS includes unstable angina, NSTEMI, and STEMI

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21
Q

There is currently no screening tool for the existence of coronary artery disease. What is the exception t this rule?

A

Electron Beam CT - Used to detect calcification scoring in immediate risk patients.

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22
Q

Describe the difference between Stable and Unstable Angina.

A

1) Stable Angina - Intermittent transient pain lasting < 20 mins that worsen with exercise and resolves with rest or nitroglycerin.
2) Unstable Angina - Unpredictable pain at rest that does not resolve with nitroglycerin and lasts more than 2 mins. PT may have SOB.

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23
Q

Explain the effect of the following on Cardiac Biomarkers:

1) Stable Angina
2) Unstable Angina
3) NSTEMI
4) STEMI

A

1) Stable Angina - Normal cardiac markers
2) Unstable Angina - Normal cardiac markers
3) NSTEMI - Elevated cardiac markers
4) STEMI - Elevated cardiac markers

24
Q

Define Myocardial Infarction

A

MI - Damage to myocardium due to sustained ischemia, this damage is irreversible.

25
Q

Since 15-20% of infarcts are painless, especially in DM and elderly patients, how is it presented?

A

Elderly - Presents as acute onset of of breathlessness and progress to pulmonary edema.
Others - Nausea, fatigue, dizziness, sweating or shock.

27
Q

(T/F) Ischemia causes ST Segment depression, therefore it is seen in both stable and unstable angina.

A

True

28
Q

What is the Tx involved for Cardiogenic Shock?

A

1) Inotropes to ⬆ cardiac output
2) Diuretics and vasodilators to ⬇ preload
3) Vasopressors
4) Intubation

29
Q

What is the rise, peak, and return to normal time range for Myoglobin as a result of an MI?

A

1) Rise - 2hrs
2) Peak - 6-7hrs
3) Return to Normal - 24hrs

30
Q

What is the rise, peak, and return to normal time range for Troponin I and Troponin T as a result of an MI?

A

1) Rise - 4-6hrs
2) Peak - 10-24hrs
3) Return to Normal - 4 days (10 days for Troponin T)

31
Q

What is the rise, peak, and return to normal time range for CK as a result of an MI?

A

1) Rise 4-6 hrs
2) Peak - 24 hrs
3) Return to Normal - 2 to 3 days

32
Q

What is the rise, peak, and return to normal time range for CK-MB as a result of an MI?

A

1) Rise - 4 hrs
2) Peak - 18 to 24hrs
3) Return to Normal - 2 to 3 days

33
Q

Which other 4 labs (besides cardiac enzymes) can be ordered to help diagnose an MI?

A

1) WBCs - ⬆ within 2 days x 1 week
2) ESR - ⬆ non-specific (indicative of inflammation)
3) LDH - ⬆ in 12-24 hr peaks in 2-3 days (indicates tissue damage)
4) Temp - ⬆

34
Q

Besides enzymes and labs, lists 6 other diagnostic methods for an MI.

A

1) Radionuclide Scanning
2) Infarct Scanning
3) Thallium Scan
4) Ventriculography
5) Chest X-ray
6) Exercise or stress test
7) Cardiac Catheterization
8) Echocardiogram (used to estimate Ejection fraction)

35
Q

What’s the difference between a left heart cath and a right heart cath?

A

1) Left Heart Catheterization - Views coronary vessels

2) Right Heart Catheterization - Pulmonary vascular status right heart function

36
Q

Which Percutaneous Coronary intervention is the method of choice for treating an MI if it has been within 12 hours of Sx onset or within 12-24 hrs of an ongoing ischemia?

A

Angioplasty with stent

38
Q

Which cardiac symptoms are related to the following:

1) Right Coronary Artery Px
2) Left-Sided Heart Px

A

1) Right Coronary Artery Px - Bradycardia

2) Left-Sided Heart Px - Premature Ventricular Contractions

39
Q

What is Von Willebrand Factor?

A

A blood protein that is involved in homeostasis.

40
Q

In which patients is the use of nitrates contraindicated?

A

1) Hypotensive PTs

2) PTs receiving Sildenafil (Viagra) or PDE-5 inhibitors

41
Q

In which patients is the use of Beta Blockers contraindicated?

A

1) PR interval > 0.24 secs
2) 2nd or 3rd degree heart block
3) HR < 60 bpm
4) BP < 90 mmHg
5) Left Ventricular Failure or CHF
6) Airway disease

42
Q

In which patients is the use of Calcium Channel Blockers contraindicated?

A

1) Pulmonary Edema

2) Left Ventricular Failure

43
Q

What is Dressler’s Syndrome?

A

Dressler’s Syndrome - A secondary form of pericarditis also known as Infarction Syndrome. Tends to occur 4-6 weeks post myocardial infarction, but can be delayed for a few months after Infarction.

44
Q

(T/F) Mucomyst PO may be given to prevent renal toxicity from dye.

A

True

45
Q

What are the 6 things to monitor a patient for who is on a Heparin IV drip prior to cath lab?

A

1) Hemorrhage
2) Anemia
3) HIT
4) Fever
5) ⬆ LFT
6) ⬆ K+ d/t aldosterone suppression

46
Q

Which 6 complications should you monitor a patient for who is post-angiogram?

A

1) Closure of vessel
2) Bleeding
3) Reaction to the dye
4) Hypotension
5) Low Potassium
6) Dysrhythmias

47
Q

Which lab value would you monitor a patient for who is on a Heparin drip?

A

PTT - normal = 20 to 45 secs; therapeutic = 1.5 to 2.5 times normal. Antidote = protamine sulfate.

48
Q

What is an Atherectomy?

A

The removal of plaque by special devices or by a rapidly rotating drill (rotoblade) to pulverize plaque into small absorbable pieces.

49
Q

Describe the Transmyocardial Laser Revascularization procedure.

A

Small holes or canals are lasered into the ventricular wall to allow blood flow to perfume into ischemic areas of the heart.

50
Q

Which 4 vessels are preferred for the Coronary Artery Bypass Graft (CABG) procedure?

A

1) Saphenous Vein
2) Internal Mammary Artery (LIMA is the primary choice for this procedure)
3) Radial Artery
4) Gastroepiploic Artery

51
Q

What are the 5 indications for CABG?

A

1) Left main coronary artery stenosis > or = 50%
2) Left anterior descending artery stenosis > or = 70%
3) Complex or significant 3-vessel disease or proximal LAD and one other major vessel.
4) Significant or multivessel disease with LV dysfunction.
5) Not feasible or failed PCI (STEMI, hemodynamic compromise, persistent ischemia).

52
Q

Which 10 strategies should be implemented post CABG to avoid post-operative mediastinitis?

A

1) Pre-operative skin prep - clipping hair, chlorohexadine shower
2) Prophylactic antibiotics with 1hr of incision
3) Glucose management: IV insulin drip to keep < 180
4) Standardized wound care
5) Hand hygiene
6) Leukocyte poor RBCs
7) Intranasal Mupirocin (Bctroban)
8) Supportive bra for large breasted women
9) Disposable ECG leads
10) Avoid bath basins

53
Q

Describe the MIDCAB Procedure.

A

MIDCAB - A newer technique for LAD or RCA single vessel disease. LIMA is isolated and anastomosed to coronary artery past the occlusion. Left chest and and mediastinal tube and pleural chest tube placed to drain area post operatively. Only used for arterial occlusion on the anterior heart.

54
Q

Discuss the Mechanical heart valves Vs. the tissue valves.

A

1) Mechanical lasts longer but require lifelong anti coagulation therapy - risk for bleeding.
2) Tissue will need replacing in 10-15 yrs but do not require anti coagulation.
3) PTs > or = 75 most like receive tissue valves
4) Anticoagulation contraindicated in athletes and females wishing to become pregnant, and therefore, these PTs may opt for tissue valve.
5) tissue valves (from pigs or cows) may not make a clicking sound, but mechanical valves (i.e., St. Jude valve), typically make a clicking sound.

55
Q

Discuss the Transcatheter Aortic Valve Implantation/Replacement procedure.

A

TAVI/TAVR - Procedure used to replace heart valves via the femoral or sapical artery route. TAVI is recommended in PTs with severe symptomatic AS who are unsuitable for conventional surgery because of severe comorbidities.

56
Q

Define Cardiomyoplasty

A

Wrapping of skeletal muscle (typically from scapula) around the ventricle and pacing the muscle to supplement the pumping action of the heart.

57
Q

(T/F) To avoid microshocks, when handling pacing wires, gloves should be worn.

A

True

58
Q

What is Cardiac Tamponade?

A

Cardiac Tamponade - Pressure surrounding the heart caused by an accumulation of fluid or blood in the pericardium - heart can’t pump.

59
Q

Which 6 Tx methods are implemented for Cardiac Tamponade?

A

1) Percardiocentesis - Draining the fluid around the heart.
2) Push fluids to maintain a normal BP
3) Antibiotics
4) Meds to help increase BP to normal levels
5) O2 to reduce workload on heart
6) Surgery to remove Omar cut part of the pericardium