CardioResp Flashcards

1
Q

This question which answer is correct Explain this A 45-year-old heavy smoker man, admitted with severe central chest pain on minimal exertion before 14 hours. Which statement regarding management is not correct?

A LMW heparin is appropriate.
B Chewed aspirin is beneficial.
C Oral metoprolol is indicated.
D IV thrombolytic therapy is life-saving.

A

D

Thrombolytic therapy is most effective when administered within the first 12 hours of symptom onset. After 14 hours, the benefit of thrombolytics diminishes significantly, and the risk of complications increases. Therefore, administering IV thrombolytic therapy 14 hours after the onset of symptoms is generally not considered beneficial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Asthma is characterized by all the following EXCEPT:

A Can be seasonal or perennial.
B The patient can be completely free between the episodes.
C The disease can start at any age.
D In adults it is more common and more severe in men than women.

A

D

This statement is not true. In childhood, asthma is more common in boys than girls. However, in adults, asthma tends to be more common and more severe in women than in men. Hormonal differences and other factors contribute to this disparity in prevalence and severity between genders in adulthood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following is bad prognostic sign regarding acute rheumatic fever:

A Young age group
B Old age
C No valvular lesion
D Normal inflammatory markers

A

A

• Rheumatic fever can recur whenever the individual experience new GABH streptococcal infection, if not on prophylactic medicines
• Good prognosis for older age group & if no carditis during the initial attack.
• Bad prognosis for younger children & those with carditis with valvular lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

All of the fallowing drugs improve the prognosis in heart failure Except:

A Lisinopril
B Spironolactone
C Digoxin
D Bisoprolol

A

C

Digoxin & Diuretics improves symptoms not survival. (”D” Drugs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The most common cause of atrial fibrillation is:

A Hypertension.
B Valvular heart diseases.
C Lone atrial fibrillation.
D Ischemic heart diseases.

A

A (most likely)

The exact cause of atrial fibrillation is unknown, but it’s more common with age and affects certain groups of people more than others. Atrial fibrillation is common in people with other heart conditions, such as: high blood pressure (hypertension) atherosclerosis.

Source: causes of atrial fibrillation NHS UK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Dyspnea that associates with wheezing can be caused by the following EXCEPT:

A Acute bronchitis.
B Pneumothorax.
C Asthma.
D Foreign body inhalation.

A

B

Pneumothorax, as it typically presents with dyspnea but not wheezing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Tuberculous granuloma contain the following cells EXCEPT:

A Lymphocytes.
B Neutrophils.
C Langhans cells.
D Epithelioid cells.

A

B

Once inhaled, the organisms lodge in the alveoli and initiate the recruitment of macrophages and lymphocytes. Macrophages undergo transformation into epithelioid and Langhans cells, which aggregate with the lymphocytes to form the classical tuberculous granuloma. Numerous granulomas aggregate to form a primary lesion or ‘Ghon focus’. ( Davidson 24th Ed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A 32-year-old lady referred for cardiac clinic because of incidental systolic murmur at pulmonary area, with fixed splitting of second heart sound. Chest X-ray was plethoric with prominent main pulmonary artery. ECG revealed incomplete right bundle branch block. The most likely diagnosis for this presentation is:

A Pulmonary stenosis.
B Persistent ductus arteriosus.
C Ventricular septal defect.
D Atrial septal defect.

A

D

The presence of a fixed splitting of the second heart sound suggests a right-to-left shunt, which is characteristic of ASD. The incomplete right bundle branch block on the ECG can also be associated with ASD. Additionally, the plethoric chest X-ray with a prominent main pulmonary artery is consistent with increased pulmonary blood flow seen in ASD due to the left-to-right shunting of blood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A 24-year-old man with no prior medical problems faints while having exercise. He has a quick recovery and has no neurologic deficits. ECG shows a normal sinus rhythm. Which of the following is the most useful diagnostic test?

A Carotid massage.
B Echocardiogram.
C Computed tomographic (CT) scan of head.
D Blood glucose level.

A

B Echocardiogram

Hypertrophic Obstructive Cardiomyopathy (HOCM):
Typically presents with symptoms such as syncope, chest pain, dyspnea, or palpitations, especially during exercise.
Physical examination may reveal a harsh systolic murmur heard best at the left lower sternal border, which increases with maneuvers that decrease preload (like standing, Valsalva maneuver).
Echocardiogram usually shows asymmetric septal hypertrophy, systolic anterior motion (SAM) of the mitral valve, and dynamic left ventricular outflow tract (LVOT) obstruction.
ECG findings may include left ventricular hypertrophy, left atrial enlargement, and nonspecific ST-T wave abnormalities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The following can cause exudative pleural effusion EXCEPT:

A Para-pneumonic effusion.
B Malignancies.
C Nephrotic syndrome.
D Pulmonary infarction.

A

C

Nephrotic Syn

Transudate (Protein <25g/L)
▪︎Due To Increase Hydrostatic Pressure (HF) Or Decrease Oncotic Pressure (Liver & Kidney Diseases/Malnutrition/HypoAlbuminaemia)

Exudate (Protein >35g/L)
▪︎Due To Increase Microvascular Capillary Permeability By Infection Or Inflammations (Pneumonia/TB/Malignancy/Abscess/Lupus/Rheumatoid Arthritis/Uremia/Asbestos)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

One of the following is true for Mobitz I second degree heart block:

A Usually indicate underlying ischemia
B Usually, symptomatic
C ECG shows progressive prolongation of PR intervals
D Treated by permanent pacemaker

A

C

Mobitz I second-degree heart block, also known as Wenckebach block, is characterized by progressive lengthening of the PR interval until a QRS complex is dropped (missing), followed by a reset of the PR interval. This pattern is often visible on an ECG and is characteristic of Mobitz I.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of these actions increase survival in COPD?

A Stop smoking and reducing weight
B Stop smoking and long term O2 therapy.
C Stop smoking and regular combined LABA/ICS inhalation
D Stop smoking and intermittent short courses of steroids

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following best describe fibrosing alveolitis?

A Orthopnea and bibasal crepits
B Cough and occasional hemoptysis
C Productive cough and wheezing
D Clubbing and Velcro crepitations

A

D

Clinical findings include finger clubbing and the presence of bi-basal fine late inspiratory crackles likened to the unfastening of Velcro. ( Davidson 24th Ed )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The following are true in COPD EXCEPT:

A Radiographic signs correlate with the severity of airflow limitation.
B Measurement of lung volumes provides an assessment of hyperinflation.
C In severe COPD, and with large bullae, body plethysmography is preferred to estim lung volumes.
D A low peak flow is consistent with COPD but is non-specific.

A

A

Although there are no reliable radiographic signs that correlate with the severity of airflow limitation, a chest X-ray is essential to identify alternative diagnoses such as cardiac failure, lung cancer and the presence of bullae. ( Davidson 24th Ed )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The following are recognized causes of prolonged PR interval except:

A Digoxin toxicity
B Hypocalcemia
C Hypokalemia
D Rheumatic fever

A

B

Hypocalcemia causes prolonged QT interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A 16-year-old boy gives a six-month history of worsening breathlessness and coughs up a cup of sputum daily. He gave history of severe measles during his childhood. He smoked 10 cigarettes per day for the last 2 years. On examination he looks ill with mild dyspnea, early clubbing, with bilateral coarse crepitations on chest examination mainly over the lower zones. Cardiac examination is normal.

• What is the most likely diagnosis? How do you prove the diagnosis?
• What are the possible underlying causes?
• Mention three complications of this disease.

A

Diagnosis: Bronchiectasis

Diagnostics : HRCT to confirm.

Causes/RF:

Pulmonary infections: Severe infections like measles can damage the airways.

Smoking&raquo_space; (COPD), which can contribute to the development of bronchiectasis.

Complications:

Cor pulmonale
Respiratory Failure
Recurrent respiratory tract infc
Pulmonary hemorrhage
Lung abscesses

17
Q

A 30-year-old woman presents to the outpatient clinic with a 2-month history of progressive
effort intolerance. Three weeks ago, she exerienced an enisode of narovsmal nocturnal dyspnea
Past history is negative for hypertension or DM.
Examination reveals a JVP raised up to her earlobes, a soft tender hepatomegaly and a bilateral pitting edema up to her knees. Chest examination reveals bibasal crepitations, and an audible S3 on auscuitation of the heart. The chest X-ray shows cardiomegaiy with interstitiai infiltrates.
Echocardiography shows global left ventricular hypokinesia with an ejection fraction of 25-30%.

• What is the most likely diagnosis?
•. Mention three lines of medical treatment.
•. Mention two possible complications

A

Diagnosis: Dilated cardiomyopathy

Treatment:

Beta Blockers
ACE inhibitors
Diuretics (loop)

Complications:

Pulmonary oedema
Renal & Liver dysfunction
Ml & Arrythmia
Dilated cardiomyopathy
Sudden death

18
Q

Which of the following suggest active pulmonary TB:

A Cough with purulent sputum
B Fever and night sweating
C Extensive fibrosis of the lungs
D Cavitation on chest X ray

A

D Cavitation

19
Q

Each of the following is a risk factor for lung cancer EXCEPT

A Asbestos
B Radon
C Passive smoking
D Lead poisoning

A

D

20
Q

A 25-year-old man presents with the following pleural aspirate results: Protein 48 g/L, pH 7.1, Glucose 1.8 mmol/L, Microbiology: neutrophils ++++. What is the most likely diagnosis?”

A) Tuberculous pleuritis
B) Parapneumonic effusion
C) Empyema
D) Malignant effusion

A

C

21
Q

In acute massive pulmonary embolism, which of the following is typically not observed?

A Chest pain and hemoptysis
B Central cyanosis
C Hypoxia
D Elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP)

A

D

22
Q

In acute massive pulmonary embolism all the following are true EXCEPT

A Chest pain hemoptysis
B Central cyanosis
C Hypoxia and hypocapnia
D Elevated JVP

A

C

In acute massive pulmonary embolism, hypoxia is typically present due to ventilation-perfusion mismatch, leading to decreased oxygenation of the blood. However, hypocapnia (low carbon dioxide levels) is less common in acute massive pulmonary embolism. Instead, it’s more likely to see respiratory alkalosis due to hyperventilation caused by the sudden onset of dyspnea and increased respiratory rate.

23
Q

The following are true regarding bronchodilators in COPD EXCEPT:

A The inhaled route is preferred to systemic bronchodilators.
B Short-acting bronchodilators are more appropriate for patients with moderate to severe disease.
C Significant improvements in breathlessness may be reported, despite minimal changes in FEV1.
D Tiotropium bromide is more appropriate than ipratropium for patients with moderate to severe disease.

A

B

24
Q

Common causes of empyema are the following EXCEPT:

A Secondary to pneumonia.
B TB.
C Infected hemothorax:
D Rheumatic fever.

A

D

25
Q

A patient with known asthma undergoing therapy with inhaled corticosteroid and intermittent (short-acting) B2-agonist presents with complaints of nocturnal awakenings secondary to cough and occasional wheezing. This episode occurs three to four times per week. Which of the following is the best next step?

A Oral steroids
B Leukotriene inhibitors
C Long-acting B2-agonists
D Theophylline

A

C

26
Q

A 68-year-old lady presents to her GP for an annual review of her heart failure treatment. She has a blood pressure of 165/90. She is currently taking furosemide and aspirin and she experiences dyspnea on walking up hills.
Which of the following is the most appropriate medication to add?

A Hydrochlorothiazide.
B Isosorbide mononitrate
C Spironolactone
D Enalapril

A

D

27
Q

A 32-year-old lady referred for cardiac clinic because of an incidental systolic murmur at the pulmonary area. There was wide fixed splitting of the second heart sound. Chest X-ray was plethoric with a prominent notch in the pulmonary artery. ECG reveals incomplete right bundle branch block. The most likely cause of her murmur is?

A Tetralogy of Fallots
B Acute myocarditis
C VSD
D ASD
E Constrictive pericarditis

A

D

28
Q

The following are features of myocarditis EXCEPT:

A Acute heart failure.
B Shock.
C Pericardial rub.
D Chest Pain

A

C

29
Q

Which of the following features is least consistent with a diagnosis of unstable angina?

A chest pain on minimal exertion
B persistent ST segment elevation

A