Cardioresp Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the kind of murmur heard in aortic stenosis

A
Crescendo decrescendo (diamond)
Systolic murmur
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2
Q

Describe the murmur heard in aortic regurgitation and where best to auscultate for this

A

Diastolic murmur

Left seternal border

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3
Q

Describe the diagnostic findings of tension pneumothorax on CT and X-ray

A

Visceral pleural line visible

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4
Q

Describe the system used to assess need for hospitalisation in CAP

A

CRB-65

New mental confusion
Respiratory rate >30
Blood pressure <90 systolic
Age >65

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5
Q

Likely diagnoses of a patient presenting with central chest pain, fever, high pitched squeaky ‘rub’ heard at the left sternal edge and ST segment changes on ECG

A
  • Pericarditis (upward conceived ST segment elevation with PR depression)
  • STEMI
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6
Q

Discuss the components of dual anti-platelet therapy and use in ACS

A
  • Aspirin 300mg and clopidogrel or ticagrelor or prasugrel

- NSTEMI

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7
Q

Which genetic disorder should be tested for in a younger patient presenting with signs and investigations positive for COPD

A

Alpha-1 Antitrypsin deficiency

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8
Q

How to differentiate a pleural effusion from pulmonary oedema

A

Effusion —>
Stony dull to percussion
Reduced tactile vocal fremetus
Reduced breath sounds on auscultation

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9
Q

What is Wolff Parkinson white syndrome

A

Supraventricular tachycardia caused by an accessory pathway

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10
Q

Possible causes of an ejection systolic murmur

A
  • Aortic stenosis
  • Pulmonary stenosis
  • Atrial septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot
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11
Q

Management of acute supravebtricular tachycardia

A

If patient is compromised DC cardioversion

Otherwise

1) Vagal manoeuvres
2) IV adenosine

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12
Q

Management of acute AF

A

If patient is showing adverse signs (shock, myocardial Ischaemia chest pain or ECG changes syncope and heart failure) DC cardioversion and amiodarone if unsuccessful

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13
Q

Occlusion of the right coronary artery causing an inferior MI may lead to bradycardia, true or false

A

True

As the right coronary artery supplies the SAN node

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14
Q

What is the standard therapy for treating active TB

A

Initial phase

  • Rifampicin
  • Isoniazid
  • Pyrazinamide
  • Ethambutol

continuation
- Rifampicin
Isoniazid

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15
Q

Most common cause of community acquired pneumonia?

A

Strep. pneumoniae

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16
Q

Which organism is likely responsible for a pneumonia with haemolytic anaemia and erythema multiform

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

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17
Q

Suggest a suitable mask to administer oxygen for a critically ill patient in shock who is hypoxic

A

15 L/min reservoir mask

Target stats of 94-98%

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18
Q

Likely diagnosis for patient with chest pain and a raised JVP on inspiration

A

constrictive pericarditis

Kussmaul’s sign

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19
Q

Discuss diagnostic values of spirometry for asthma

A

FEV1/FVC <80% (20% drop in FEV1)

and

12% and 200mL reversibility of FEV1 following bronchodilator

20
Q

What is the 3rd stage in the management of inadequate asthma control

A

Addition of LABA e.g salmetrol (BTS)

Addition of LTRA (NICE)

21
Q

Pathophysiological process of pulmonary hypertension in COPD

A

Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction –> narrowing of pulmonary vasculature and fibrosis –> right sided heart failure

22
Q

What happens to the DLCO/TLCO in interstitial lung disease

A

decreased transfer factor

23
Q

Common causative agent of hospital acquired pneumonia

A

gram negative
S. Aureus
S. pneumonia
anaerobes

24
Q

Definition of hospital acquired pneumonia

A

24hrs after hospital admission, or within 7 days of discharge

25
Typical causative pathogen of cavitating multifocal consolidation pneumonia
S. Aureus
26
Common causative agent of pneumonia in COPD patients
Haemophilius Influenzae
27
Pneumonia associated with haemolytic anaemia and erythema multiform
Mycoplasma Pneumoniae
28
Risk factors for TB
HIV/AIDS Poverty and overcrowding immunosuppression Heavy alcohol consumption
29
Suggest possible causes for a pleural effusion with raised LDH and protein levels
Infective Inflammatory causes - RA/SLE, pancreatitis Dressler's syndrome Neoplasm
30
Discuss cause of bifid P waves on ECG
P mitrale caused by left atrial enlargement due to mitral valve disease
31
Features of mitral stenosis
``` Hx of rheumatic heart disease AF Malar Flush Mid-diastolic murmur (low pitched) Features of pulmonary hypertension ```
32
Examination findings of the patient with aortic stenosis
- Ejection systolic murmur, crescendo decrescendo which radiates to carotids - Slow rising pulse - Heaving apex beat - Systolic thrill
33
Commonly seen pathogen in bronchiectasis infective flare
pseudomonas aerginosa
34
Common causative pathogen in atypical pneumonia, spread by domesticated and exotic birds
Chlamydia psttaci
35
Causes of preserved ejection fraction HF (diastolic)
Chronic hypertension leading to —> Ventricular Hypertrophy Stiffened muscle -fibrotic scar tissue Aortic stenosis Cardiomyopathies, hypertrophic and restrictive
36
In a patient with pneumonia, dry cough and atypical chest signs, hyponatraemia and lymphopenia is most associated with which organism?
Legionella pneumoniae
37
In a patient with pneumonia, high fever, rapid onset and herpes labialis is most associated with which organism?
Strep. p
38
State the paraneoplastic features associated with small cell lung cancer
ADH ACTH - Cushing's Lambert-Eaton syndrome
39
State the paraneoplastic features of squamous cell lung cancer
- PTH-rp causing hypercalacaemia - Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy - Hyperthyroidism due to ectopic TSH
40
A 70-year-old woman is found to have a pan-systolic murmur after presenting with dyspnoea. A soft S1 and split S2 is also noted
mitral regurgitation
41
Progressive prolongation of the PR interval until a dropped beat occurs -
second degree heart block (Mobitz type I or Wenkebach)
42
Which valvular heart disease results in an S4 heart sound
Aortic stenosis
43
Causes of transudative pleural effusions
``` Congestive Heart Failure (CHF) Hepatic cirrhosis Hypoproteinemia Nephrotic syndrome Acute atelectasis Myxedema Peritoneal dialysis Meig's syndrome Obstructive uropathy ```
44
Which valvular heart disease may be associated with polycystic kidney disease
Mitral valve prolapse
45
Post MI complication associated with acute onset HF and pan systolic murmur
Ventricular septal defect