Cardiovasc Flashcards

1
Q

Chest pain - probability diagnosis?

A
  • Psychogenic
  • Musculoskeletal
  • Angina
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2
Q

AMI - management

A

Management
o Oxygen – now only indicated if Sa02 <95%
o Aspirin
o GTN 300mcg SL or spray (every 5/60 as necessary up to 3 doses) – be aware of Viagra
o IV access
o IV morphine 2-5mg bolum; 1mg/min until pain relief up to 15mg
o ECG – key is to classify ACS into STEMI or non-STEMI

Key management of STEMI will be to get a patient to a Cath lab for PTCA ideally within an 1 hour of chest pain (if not possible e.g. rural locations thrombolysis is indicated if no CI’s exist)

Post AMI complications to be weary of are: CCF; pericarditis; LV aneurysm; Ventricular septal and mitral valve papillary rupture

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3
Q

Pericarditis - Presenting symptoms

A
  • Can cause 3 types of pain – pleuritic (commonest) – often worse with lying flat, pain mimicking AMI, pain synchronous with heart beat and radiating to left shoulder
  • O/E – fever, Signs of tamponade
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4
Q

Pericarditis - Investigations and Mx

A
  • ECG – PR depression, diffuse saddle shaped STE
  • Echo – can detect effusions, tamponate
  • Cardiac CT – can show pericardial thickness
  • Bloods including inflammatory markers are useful

Management – treat underlying cause, NSAIDS, rest

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5
Q

Aortic Dissection - Presenting picture

A
  • Sudden severe midline chest pain – tearing in nature; may be interscapula
  • Associated PMhx: Aortic valve disease, Hypertension, Pregnancy, Genetics – Marfans, Ehlers-Danlos

Examination Findings:

  • BP (may be high, low or normal)
  • Asymmetric pulses
  • Signs of tamponade – hypotension, quiet HS, raised JVP, pulsus paradoxus; pericardial friction rub
  • Systolic murmur – AR (incompetence)
  • Ischaemic neurological deficits – hemiplegia, hemiparesis
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6
Q

Aortic Dissection - Ix and Management

A

Investigations

  • CXR – screening test
  • TTE or helical CT for diagnosis
  • ECG findings – may mimic AMI findings

Management - Surgery

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7
Q

Respiratory causes of Chest Pain

A
  • PE
  • Lung Cancer
  • Pneumonia
  • Pleuritis – can be due to infection, pulmonary infarction, tumour, connective tissue disorders
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8
Q

Spontaneous Pneumothorax - when to suspect? Hx/Ex/Ix/Mx?

A
  • Suspect in those with history of – Asthma or COPD and young slender males
  • O/E – tachycardia, Decreased breath sounds
  • Diagnosis is made on CXR – expiratory films
  • Management - <25%, no symptoms – can observe, if symptoms drain, >25%. drain
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9
Q

CP caused by cox-sackie virus (faecal oral route)

A

Epidemic Pleuordynia

  • Occurs in epidemics and mainly affects children and young adults
  • Causes chest/upper abdominal pain – often pleuritic in nature, as well as myalgia elsewhere
  • Diagnosis of exclusion
  • Management is analgesia
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10
Q

What are features of Chostocondritis?

A
  • Often precedes an URTI

Often one sided, sharp and made worse with breathing, physical activity and palpation

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11
Q

Unilateral sharp pleuritic chest pain with a tender, fusiform swelling at the chndrosternal junction?

A

Tietze Syndrome

Cause is not well understood – may relate to physical strain or minor injury

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12
Q

Seven masquerades for Chest pain?

A
  • Depression 
  • Drugs 
  • Diabetes x
  • Anaemia  - indirectly
  • Thyroid dysfunction x
  • Spinal dysfunction  - referred pain from facet joints rather than nerve root pain
  • UTI x
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13
Q

Chest pain in Children? Most common causes?

A

Most common cause – idiopathic followed by musculoskeletal, cough related, costochondritis and psychogenic

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14
Q

– low chest pain lasting 30s-3mins after exercise – relieved by standing up right and taking slow deep breaths

A

Precordial Catch aka Texidor twinge or stitch

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15
Q

AF - epidemiology?

A

AF affects 1% of the Australian Population >50% are over 75

RR of stroke is increased by 5x and 3x increased risk of CCF

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16
Q

AF - Risk factors?

A
  • Structural e.g. valvular abnormalities, cardiomyopathy
  • Conduction e.g sick sinus syndrome, WPW
  • Functional e.g AMI, pericarditis
  • Stress on the heart e.g. IHD, hypertension, PE
  • Physiologic/Hyperadrenergic states – medications and drugs, stress, fever, hyperthyroidism
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17
Q

AF - Categories?

A
  • Paroxysmal (usually <48 hours) - 90% have recurrent episodes
  • Persistent >7 days
  • Permanent >1 year
  • Lone (without evidence of structural disease)
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18
Q

AF - History?

A
  • Palpitations
  • SOB
  • Lightheadedness/syncopal episodes
  • Focal neurological deficit
  • PMhx
  • Meds and drugs – e.g. alcohol, caffeine, illicit drugs
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19
Q

AF - Examination findings

A
  • Vitals- Pulse irregularly irregular, BP to check for decompensation, fever as potential cause
  • HS – listen for murmurs – valvular abnormalitites
  • Chest – if CCF bibasal crackles, peripheral oedema, JVP raised
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20
Q

AF - Investigations

A

• ECG

  • Absence of p-waves
  • Irregular RR intervals

• Echo

  • TOE or TTE
  • TOE used to exclude left atrial appendage thrombus
Bloods
•	FBE
•	UEC
•	LFT
•	TSH
•	Ca/Mg
•	Fasting glucose
•	Fasting lipid profile

• CXR – check for CCF

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21
Q

Acute management AF

A

In patients without CCF and without pre-excitation:

  • Metoprolol 2.5-5mg IV over 2/60, up to 3 doses OR
  • Verapamil 0.075-0.15 mg/kg IV over 2/60

In patients with CCF and without pre-excitation – IV digoxin or IV amiodarone

In patients with pre-excitation – IV amiodarone

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22
Q

AF - Rate control

A
  • Beta blocker – e.g. metoprolol 50-200mg/day OR
  • Non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker – e.g. diltiazem or verapamil
  • Digoxin – indicated for rate control in patients with CCF, LV dysfunction or sedentary individuals
  • Oral amiodarone – may be indicated when other medical therapies fail
  • Ablation of AV node or accessory pathways – may be indicated if medical therapies fail
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23
Q

AF - Rhythm control?

A

Rate control preferred – only do if the above measures fail

DC Cardioversion
Recommended if rapid ventricular rate unresponsive to medications and myocardial ischaemia or hypotension or heart failure
If <48 hours of known duration of AF can do without delay for anticoagulation
If >48 hours or of unknown duration – either 3/52 anti-coagulation INR 2-3 OR initial anticoagulation, TOE to confirm no atrial thrombus, then cardioversion within 24 hours

Pharmacologic Cardioversion options include flecainide, amiodarone

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24
Q

How do you decide anti-coagualtion for AF?

A
Determined by the CHA2DS2-VA
Condition and	Points
 C 	 Congestive heart failure (or Left ventricular systolic dysfunction)	
1
 H	 Hypertension: blood pressure consistently above 140/90 mmHg (or treated hypertension on medication)	
1
 A2	 Age ≥75 years	
2
 D	 Diabetes Mellitus	
1
 S2	 Prior Stroke or TIA or thromboembolism	
2
 V	 Vascular disease (e.g. peripheral artery disease, myocardial infarction, aortic plaque)	
1
 A	 Age 65–74 years	
1

0 - low risk - no therapy or low dose aspirin
1 - moderate risk – benefit from warfarin/anticoagulation
>/= 2 points - high risk and long term oral anticoagulant therapy is strongly recommended

CHADS 2 score	Annual stroke rate
0 			1.9 %
2			4%
4			8.5%
6			18%

Other relevant factors
Echo findings - systolic dysfunction and left atrial enlargement
Vascular factors - previous MI, PVD, complex aortic plaque

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25
Q

Risk Mitigation for AF Anticoagulation

A

Looks at risk of major bleeding whilst on oral anticoagulant treatment
Risk of major bleeding is at least 1-1.5% annually

HAS-BLED
• Helps identify correctable RF’s for bleeding and identify patients at high risk
• It should not be used to exclude patients from anticoagulant treatment but rather serve to indicate increased monitoring
• Correctable RF’s should be managed

Hypertension (Sytolic BP >160mmHg)
Abnormal renal or liver function
Stroke (history of)
Bleeding (Hx of or diathesis)
Labile INRS (<6/10 in therapeutic range)
Elderly (>65)
Drugs (antiplatelet agents, NSAIDS, alcohol >/= 8 SD per week)
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26
Q

Anticoagulation in AF

A

Warfarin or novel anticoagulants (target thrombin directly)

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27
Q

Warfarin in AF

A

Its used in valvular AF - mod/sev mitral STENOSIS or mechanical heart valve. Otherwise use a NOAC

Reduces the incidence of AF related stroke by about 2/3rds

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28
Q

Which novel anticogulants are available? When are they used? What dosage?

A

Rivaroxaban
Dose is 20mg daily – reduce to 15mg OD if CrCl 30-49

PBS approved for:
• Preventions of stroke and systemic embolism in non-valvular AF and at least one additional risk factor as defined by the CHADS2 score
• Prevention of venous thromboembolism after THR or TKR surgery
• Treatment of acute PE; DVT or prevention of venous thromboembolism recurrence in people with a history of VTE

  • Bleeding risk less than or equal to that of warfarin
  • No antidote - unlike warfarin
  • Not to be used in patients with hepatic disease, increased INR, severe renal impairment

Pradaxa (Dabigatran)
150mg BD; Dose reduction to 110mg BD for age >/=75, CrCl 30-50, higher risk of bleeding

PBS approved for:
• Preventions of stroke and systemic embolism in non-valvular AF and at least one additional risk factor as defined by the CHADS2 score
• Prevention of venous thromboembolism after THR or TKR surgery
• Treatment of acute PE; DVT or prevention of venous thromboembolism recurrence in people with a history of VTE

Eliquis (Apixaban)
• Requires BD dosing – either 2.5mg BD or 5mg BD
• Dose reduction for Age >/= 80; bodyweight = 60kg; Serum Cr >/= 133
• CI – Severe hepatic disease (Child-Pugh C); severe renal impairment CrCl <25; strong clinical risk of bleeding

PBS approved for:
• Preventions of stroke and systemic embolism in non-valvular AF and at least one additional risk factor as defined by the CHADS2 score
• Prevention of venous thromboembolism after THR or TKR surgery

*In comparative trials only apixaban was found to have a lower incidence of major bleeds c.f. warfarin

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29
Q

Switching anticoagulants in AF?

A

Stop Warfarin

Commence new anticoagulant once INR <2

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30
Q

Hypertension assessment/grading

A

Blood pressure Category Action
BP <120/<80 Normal Recheck in 2 years
BP 120-139/80-89 High Normal Recheck in 1 year or as per CV risk
140-159/90-99 Grade 1 Confirm within 2 months
160-179/100-109 Grade 2 Reassess or refer within 1 month
≥180/110 Grade 3 Reassess or refer within 1-7 days

Isolated systolic - >140/<90 as per systolic above

Isolated systolic with widened pulse pressure >160/<70 - as for grade 3 hypertension

31
Q

Who needs Immediate Anti hypertensive treatment?

A

Those at high absolute CV risk >15% probability of a CV event in the next 5 years. Can be assumed as high for the following groups:

  1. Group A - patients 75 years and over
  2. Group B - patients with existing CV disease including IHD/CCF/Previous Stroke/PVD/LVH/Aortic disease
  3. Group C - Patients with associated clinical conditions and/or end-organ disease:
Associated
•	Diabetes AND age >60 or microalbuminuria >2.5 mg/mmol males >3.5 females
•	Dyslipidemia - Total cholesterol >7.5
•	Familial hypercholesterolaemia
•	FHx of premature CV disease
AND as per group B (also associated)
•	IHD
•	CVA 
•	PVD
•	Aortic disease

End-organ disease
• Chronic Kidney disease
- eGFR<60
- Proteinuria defined as urine protein >300mg/day or Protein/Cr ratio >/=30 mg/mmol
- Microalbuminuria - Alb:Cr ≥ 2mg/mmol males or 2.5 mg/mmol female; 24 hour urinary albumin excretion rate >20 mcg/min
• Vascular disease - atherosclerotic plaque - aorta; carotid; coronary; peripheral vasculature
• Hypertensive retinopathy

AND

Grade 3 hypertension or systolic hypertension with widened pulse pressure

For everyone else consider use of risk charts

32
Q

Hypertension lifestyle risk reduction?

A
  • 30/60 moderate intensity physical cativity on most if not all days of the week - daily total can be accumulated during the day
  • Smoking cessation
  • Dietary salt restriction - ?2 or 4g/day - recommend low-salt and salt-reduced foods
  • Limited alcohol intake = 2 SD per day for men and = 1 SD per day for women

Patient’s who need immediate antihypertensive drug treatment include:
• Those at high absolute CV risk >15% probability of a CV event in the next 5 years

Also consider drug therapy for
• Patients with moderate risk of CV disease as estimated using risk calculator
• Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islanders

33
Q

Treatment targets for HTN?

A

• People with no other co-morbidity <140/90
• People with associated conditions or end organ damage <130/80
People with proteinuria >1g/day <125/75

34
Q

First line drugs for HTN therapy?

A

First line drugs:
• ACE-I or ARB
• Dihydropyridine Calcium Channel Blockers
• Low-dose thiazide diurects (suitable for patients aged 65 years and older - have been associated with increased risk of new-onset diabetesa and should be used with caution in patients with glucose intolerance and/or metabolic syndrome

Start dose low, if target BP not reached consider introduction of another first line medication (in addition) before increasing doses. If target is not achieved and both drugs are well tolerated increase doses.

Use up to four antihypertensive drugs in combination to achieve target

Avoid these combinations:
• Beta-blocker plus verapamil (non dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker)
• ACE-I plus ARB
• ACE-I or ARB plus potassium sparing diuretics e.g. amiloride, spirinolactone

Based on estimates 50-75% of patients will not achieve satisfactory BP control on monotherapy

Based on the best available evidence the most effective combination is ACE-I or ARB plus calcium channel blocker

35
Q

Beta blockers in HTN?

A

Beta blockers are no longer recommended as first-line therapy in uncomplicated hypertension because of the increased risk of developing diabetes and the recently described trend towards worse outcomes in patient’s treated with these compared with other classes of drugs.

Stable patients already on a beta-blocker do not need to have their medication changed

36
Q

Follow up and things to consider if inadequate response to first line HTN therapy?

A

Follow up
Medium-low risk check every 6/12
High risk check every 3/12

Things to consider if inadequate response to treatment
• Poor compliance
• Lifestyle issues - treatment resistance due to alcohol/recreational drugs; other medications e.g. NSAIDS, high salt intake, volume overload
• Undiagnosed secondary hypertension e.g CKD, hyperaldosteronism, renal artery stenosis, phaeochromocytoma, co-arctation of the aorta
• Treatment resistance due to sleep apnoea
• White coat hypertension

37
Q

Secondary Causes of Hypertension?

A

Chronic kidney disease
• Underlying cause not able to be treated
• May be both a cause and consequence of hypertension
• Defined as 3 months or more of an eGFR<60 or other markers e.g. albuminuria >30 mcg/mg creatinine in a first morning voided urine sample
• ACE-I should be part of regimen

Good screening tests:
UEC/First morning voided urine for alb:cr ratio

Primary hyperaldosteronism
• Causes: 60% bilateral adrenal hyperplasia; 35% aldosterone-productng adenomas; remainder due to adrenal cardinoma, unilateral adrenal hyperplasia etc
• Often associated with raised BMI; sleep apnoea and hypokalemia (not always present)
• These patients are at risk of LVH; AMI; AF; stroke and the metabolic syndrome

Good screening test:
• Aldosterone/renin ratio - if high >20-40 confirmatory tests may be done which include 2 L n/saline or captopril and remeasurement of ratio if there is supression then treatment is best done with an agent such as spirinolactone.
• If there is no suppression HRCT of the adrenals/adrenal venous sampling +/- surgery may occur

Renal artery stenosis
• Up to a 1/3 of cardiac patients requiring stenting also have renal artery stenosis
• Medical management of this has been shown in studies to be just as effective as stenting there the only times where you would consider stenting would be in a patient who cannot tolerate and CAI or ARB or in patients with ongoing poor control despite maximum medical therapy

Good screening test:
Renal doppler U/S - other options HR CTA or MRA

Cushing syndrome
Good screening test - Urinary free cortisol >100mcg/day; midnight serum cortisol; high dose dexamethasone suppression tests

Pheochromocytoma
Good screening test - plasma metanephrines/cathecholamines; 24 hour urine for VMA and metanephrines/catecholamines
If the above are positive search for an adrenal lesion should be done via CT or MRI abdomen

Coarctation of the aorta
Key is blood pressure differences across the limbs; systolic murmur may also be heard
Good scrrening test
Echo

Sleep apnoea

38
Q

Acute Pulmonary Oedema precipitating causes?

A
Cardiac
•	AMI
•	Arrhythmias 
•	Uncontrolled hypertension
•	Significant valvular disease (stenosis and regurgitation)

Pulmonary
• PE
• Infection

Others
•	Anaemia
•	Hyperthyroidism
•	Medications
•	Excessive alcohol and salt intake
39
Q

APO investigations?

A

ECG - check for AF, AMI, LVH

CXR
• Enlargement of Cardiothoracic ratio >50
• Pulmonary congestion (Bat wing oedema)
• Fluid in the fissures
• Kerley B lines (interstitial oedema - usually seen at the lung bases)
• Prominent upper lobe vessels
• Blunting of costophrenic angles

Bloods
•	FBE
•	UEC
•	LFT
•	TSH
•	CK and Tn
•	BNP - may be done in larger centres
40
Q

APO acute management?

A
•	Sit patient upright
•	Oxygen
•	ECG
•	Pulse oximetry
•	IV access - can do bloods at the same times
Medications
CPAP
41
Q

APO medications?

A

Medications

GTN
• Sublingual or topical
• To be given if BP systolic >90 mmHg
• Given IV in some major hospitals (ensuring that BP is >100mmHg)

Lasix
• Usual daily dose or 1-1.5mg/kg
• Beneficial effect is accelerated by pre-treatment with a vasodilator

Morphine
• No longer recommended
• Emerging data links it use with increased intubation and mortality rates
• No studies have ever shown benefit

42
Q

CPAP in APO?

A

CPAP
• Effective in pre-load and afterload reduction
• Associated with decreased intubation and mortality

Patient with the following conditions may benefit from early CPAP listed in order of evidence:
• Acute exacerbations of COPD
• Acute cardiogenic pulmonary oedema
• Pneumonia - patients with COPD and immunocompromised seem to benefit
• COPD or APO where a decision has been made not to intubate - prevent deterioration
• COPD or APO where extubation has failed after a brief course of intubation - CPAP might ease the transision

*CPAP is not recommended in asthma, ARDS, other causes of respiratory failure

43
Q

Complications of CPAP?

A
  • Pain or ulcer over nasal bridge
  • Mucosal dryness
  • Eye irritation - if the mask seal is not complete
  • Gastric insufflation (air blowing) or aspiration
44
Q

ICU therapies for APO (aside from CPAP?)

A
  • Adrenaline infusion
  • Vasodilators (sodium nitroprusside)
  • Inotropes (for cardiogenic shock or hypoperfused state with systolic BP <90mmg Hg) (aramine eg)
  • Mechanical support e.g. intra-aortic balloon pump)
45
Q

In regards to treatment for peripheral arterial disease, which of the following treatments can improve walking distance? Choose one (1) option.

Rampiril 10mg orally daily

Smoking cessation

Simvastatin 40mg orally daily

A graduated walking program

All of the above

A

All of the above

https://www.racgp.org.au/afp/2013/june/peripheral-arterial-disease-diagnosis/

46
Q

Patricia is a 65 year old female patient who you have been seeing for several years for management of her diet-controlled type 2 diabetes. She reports a healthy diet which is low in salt and she has recently lost 10% of her body weight. Over the past six months she has started walking for 60 minutes each day with a friend. Patricia is a non-smoker and non-drinker. Six months ago you diagnosed her with hypertension and prescribed perindopril arginine 5mg daily which she has been taking regularly with no side effects.

During Patricia’s last consultation three months ago you noted that her blood pressure was still168/95. She had some blood pressure readings performed at the local pharmacy since then which show similar readings. You recheck her blood again today and it is 170/90. How do you manage Patricia’s blood pressure now?

Advise Patricia that no change to her anti-hypertensive medication is required at this stage and encourage continued lifestyle change

Add amlodipine 5mg daily

Add metoprolol 50mg daily

Increase Perindopril arginine to 10mg daily

Add Irbesartan 150mg daily

A

The correct response is: Add amlodipine 5mg daily.

Current guidelines recommend the use of either an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACE i) or angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) first line for treatment of hypertension in patients with type 2 diabetes. This is a superior choice to other anti-hypertensives in this group of patients because these drugs have been found to reduce progression to microalbuminuria and reduce the risk of renal impairmen.

If monotherapy with an ACEi or ARB does not sufficiently reduce blood pressure the next step is to add one of either a calcium channel blocker or a low dose thiazide or thiazide like diuretic.

Combination therapy, defined by the use of at least two antihypertensive drugs, is required in up to 50–70% of patients to reach blood pressure targets. It is widely accepted that combining two classes of antihypertensive drug lowers blood pressure more than doubling the dose of one drug.

The Royal Australian College of General Practitioners. General practice management of type 2 diabetes: 2016 – 2018. East Melbourne, Victoria. https://www.racgp.org.au/download/Documents/Guidelines/Diabetes/2015diabetesmanagement.pdf

47
Q

You are seeing a 62 year old female patient who consistently has high blood pressure readings in the clinic. Today her blood pressure is 162/97mmHg. She reassures you she just has “white coat hypertension” and that she is not concerned about her blood pressure.

You convince her that you need to obtain some normal blood pressure readings outside of the clinic in order to agree with her diagnosis of “white coat hypertension”. Although she will not agree to a 24 hour ambulatory blood pressure recording, she will agree to home blood pressure monitoring. She borrows the automated blood pressure device the clinic loans out to patients.

Which of the following statements about home blood pressure readings is correct? Choose one (1) option.

Blood pressure should be monitored at different times in the morning and evening

Blood pressure should be checked after eating and vigorous exercise

Blood pressure should be checked before taking regular daily medications

Blood pressure should be taken three times daily for four consecutive days

Caffeine and cigarettes should be avoided for at least 15 minutes before measuring blood pressure

A

The correct response is: Blood pressure should be checked before taking regular daily medications

Patients should be given advice on how to correctly take home blood pressure readings. They should be advised to take the readings before medication, food and vigorous exercise for seven consecutive days. The readings should be taken at the same time each morning and night. Cigarettes and caffeine need to be avoided for at least 30 minutes before taking a reading.

Reference:

Sharman, J. et al. How to measure home blood pressure: recommendations for healthcare professionals and patients. Australian Family Physician, 2016; 45(1-2):31-34. https://www.racgp.org.au/afp/2016/januaryfebruary/how-to-measure-home-blood-pressure-recommendations-for-healthcare-professionals-and-patients/

48
Q

A 45 year old male presents with episodes of a racing heart, sweating and headaches. He states that these symptoms have increased in the last 6 months and are now a daily occurrence. On examination he appears well, is afebrile and has a blood pressure of 170/110. He has lost 5kg since his last clinic appointment 2 months ago.

Which of the following investigations would be a suitable screening test for his most likely diagnosis? Choose one (1) option.
Plasma aldosterone to plasma renin activity ratio

Early morning cortisol level

24 hour urinary catecholamines and metanephrines

Short synacthen test

1mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test

A

The correct response is: 24 hour urinary catecholamines and metanephrines

This case is describing a patient with symptoms and signs consistent with a pheochromocytoma. 24 hour urinary catecholamines and metanephrines have a sensitivity of 90% and specificity of 98% for this condition.

Reference:

Gendy R, Rashid P. Incidental adrenal masses - A primary care approach. Australian Family Physician 2017; 46(6): 385-390.
https://www.racgp.org.au/afp/2017/june/incidental-adrenal-masses-a-primary-care-approach/

49
Q

A 76 year old male presents with fatigue, intermittent palpitations and shortness of breath at rest. He is currently on Perindopril for his hypertension but has no other regular medications. He has a past history of peripheral arterial disease and a transient ischaemic attack (TIA) 2 years ago.

On examination you note that he has an irregularly irregular heart rate.

You suspect the patient has atrial fibrillation and order an ECG which confirms this diagnosis. You base your decision for anticoagulation for stroke prevention on this patient’s CHA2DS2-VA score.

What is this patient’s score? Choose one (1) option.

8

7

6

5

4

A

The 2018 Australian Clinical Guidelines for the Diagnosis and Management of Atrial Fibrillation recommends the use of the CHA2 DS2-VA score to assess stroke risk. This patient’s score is 6:

History of hypertension: 1 point
Age ≥75 years: 2 points
History of prior TIA: 2 points
Vascular disease (peripheral arterial disease: 1 point

Reference

National Heart Foundation of Australia and the Cardiac Society of Australia and New Zealand. Australian Guidelines for the Diagnosis and Management of Atrial Fibrillation 2018. https://www.heartlungcirc.org/article/S1443-9506(18)31778-5/fulltext (Accessed November 2019)

50
Q

Your patient, 73 year old Rohan Balci, is concerned about a new small pigmented skin lesion on his forearm. Your examination confirms a 4mm pigmented lesion with some border irregularity. You plan to perform an excisional biopsy but are concerned about bleeding risks as Rohan is on aspirin and prasugrel which was commenced nine months ago following his ST elevation myocardial infarction. This was treated with percutaneous coronary intervention and a single coronary artery stent.

What is the most appropriate way in which to manage Rohan’s skin lesion? Choose one (1) option.

Excise under local anaesthetic; cease aspirin and prasugrel the day prior to the procedure and resume the next day following the excision.

Excise under local anaesthetic; cease aspirin and prasugrel for 10 days prior to the procedure and resume the next day following the excision.

Wait for three months until the planned cessation of prasugrel while continuing aspirin; then excise under local anaesthetic.

Continue his current medications and excise under local anaesthetic.

Continue his current medications and treat the skin lesion with cryotherapy.

A

The correct response is: Continue his current medications and excise under local anaesthetic.

A new pigmented skin lesion with border irregularity requires a histological diagnosis to exclude melanoma. It is not appropriate to wait three months or to treat with cryotherapy. Any cessation of dual anticoagulant therapy in this patient would carry a significant risk of stent thrombosis and recurrent myocardial infarction. There is likely to be increased bleeding at excision when on dual anticoagulation therapy but an excision on the forearm might be managed with additional local measures such as extra local pressure and additional sutures.

References:

Jayasinghe R, Markham R, Adsett G. Dual antiplatelet therapy: Management in general practice. Australian Family Physician 2013; 42 (10): 702-705. https://www.racgp.org.au/afp/2013/october/dual-antiplatelet-therapy/ (Accessed January 2020).

51
Q

You are seeing a 62 year old female patient who consistently has high blood pressure readings in the clinic. Today her blood pressure is 162/97 mmHg. She reassures you she just has “white coat hypertension” and is not concerned about her blood pressure. You convince her that you need to obtain some normal blood pressure readings outside of the clinic in order to agree with her diagnosis of “white coat hypertension”. Although she will not agree to a 24 hour ambulatory blood pressure recording, she will agree to home blood pressure monitoring. She borrows the automated blood pressure device the clinic loans out to patients.

Which of the following statements about home blood pressure readings is correct? Choose one (1) option.

Patients should be advised to sit quietly for 1 minute before taking their blood pressure at home

Home blood pressure readings are less reliable than clinic readings in terms of determining the true underlying blood pressure

Patients should be advised to take one blood pressure measurement morning and evening for seven consecutive days

Average home blood pressure readings of 135/85 mmHg or more is the threshold for diagnosing hypertension

Patients should be advised to take three blood pressure readings daily over a four week period

A

The correct response is: Average home blood pressure readings of 135/85 mmHg or more is the threshold for diagnosing hypertension

Two measurements of home blood pressure should be taken, one minute apart, after 5 minutes of sitting quietly, morning and evening, for 7 consecutive days.

Reference:

Sharman, J. et al. How to measure home blood pressure: recommendations for healthcare professionals and patients. Australian Family Physician 2016; 45(1-2): 31-34.

https://www.racgp.org.au/afp/2016/januaryfebruary/how-to-measure-home-blood-pressure-recommendations-for-healthcare-professionals-and-patients/

52
Q

Fred is a seven year old boy is brought to you by his parents who say that he has has been complaining of trouble with his vision at school. On examination his blood pressure is 145/90mmHg. You take further history and perform further examination to determine is Fred is likely to be suffering with secondary or essential hypertension.
Which feature in this list is MOST likely to fit with essential hypertension?

Abdominal bruit

Ambiguous genitalia

Delayed femoral pulses

Diastolic hypertension

History of umbilical artery catheterisation

History of urinary tract infections

Malignant hypertension

Nocturnal hypertension

Family history of hypertension

Oedema

Prepubertal child

Resistant hypertension despite the concurrent use of 3 anti-hypertensives at adequate doses from different classes

Tachycardia, sweating, headache and flushing

A

Obesity and a family history of hypertension make essential rather than secondary hypertension more likely.

Gupta-Malhotra M et al. Essential Hypertension vs. Secondary Hypertension Among Children. Am J Hypertens. 2015 Jan; 28(1): 73–80.

https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4318949/ (Accessed Dec 2018)

53
Q

Pathophysiology of Heart Failure?

A

Myocardial injury

LV dysfunction (EF<40%)

Activiation of renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system and the sympathetic nervous system

In turn detrimental to ventricular structure and function

54
Q

Clinical features of Heart Failure?

A
Clinical features
•	Exertional dyspnoea and fatigue
•	PND
•	Orthopnoea
•	Ankle oedema
55
Q

What are the NYHA classification stages of heart failure?

A

Class 1 - asymptomatic LV dysfunction
Class 2 - symptoms with normal activities
Class 3 - symptoms with less than normal activities
Class 4 - symptoms at rest

56
Q

What are the causes of heart failure?

A
  • IHD – accounts for 50% of patients with CCF in Australia
  • Hypertension
  • Valvular heart disease

Less common:
• Congenital

  • Diabetes
  • Thyroid related
  • Connective tissue diseases
  • Myocarditis
  • Peripartum
  • Drug induced e.g. alcohol or chemotherapy
57
Q

Heart failure examination findings?

A
Raised JVP
Ventricular strain - gallop rhythm; tachycardia
Bibasal creps
Pulsatile hepatomegaly
Ascites
Peripheral oedema
58
Q

Investigations in heart failure?

A

Bloods
• FBE/UEC/LFT/TFT/Fe studies/auto-immune screen
• CK and Tn may be relevant
• BNP - if <100 pg/ml - make CCF very unlikely; can be elevated in renal failure; CCF, PE, other severe illnesses – useful if an echo cannot be organised in a timely fashion

  • CXR - bibasal opacity; enlarged cardiothoracic ratio; pleural effusions
  • ECG – look for ischaemic changes – Q waves, ST changes, LBBB, AF

Transthoracic Echo
• All patients with suspected CCF should undergo a transthoracic echo to assess LV systolic function
• Up to a 1/3 of CHF patients have normal LV systolic function (often termed diastolic failure – failure of ventricular relaxation) – in these patients no specific pharmacologic therapy has been shown to improve mortality
• In patients with abnormal diastolic function - diastolic CCF may be considered - often occurs in elderly females with hypertension, can also occur in those with diabetes, obesity, IHD

Uses
• Can help find causes - e.g. valvular heart disease; LV hypertrophy; pulmonary hypertension; regional wall motion abnormalities
• Can be used to assess response of LV function to therapy - serial measurement of EF

Normal LVEF 40-70%; reduced is <40%

As a routine – annual is recommended

59
Q

What vital signs should you aim for in heart failure?

A

Should aim for a systolic BP 105-11 and HR 55-60

60
Q

Non pharmacological management in heart failure?

A
  • Fluid restriction - <1.5L; less than 1L in severe (<2L when exacerbations are not present)
  • Na restriction <2g per day
  • Daily weighing at home with an action plan
  • Alcohol cessation in alcohol related cardiomyopathy, o/wise limiting alcoholic and caffeinated beverages to = 2sd/day
  • Smoking cessation
  • Regular physical activity but bed rest during acute exacerbations
  • Vaccination - influenza and pneumococcal
61
Q

ACE and ARBs in heart failure?

A
  • Improve morbidity and mortality
  • Should be started immediately at low doses and titrated up over 3-4 weeks (do not double dose at less than 2 weekly) – aim to have patient on maximal doses
  • UEC should be checked within 2 weeks of starting and discontinued with K+ >5.5 or Cr>20% increase from baseline

ARBs - shown to have similar improvements in mortality and morbidity
• Considered in those who cannot tolerate ACE-I’s
• Can be combined with ACE-I in those who remain symptomatic – some evidence on decreased hospitalisations but no clear mortality benefit – combination should be left to use by specialists

62
Q

Beta blockers in heart failure?

A
  • Are indicated in all patients with CHF
  • Improve mortality and morbidity
  • Beta blockers with proven mortality benefit include - carvedilol, bisoprolol and extended release metoprolol (recently a fourth has been approved nevibolol)
  • Should be commenced at small doses when a patient is euvolemic and titrated up over 1-2 months – start low and go slow

May initially worsen heart failure symptoms and therefore patients should be stable prior to commencement
• Euvolemic
• No pulmonary crackles
• Minimal peripheral oedema
• Systolic BP >85 w/out symptomatic postural drop

Start at low dose and aim for HR 55-60 - should be reduced if HR<55

63
Q

Side Effects of beta blockers (in heart failure)?

A
  • Hypotension
  • Fatigue
  • Bronchoconstriction in patients with reversible obstructive airways disease – should not be withheld for patients with COPD; should be used with caution in patients with mild to moderate asthma
  • Mild worsening of CCF symptoms initially - important to warn patients of this initially
64
Q

Aldosterone antagonists in heart failure?

A

Australian guidelines recommend use in those on both an ace-I and beta-blocker and are still symptomatic with severe symptoms

  • Shown to have a mortality benefit in Class III/IV CCF
  • Eplenerone (selective aldosterone antagonist)– shown to improve mortality in patients with LV dysfunction post MI
  • Careful monitoring of electrolytes and renal function is important - can cause hyperkalemia – 1/52 after commencing or changing dose; 1/12 for 6/12 then 6/12 once stable dosing
  • CI in significant renal impairment Cr cl <30mL/min OR if K .5.5
  • Should not be used in those on an ace-I and ARB (or only under guidance of a specialist)
65
Q

Diuretics in heart failure?

A
  • Not appropriate as monotherapy
  • Used to treat symptoms
  • Do not have a long term mortality benefit
  • Once patients are euvolemic diuretics should be reduced or weaned – with other medications uptitrated
66
Q

Digoxin in heart failure?

A
  • In patients with persistent symptoms despite the above - digoxin has been shown to improve symptoms and reduce hospitalisations but have no effect on mortality
  • Of use when a patient also has AF
67
Q

When is ivabradine indicated? contraindicated in heart failure?

A

Specific sinus node inhibitor – leading to decreased HR
Elevated resting HR is a predictor of death and hospitalisation in CCF

Improves outcomes and available on the PBS (authority) where:

  • Baseline HR >/= 77
  • LVEF =35%
  • NYHA class II or III
  • In combination with optimal standard CCF treatment

CI if:

  • BP <90/50
  • HR < 60 (in the untreated state)
  • Severe hepatic impairment
  • SA node is not in the cardiac pacemaker
68
Q

Other pharmacotherapies in heart failure?

A

Nitrates - useful in reducing nocturnal dyspnoea, pulmonary hypertension, myocardial ischaemia
Isosorbid mononitrate may be commenced at 30mg nocte

Patients with ischaemic cardiomyopathy should receive aspirin
Those with AF or cardiac thrombus should receive warfarin

There is no strong evidence of the use of aspirin/warfarin in patients with non-ischaemic cardiomyopathy

69
Q

When should we refer in heart failure?

A

Specialist referral should be done for all heart failure patient as referral has been shown to improve symptoms, outcomes and decrease hospital admissions

As a minimum should be done for:
•	Diagnostic uncertainty
•	Age <65
•	Questions re: management
•	Patient has consideration for revascularisation, cardiac device or transplant
70
Q

Device therapies in heart failure?

A

ICD – Decreases mortality in symptomatic CCF patients with LV EF= 35% and in patients with a prior AMI and LVEF = 30%

Biventricular pacing
Cardiac dyssonchrony seen in 1/3 of CCF patients - cardiac resynchronisation therapy/pacing - shown to improve symptoms, mortality and decrease hospitalisations - current criteria for this is:
- Class III/IV – severe symptoms
- EF<35% and a broad QRS (greatest benefit in LBBB with QRS >150ms)
- Dysynchrony

71
Q

Medications that worsen heart failure?

A
  • NSAIDS
  • GCS
  • Thiazolidenidiones – rosiglitazone; pioglitazone
  • Non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers – verapamil or diltiazem
  • Anti-arrhythmic medicines except for heart failure specific beta blockers and amiodarone
  • TCA’s
72
Q

Assessing fitness to drive in CCF?

A

Non commercial
• Conditional if satisfactory response to treatment AND
• There are minimal symptoms relevant to driving

• Not fit if symptoms arise on moderate exertion

Commercial
A conditional may be considered with advice from a treating specialist if:
• There is satisfactory response to treatment AND
• Exercise tolerance of >/= 90% of the age/sex predicted capacity according to Bruce protocol AND
• EF >40% AND
• The underlying cause has been considered
• There are minimal symptoms related to driving

73
Q

GP management of heart failure?

A

Potential KFP question

  • Call for help/call an ambulance
  • Commence oxygen

• History – focussed PC/PMhx/medications

Examination
• Vitals – Temp; BP; HR; Sa02; RR
• Chest/JVP/HS/Oedema

  • Monitoring
  • BP
  • ECG
  • Oxygen saturation
  • Defibrillator on standby

Investigations
• ECG
• CXR
- Interstitial oedema (often ‘bats wing’)
- Fluid in the fissures
- Kerley B lines (oedematous septal lines)
- Pleural effusions (usually bilateral, frequently R>L, if unilateral more often on the right)
- Peribronchial cuffing – visualisation of small-doughnut shaped rings representing fluid in thickened bronchial walls
- The heart may or may not be enlarged

• FBE/UEC/LFT/CK and Tn/BNP/ABG

Management
•	Position – upright – if tolerated
•	Oxygen – high flow 8-10 L
•	Vitals including pulse oximetry if available
•	ECG
•	IV access

Medications
• Lasix IV – Usual daily dose or up to 1-1.5 mg/Kg – consider repeating after 30-60 minutes
• Nitrate 10-20 mcg/min IV – adjusting rate to response and ensuring BP is >100 mmHg (not feasible in GP setting – better to use SL GTN) – augments effect of lasix

  • Morphine is no longer recommended due to data revealing links with increased intubation and mortality rates

CPAP
• Reduces preload and afterload
• Associated with decreased intubation and mortality rates

Conditions which may benefit from early CPAP in order of evidence are:
• Acute exacerbations of COPD
• Acute cardiogenic pulmonary oedema
• Pneumonia – in patients with COPD and immunocompromised patients

NOT currently recommended for:
• Asthma
• ARDS – little benefit has been reported