Cardiovascular Flashcards

1
Q

Treatment for ectopic beats

A

Nothing generally, as they are spontaneous beats. If particularly troublesome, patient can have a beta blocker

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2
Q

What are the three types of AF?

A

Paroxysmal (episodes stop within 48h of treatment),
Persistent (episodes >7 days),
Permanent (present all the time)

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3
Q

When managing patients on rate control treatment for AF, which rate are we controlling? Atrial or ventricular

A

Ventricular

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4
Q

How often do you review the stroke and bleeding risk for AF patients?

A

Annually

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5
Q

How do you manage a patient with new onset AF (haemodynamic instability i.e. rapid pulse BP dizziness unconscious etc)) within 48h?

A

Electrical cardioversion

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6
Q

How do you manage a patient with AF where they don’t have haemodynamic instability (i.e., non urgent) in primary care?

A

Rate controlled preferred (beta blocker other than sotalol or a rate limiting calcium channel blocker)

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7
Q

Who is digoxin preferred in? This is also a reason why we don’t use it in most people

A

Sedentary patients as it can only control the ventricular rate at rest

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8
Q

Give examples of rate limiting CCBs

A

Verapamil and diltiazem

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9
Q

Give examples of non DHP CCBs

A

Verapamil and diltiazem also (dihydropyridines are amlodipine and nifedIPINE think PINE) so non DHP= rate limiting

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10
Q

What drugs do you give for non-electrical cardioversion?

A

Antiarrhythmics like flecainide, propafenone, amiodarone

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11
Q

What happens with driving when you have been diagnosed with AF?

A

group 1 (cars, moroecycles) - controlled for 4 weeks,
group 2 (lorries, buses) - controlled for 3 months

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12
Q

How long is the wait for a follow up after initiation of rate control?

A

1 week- patients should be monitored for symptoms, how they tolerate the drug, HR and BP

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13
Q

If you have had AF onset for >48 hours and are going to have a cardioversion, is electrical or pharmacological preferred?

A

Electrical CV is preferred over pharmacological when it has been <48h

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14
Q

How long should a patient be anticoagulated for before a cardioversion?

A

Three weeks, if this is not possible parenteral anticoagulation should be commenced and left atrial thrombus ruled out immediately

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15
Q

How long should a patient have oral anticoagulation post cardioversion?

A

4 weeks

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16
Q

What treatment do you give for rate control?

A

A standard beta blocker (but not sotalol)

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17
Q

What happens when monotherapy fails to control the ventricular rate?

A

Add another therapy such as: beta blocker, diltiazem or digoxin.

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18
Q

What happens if this dual therapy fails to control VR?

A

If this does not control it then a rhythm control method should be considered

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19
Q

Digoxin is also used when a patient has ……… co-morbidity

A

Congestive heart failure

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20
Q

Post cardioversion, if a drug is required to maintain sinus rhythm that is used?

A

Normally a standard beta blocker, but if not appropriate or effective consider an oral anti-arrhythmic such as sotalol, flecainide, propafenone, amiodarone, dronedarone

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21
Q

Sometimes, amiodarone is given post cardioversion to help the success of it, if used for this indication how long should it be prescribed for?

A

4 weeks before and continued for 12 months after as it increases success of procedure

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22
Q

Which two drugs cannot be given in known structural or ischaemic heart disease?

A

Flecainide or propafenone

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23
Q

What is the MHRA alert with sotalol?

A

Prolongs QT interval and causes life threatening ventricular arrhythmias- also be careful of hypokalemia

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24
Q

What class of antiarrhythmic is sotalol?

A

Class 2 and 3

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25
Q

When is dose adjustment recommended regarding renal function for sotalol?

A

60ml/min

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26
Q

What are the different classes of antiarrhythmics?

A

1- membrane stabilising =lidocaine, flecainide, propafenone
2- beta blockers =propranolol, sotalol
3- potassium channel blockers =sotalol, amiodarone, dronedarone
4- Non DHP CCBS =verapamil, diltiazem

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27
Q

For ‘pill in the pocket’ what drugs can be given for paroxysmal AF?

A

Flecainide or propafenone NB: cannot take >2 doses in 24h

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28
Q

What does CHADSVASC stand for?

A

Chronic heart failure
Hypertension
Age 75+ (2 points)
Diabetes
Stroke/TIA/VTE Hx (2 points)
Vascular disease
Age 65-74 years
Sex category (1 point for female)

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29
Q

When would we consider anticoagulation with CHADSVASc?

A

Men with 1 point or females with 2

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30
Q

What drug would you give alongside CPR and defib with ventricular tachycardia?

A

IV amiodarone

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31
Q

List the three drugs which are antiarrhythmics which cover atrial, ventricular and both

A

Ventricular = lidocaine (L for lower),
Amiodarone= ventricular and atrial,
Verapamil= atrial

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32
Q

What is Torsade de Pointes?

A

A form of ventricular tachycardia with QT prolongation. NB: if not treated this can move to ventricular fibrillation and death

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33
Q

Which electrolyte can cause torsade de pointes?

A

Hypokalaemia

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34
Q

How do you treat torsade de pointes?

A

IV magnesium

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35
Q

Which drug do you avoid in this condition (torsade de pointes)?

A

Antiarrhythmics as prolongs the QT interval further

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36
Q

List some drugs which cause QT prolongation

A

Tramadol, opioids, macrolides, SSRIs, antiarrhythmics, quinolones, antimuscarinics, ondansetron, lithium, sildenafil

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37
Q

What is the MHRA alert with amiodarone?

A

When taken with sofosbuvir and combination of other antivirals- risk of severe bradycardia and heart block when taken with amiodarone

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38
Q

What is the loading dose for amiodarone?

A

200mg TDS 7/7
200mg BD 7/7
200mg OD continued

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39
Q

Amiodarone side effects

A

EYES: corneal microdeposits AND optic neuropathy
SKIN: phototoxicity AND slate grey skin (use SPF for months after stopping)
NERVES: peripheral neuropathy
LUNGS: pneumonitis AND pulmonary fibrosis
LIVER: hepatotoxicity
THYROID: both hypo and hyperthyroidism
EXTRA: heart block, bradycardia, nausea and vomiting, taste disturbances

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40
Q

What monitoring is done with amiodarone and how often?

A

Before treatment: serum K+, ECG and BP, CXR
Before treatment and every 6 months: TFTs, LFTs
Before treatment and annually: eye test

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41
Q

How long is the half-life of amiodarone?

A

Around 50 days (25-100 days)- so interactions can occur up to three months after stopping

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42
Q

What is the interaction between grapefruit juice and amiodarone?

A

Enzyme inhibitor - Increased amiodarone concentration – toxicity

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43
Q

Which three (high risk) drugs do you have to give half the dose if they are given concomitantly with amiodarone?

A

Warfarin, phenytoin, digoxin (as amiodarone inhibits their metabolism)

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44
Q

What would be the interaction between amiodarone and quinolones?

A

Prolonged QT interval

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45
Q

What is the digoxin level for TDM?

A

1-2 mcg/L

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46
Q

What is the bioavailability for digoxin tablets, elixir and IV?

A

Tabs- 90%, elixir- 75%, IV- 100%

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47
Q

You stop digoxin if the heart rate goes below what BPM?

A

60 bpm

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48
Q

What are the signs of digoxin toxicity?

A

Cardiac arrhythmias, heart block, bradycardia, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, confusion, delirium, psychosis, rash, yellow vision, blurred vision

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49
Q

How would you treat digoxin toxicity?

A

Withdraw digoxin, correct electrolytes, digoxin specific antibody if unresponsive to atropine

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50
Q

Why is potassium disturbance important when considering digoxin?

A

Digoxin competes with potassium to bind to the Na+/K+/ATPase pump. When serum potassium levels are low, competition is reduced and the effects of digoxin are enhanced

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51
Q

What would be the interaction between quinine and digoxin?

A

They would increase plasma concentration of digoxin and therefore risk of toxicity (same with amiodarone, spironolactone)

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52
Q

What would be the interactions between ibuprofen and digoxin?

A

(reduced renal excretion)- toxicity as digoxin is renally excreted

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53
Q

What would be the interactions between digoxin and st john’s wort?

A

Subtherapeutic- cv events?

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54
Q

What would be the interactions between digoxin and erythromycin?

A

Enzyme inhibitor - Digoxin toxicity

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55
Q

What would be the interactions between digoxin and colchicine?

A

Myopathy

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56
Q

What does HASBLED stand for?

A

Hypertension
Abnormal liver function/ renal function / alcohol >8 units a week
Stroke
Bleeding
Labile INRs
Elderly (>65)
Drugs (antiplatelets/NSAIDs)

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57
Q

What score on HASBLED would you consider a non-pharmacological alternative?

A

> 3

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58
Q

What class of drug is tranexamic acid?

A

Antifibrinolytic- it inhibits fibrin dissolution (stops bleeding)

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59
Q

What other drug can be used in the treatment of mild to moderate haemophilia and von Willebrand’s disease?

A

Desmopressin

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60
Q

What drug schedule (GSL, P, POM) is tranexamic acid?

A

P

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61
Q

What drug is used in subarachnoid haemorrhage? What class in this drug?

A

Nimodipine (dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker)

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62
Q

What is the initial management of a TIA?

A

Aspirin 300mg or
Clopidogrel 75mg
and PPI

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63
Q

What is the long term treatment for a TIA?

A

Clopidogrel 75mg or dipyridamole with aspirin is contraindicated AND a statin (check BP, if >130/80 start antiHTN med

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64
Q

What is the acute management for an ischaemic stroke (ACT FAST)?

A

Alteplase within 4.5 hours, aspirin 300mg or clopidogrel

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65
Q

Long term management for ischaemic stroke?

A

Clopidogrel 75 (or dipyridamole and aspirin if c/i) and statin, manage HTN if >130/80

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66
Q

VTE prophylaxis duration for general surgery?

A

7 days

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67
Q

VTE prophylaxis duration for abdominal/pelvis cancer surgery?

A

28 days

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68
Q

VTE prophylaxis duration for spinal surgery?

A

30 days

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69
Q

Elective hip VTE prophylaxis duration?

A

10 days LWMH then 75mg aspirin for further 28 day

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70
Q

VTE prophylaxis duration for elective knee operation?

A

14 days of aspirin or LWMH WITH anti embolism stockings or rivaroxaban

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71
Q

What generally should be used to treat DVT?

A

Apixaban or rivaroxaban, if unsuitable: LMWH for at least 5 days followed by dabigatran or edoxaban OR 3rd line is to administer LWMH concomitantly with warfarin for at least 5 days or until the INR is below 2 for 2 consecutive readings

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72
Q

Do heparins cross the placenta?

A

Does not cross the placenta

73
Q

What factor do LMWHs inhibit in the clotting cascade?

74
Q

What is the duration of warfarin for DVT or PE
a) isolated
b) DVT provoked
c) unprovoked?

A

6 weeks for isolated DVT, 3 months provoked, 3 months and potentially longer for unprovoked

75
Q

What does heparin do to potassium levels?

A

Cause hyperkalemia

76
Q

Heparin induced thrombocytopenia can take how many days to occur after administration?

A

5-10 days after

77
Q

You monitor platelets when patients are on heparins for a duration of longer than how many days?

A

4 or more days

78
Q

When initiating a patient on warfarin, what dose do you start on?

A

5mg OD, monitor every 1-2 days

79
Q

What is the target INR for a patient who has had a cardioversion?

80
Q

What is the target INR for a patient who has recurrent VTEs when already receiving anticoagulation and INR was >2?

81
Q

What is the target INR for a patient who has a bioprosthetic valve?

82
Q

What is the target INR for a patient who has a mechanical valve?

83
Q

What would you monitor for warfarin patients?

A

INR, FBC, renal, liver, BP, thyroid

84
Q

What are the MHRA warnings for warfarin?

A

A) Changes in liver function due to hep C treated with antivirals- monitor INR
B) skin rash (calciphylaxis – consult doctor if painful rash)
C) miconazole gel, CI in patients taking warfarin, increases anticoag effect
D) warfarin and other anticoagulants, monitoring of patients during covid 19 as virla infection can exacerbate anticoag treatment

85
Q

What are the enzyme inducers and inhibitors for CYP450?

A
  • Inhibitors
    Sodium valproate
    Isoniazid
    Cimetidine
    Ketoconazole
    Fluconazole
    Alcohol (binge)
    Chloramphenicol
    Erythromycin
    Sulphonamides
    .
    Ciprofloxacin
    Omeprazole
    Metronidazole
    (GRAPEFRUIT JUICE)
  • Inducer
    Carbamazepine
    Rifampicin
    Alcohol (chronic)
    Phenytoin
    Griseofulvin
    Phenobarbitone
    Sulphonylureas
86
Q

For high-risk bleeders, when would you stop warfarin before surgery?

A

5 days or more

87
Q

If stopped for surgery and INR is still >1.5, what do you do?

A

Give vitamin K 1 day prior to surgery

88
Q

What do you do if a patient has INR of 7 and no bleeding?

A

Withhold 1 or 2 doses of warfarin and reduce subsequent maintenance dose

89
Q

What do you do if a patient has INR of 7 and bleeding?

A

Stop warfarin and give IV phytomenadione, restart the warfarin when INR <5

90
Q

What do you do if a patient has INR 9 and bleeding?

A

Stop warfarin and give IV phytomenadione slow, repeat vit K dose if INR still to high, restart warfarin when patients INR is <5

91
Q

What do you do if a patient has INR 9 and not bleeding?

A

Stop warfarin and give ORAL vit k, repeat if necessary and restart warfarin when <5

92
Q

What do you do if there is major bleeding for a warfarin patient?

A

Give IV phytomenadione and dried prothrombin complex

93
Q

What would you do if there is a high-risk patient (VTE risk wise- in the last three months, or stroke and AF, or mechanical valve) who was on warfarin, what would you do when stopping the warfarin 5 days before surgery?

A

Bridge with LMWH until 24 hours before the surgery

94
Q

What would you do if the patient is high risk of bleeding and having surgery, when do you recommence?

A

2 days after surgery

95
Q

Which anticoagulant is a direct thrombin inhibitor and what is its expiry?

A

Dabigatran and four months after opening (special container)

96
Q

What is the reversal agent of LMWH?

A

Protamine sulfate (same for heparins)

97
Q

What other drugs do we use in a SAH (subarachnoid haemorrhage as well as nimodipine?

A

Laxatives- to prevent straining

98
Q

Antiplatelets inhibit platelet coagulation in venous or arterial blood supply?

A

Arterial – because of faster flowing vessels, thrombi are composed of mainly platelets and little fibrin

99
Q

How would you counsel a patient to take dipyramidole?

A

30-60 mins before food

100
Q

What is the expiry on dipyramidole?

A

6 weeks - special container

101
Q

How long is clopidogrel given for with aspirin after a STEMI?

A

Aspirin- life long and clopidogrel 12 months (DAPT)

102
Q

What is the recommended exercise amount?

A

30 mins 5x a week of cardio and 2 x a week for weight training

103
Q

ABPM is offered to patients for patients with blood pressure of …… to confirm hypertension

104
Q

How long should you wait to allow a response for antihypertensives?

105
Q

What are the values for stage 1 hypertension?

A

140/90mmHg- 159/99mmHg or ABPM 135/85mmHg

106
Q

What are the values for stage 2 hypertension?

A

160/100mmHg – 179/119 or ABPM 150/95

107
Q

What is the value for severe hypertension?

A

180/120mmHg and above

108
Q

What is the blood pressure target for over 80s with no comorbidities?

109
Q

What are the blood pressure targets for diabetics under 80?

110
Q

What are the blood pressure targets for type 2 diabetics over 80 years old?

A

Type 1- 135/85 OR 130/80 if albuminuria or 2 or more features of metabolic syndrome.

Type 2- 140/90

111
Q

What is the blood pressure target for someone with renal disease?

112
Q

What is the blood pressure target for someone with renal disease and diabetes?

113
Q

In HTN treatment, if an ACE and ARB is not tolerated which do you use?

114
Q

In HTN treatment, if a CCB is not tolerated, which do you use?

A

ACE/ Thiazide like diuretic

115
Q

Where in the kidneys do ACE inhibitors work?

A

In the efferent arteriole (which reduces intraglomerular pressure and slows progression of CKD)

116
Q

Which ACE inhibitor do you have to take 30-60 mins before food?

A

Perindopril

117
Q

Do ACE inhibitors cause hypokalaemia or hyperkalaemia?

A

Hyperkalaemia

118
Q

What would be the interaction between NSAIDs and ACE inhibitors?

A

Nephrotoxicity/reduced eGFR

119
Q

What would be the interaction between spironolactone and ramipril?

A

Hyperkalaemia

120
Q

Where are beta 1 and beta 2 receptors mainly located in the body?

A

Beta 1- in the heart, beta-2 in the lungs

121
Q

Which beta blockers are taken once daily?

A

BACoN – bisoprolol, atenolol, celiprolol, nadolol

122
Q

Which beta blockers are water soluble?

A

WATER CANS- celiprolol, atenolol, nadolol, sotalol

123
Q

Which beta blockers are cardio specific?

A

BeAMANe- bisoprolol, atenolol, metoprolol, acebutolol, nebivolol

124
Q

Which class of calcium channel blocker is more specific for the vasculature?

A

Vasculature- dihydropyridines (amlodipine, nifedipine)

125
Q

Which class of calcium channel blocker is more specific for the heart?

A

Heart- non DHP: diltiazem, verapamil

126
Q

Why can thiazide like diuretics unmask diabetes?

A

It causes hyperglycemia

127
Q

As well as exacerbating diabetes in pt with diuretics, what other conditions can it exacerbate?

A

Gout and lupus

128
Q

What are the symptoms of pre-eclampsia?

A

Severe headache, BP >140/90mmHg, sudden swelling of hands and feet, proteinuria, severe pain below the ribs, vision problems and vomiting

129
Q

When do you recommend starting to take aspirin if a lady has pre-eclampsia?

A

From week 12 of pregnancy until baby is born (in practice do 36 weeks)

130
Q

What is first line for gestational hypertension?

A

Labetalol (ensure over 8 weeks pregnant), if not then nifedipine MR, then methyldopa

131
Q

What is the BP target for gestational hypertension?

A

135/85mmHg

132
Q

What is the first line antihypertensive in females who are breast feeding?

A

Enalapril (do not give ACE during pregnancy)

133
Q

How do you treat shock?

A

Volume replacement to correct hypovolaemia, sympathomimetics i.e. adrenaline, dopamine. If these don’t work then use noradrenaline (vasoconstrictor)

134
Q

What percentage is the ejection fraction if you have reduced EF HF?

A

Lower than 40%

135
Q

What vaccinations should HF patients have?

A

Pneumococcal and annual influenza

136
Q

What meds should patients NOT have with reduced EF?

A

avoid CCBs and dihydropyridines as they reduce cardiac contractility (although amlodipine is fine in reduced EF)

137
Q

What meds should patients have with reduced EF?

A

Loop diuretics for relief of breathlessness and oedema if has fluid retention but LT: BETA BLOCKER AND ACE
if already on BB, then switch to a BB licensed for HF, start low and up titrate
** if the above has not worked: used an aldosterone antagonist, i.e, spironolactone, eplerenone.

Next line is specialist ie amiodarone digoxin etc

138
Q

How often do you monitor patients when initiated on ACE, ARB and aldosterone antagonists?

A

K+, Na+, renal function, BP BEFORE treatment AND 1-2 weeks AFTER, AND after each dose change, MONTHLY for 3 months then every 6 months and if patient becomes unwell

139
Q

In hyperlipidaemia, statins are effective at reducing cholesterol. What are fibrates effective at reducing?

A

Triglyceride concentration

140
Q

A high intensity statin reduces LDL cholesterol by how much?

A

40% or more

141
Q

What can you give to patients with a contraindication to statins?

142
Q

What is the most potent statin to the least potent statin?

A

Rosuvastatin (most) - atorvastatin - simvastatin - pravastatin, Fluvastatin (least)

143
Q

What is the MHRA alert with simvastatin?

A

80mg of simvastatin should only be considered patients with severe hypercholesteremia and high risk of CV complications

144
Q

What is measured with QRISK?

A

Age, lipid profile, systolic BP, gender, ethnicity etc

145
Q

Is aspirin recommended for primary prevention of CV disease?

A

No, only secondary

146
Q

What are the targets for patient lipid levels?

A

Total cholesterol <5, LDL cholesterol <3, HDL cholesterol >1, serum triglyceride concentration <1.7

147
Q

Name a bile acid sequestrant

A

Ezetimibe, Colestyramine, colesevelam

148
Q

How do statins work?

A

Inhibition of HMG CoA reductase- thereby reducing cholesterol production (indirectly reduces TGs and increases HDL cholesterol and reduces LDL)

149
Q

Give some examples of drugs which cause hyperlipidaemia

A

Corticosteroids, antipsychotics, immunosuppressants, ARVs

150
Q

Statins can interact with Fusidic acid, when would you restart the statin?

A

7 days after last dose (interaction= increased risk of rhabdomyolysis)

151
Q

What do you monitor with statins?

A

Baseline lipid profile+ 3 months, renal function, thyroid function before, HbA1c if risk of developing diabetes, creatinine kinase (discontinue if 5x upper limit), liver function (discontinue if 3x upper limit)

152
Q

When do you check LFTs?

A

At baseline, 3 and 12 months

153
Q

Contraception is required during statin treatment for the duration of treatment and for how long after?

A

1 month after cessation of treatment

154
Q

If a patient wants to become pregnant, when should she stop taking statins?

A

3 months before conceiving

155
Q

How do bile acid sequestrants work?

A

Binds to bile acid, prevents reabsorption, promotes hepatic conversion of cholesterol into bile, increased LDL receptor activity, increased LDL cholesterol clearance from plasma (i.e., cholestyramine)

156
Q

Do statins raise or reduce HbA1c?

A

Raise HbA1c

157
Q

What vitamins do bile acid sequestrants interfere with?

A

Fat soluble vitamins (ADEK)

158
Q

How long should you wait to take other medicines after taking a bile acid sequestrant (i.e., cholestyramine)

159
Q

Rhabdomyolysis can occur as a side effect of bile acid sequestrants, in which type of patient (co-morbidity) does it more commonly occur in?

A

Renal disease

160
Q

What is the long-term prevention for stable angina?

A

Beta blocker first line, rate limiting CCB as alternative.

If inadequate- add another agent. So beta blocker + dhp CCB. Then add if needed after: LA nitrate/ivabradine/nicorandil/ranolazine (assess response to treatment every 2-4 weeks following initiation or change of therapy + increase to max tolerated dose)

161
Q

When would a dr consider prophylactic nitrates in angina patients?

A

If they are using GTN sprays more than TWICE a week. (NB cannot use nitrates in aortic stenosis)

162
Q

What is the expiry for nitrate sublingual tablets?

163
Q

What is the MHRA alert for nicorandil (potassium channel activator)

A

Now given second line- risk of ulcer complications in mouth, skin, eye, GI

164
Q

When do we dose isosorbide mononitrate? (timing)

A

Generally, 8am and 4pm due to tolerance, but needs to be 12 hours of nitrate free period

165
Q

How do you initially treat unstable angina and NSTEMI?

A

Oxygen, nitrates, aspirin 300mg, diamorphine for pain, clopidogrel, UFH/LMWH, beta blockers

166
Q

What do you give long term for NSTEMI and UA?

A

AAABC (ace, aspirin, atorvastatin, beta blocker, clopi or ticagrelor?) If a high risk of death use glycoprotein IIa/IIIb inhibitor (eptifibatide)

167
Q

What antiplatelets are given post PCI with a bare metal stent and drug eluting stent with stable angina?

A

Aspirin indefinitely and clopidogrel (ticagrelor is unlicensed but can be used) 1-month bare metal stent, at least 6 months for drug eluting stent

168
Q

What drug is given to patients having a STEMI LT proph which is not generally given in unstable angina and NSTEMI?

169
Q

How would you resuscitate someone in the community? How many compressions/breaths?

A

30 compressions, 2 breaths

170
Q

How many compressions a minute?

A

100-120 compressions/min

171
Q

How much do you press down on their chest during compressions?

172
Q

You use IV adrenaline (1 in 1000) every 3-5 mins during cardiogenic shock, what do you use if there is ventricular fibrillation present?

A

IV amiodarone

173
Q

Which is the most potent loop diuretic?

A

Bumetanide

174
Q

What drug is used to treat Raynaud’s syndrome?

A

First lifestyle: stop smoking and avoid the cold, then use nifedipine

175
Q

What is the MHRA alert with aldosterone antagonists?

A

Concomitant use with ACEi/ARB= potential risk of fatal hyperkalemia- monitoring is essential

176
Q

Potency and example of thiazide and

A

Moderately potent

Ex: indapamide and bendrofluthiazide

177
Q

Examples of loop diuretics and side effects

A

Ex: furosemide, bumetanide and torsemide

SE: exacerbate diabetes & gout, cause urinary retention and potassium loss

178
Q

Examples of potassium sparing diuretics & its treatment

A

Ex: amiloride
Minerealcorticoid receptor antagonist: eplerrnone and spiralactone

treatment - oedema and ascites caused by cirrhosis of liver