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Systemic Pathology > Cardiology and Reproduction > Flashcards

Cardiology and Reproduction Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three levels of sexual determination

A

Chromosomal (XX or XY), Gonadal (SRY gene on Y chromosome coding for TDF), phenotypic (Males secrete anti-mullerian hormone and testosterone)

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2
Q

What gene gives a male their maleness

A

SRY- sex-determining region of Y

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3
Q

what does the SRY gene code for and what does the gene do

A

TDF- testis determining factor, promotes formation of seminiferous tubules and interstitial cells

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4
Q

What occurs in an intersex animal

A

the animal has the gonadal tissue of both sexes

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5
Q

What happens to form a Freemartin

A

there is one placenta that is shared by twins, one boy and one girl, and the female is exposed to the blood containing anti-mullerian hormone and testosterone resulting in a female that has a rudimentary uterus, seminal vesicles, and is infertile (chimeras often very common)

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6
Q

What occurs in Turner’s syndrome

A

A mare is missing an X chromosome (XO) so the ovaries are either hypoplastic or dysplastic and the tract is rudimentary

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7
Q

A male that has testes but has female tubing is like that because

A

he has an androgen insensitivity so he can’t respond appropriately to testosterone

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8
Q

What is chimera

A

one ovary and one testes, somatic cells with distinct chromosome constitutions from different individuals, XX/XY

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9
Q

What is inflammation of the ovary called

A

oophoritis

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10
Q

What is a parovarian cyst

A

a cyst often in horses that blocks the egg from reaching the oviduct, causes a physical “traffic” reproduction problem

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11
Q

What are the common cysts that cows get

A

folicular cysts and cystic corpus luteum

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12
Q

In horses what ovarian tumor is super common and is it malignant, what is a common clinical sign and why

A

granuloma cell tumors and they are usually benign, they may release testosterone so mares often act like stallions

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13
Q

What ovarian tumor is often malignant and how does it spread

A

adenocarcinoma and spreads via carcinomatosis

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14
Q

What are three ovarian developmental disorders

A

agenesis
hypoplasia
ovarian remnants

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15
Q

A dog you spayed last year comes to you because her owner says she is having discharge and bleeding from her vagina. You take a look and the dog seems to be in heat! What is going on?

A

The dog might have ovarian remnant syndrome, genetically she may have an extra ovary or part of one

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16
Q

What pathogen can cause oophoritis, reproductive disease, and gastrointestinal disease in cows and is transmitted vertically or horizontally

A

Bovine Viral Diarrhea (BVDV)

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17
Q

What happens in a cow with follicular cysts

A

the cow is in continuous estrus but fail to ovulate, this is a hormonal reproductive problem

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18
Q

What happens in a cow with a corpus luteum cyst

A

There is continuous anestrus, this is a hormonal reproductive problem

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19
Q

What are the most common animals to get ovarian tumors

A

the dog and the horse (and I think maybe chicken?)

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20
Q

give an example of an epithelial ovarian tumor and who commonly gets them

A

adenoma/adenocarcinoma, dogs

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21
Q

What type of ovarian tumor has endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm elements and is benign

A

a teratoma

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22
Q

What duct do male gonads form from? What about female gonads

A

Males from Wolffian and Females from Mullerian

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23
Q

What do the testes secrete to prevent female gonads from forming

A

Mullerian duct inhibitory sequence (aka anti-mullerian hormone?)

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24
Q

What three things can go wrong in the development of the uterus, vagina, and vulva

A

imperforate hymen (no vaginal opening), segmental aplasia (part of tubing is missing), failure of fusion of the caudal part of the tube which causes a double cervix

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25
Q

what are some causes of uterine prolapse

A

dystocia, estrogenic plants like soy, vascular damage, hypocalcemia

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26
Q

What is the pathogenesis of a dog in heat getting a pyometra

A

A dog in heat ovulates and the corpus luteum forms and makes progesterone and estrogen–> this primes the uterine lining to get more glandular–> glands can become cystic–> cystic endometrial hyperplasia which is a good environment for bacteria–> pus–> pyometra

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27
Q

A dog recently had a litter of puppies and now is presenting to your clinic with a hemoabdomen. What happened?

A

subinvolution of the placental sites- the trophoblasts aren’t expelled and keep growing–> grow through the uterus and it bled into the abdomen

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28
Q

which venereal disease causes ulcers and erosions on the vulva in horses

A

equine coital exanthema (herpes)

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29
Q

what type of tumor is often around the vulva of cows and is often from sun exposure

A

squamous cell carcinoma

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30
Q

what causes contagious equine metritis and what are the symptoms

A

Taylorella equigenitalis- causes nonspecific postparturient endometritis, metritis, and vaginitis

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31
Q

what uterine tumor is common in chickens

A

adenocarcinomas

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32
Q

Commonly in third world countries dogs can be infected with a virus that is spread how and causes what

A

they can get transmissible venereal tumors via genital contact with other body parts (often other genitals or face)

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33
Q

what is the most common way to lose a fetus

A

early embryonic death from chromosomal abnormalities or not enough progesterone

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34
Q

what is the difference between mummified and macerated fetuses

A

macerated fetuses have bacteria that got in and turned them more into goo

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35
Q

what type of placenta do ruminants have

A

cotyledonary

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36
Q

what type of placenta do horses and pigs have

A

diffuse

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37
Q

what type of placenta do carnivores have

A

zonary

38
Q

what type of placenta do humans and rodents have

A

discoid

39
Q

what type of placentation do cows, pigs, and horses have

A

epitheliochorial

40
Q

what type of placentation do dogs and cats have

A

endotheliochorial

41
Q

what type of placentation do humans and rodents have

A

hemochorial

42
Q

what placentation type/animals need colostrum the most

A

epitheliochorial so horses, cows, and pigs because there are more layers so less can get through

43
Q

what is the difference between a stillborn fetus and an abortion

A

a stillborn fetus occurs close to term and is a fully formed fetus that could have been viable outside the uterus
an abortion can occur anytime since conception and is less likely to have been viable outside the uterus

44
Q

name three placental structures that look like lesions but aren’t

A

cervical star in the horse, hippomanes in large animals, and amniotic plaques in large animals

45
Q

how long until the placenta should be expelled in horses and cattle

A

no more than 2 hours in horses and within 12 hours for cattle

46
Q

a retained placenta can be a perfect environment for what

A

metritis- animal is super sick

47
Q

what is a major cause of still births

A

dystocia

48
Q

how can you diagnose death due to dystocia

A

having a small dam and a big fetus
edema and congestion in the cervical area

49
Q

How can you diagnose if the animal was born still birth

A

still has eponchia (slippers on)
the lung sinks in water (atelectasia)

50
Q

What are four non-infectious causes of pregnancy failure

A

Plant toxicity (veratrum californicum), fetal malformation, hydramnios and hydroallantois (excessive accumulation of fluid in the amniotic and allantoic sacs), excessive twisting of umbilical cord in horses with twinning

51
Q

How do viruses usually cause pregnancy loss vs. bacteria and fungi

A

Viruses are small enough so they often crosses the placenta and goes into the fetus- Infect fetus!, bacteria and fungi usually infect the placenta and impair communication between mom and the fetus- infect placenta!
(Notable exception of bacteria that infects fetus is Campylobacter fetus sp.)

52
Q

What is the pathogenesis of placental inflammation leading to fetal death

A

Infection via hematogenous or ascending route—> placenta is infected —> microorganisms proliferate in placenta—> decreased gas and nutrient exchange between mother and fetus—> fetus dies of hypoxia

In cows often hematogenic spread and horses ascending spread with a floppy cervix

53
Q

What are common viruses in cattle and horses that infect the fetus and cause death

A

Equine herpesvirus 1, Bovine herpesvirus 1, Equine Viral Arteriris

54
Q

If there is an abortion what tissues are important to collect

A

Placenta and fetal stomach/abomasal fluid, liver, lung, kidney, and brain

55
Q

What disease commonly causes white necrotic spots on the liver

A

Herpesvirus- 1

56
Q

In sheep and goats what organisms commonly infect the placenta and bonus point for knowing the bacteria that can infect the fetus

A

Placenta- Chlamydia abortus, toxoplasma gondii, Q fever (Coxiella burnetti)
Fetus- Campylobacter

57
Q

What does the acronym SMEDI stand for and what animals and infectious diseases does it usually pertain to

A

Stillbirth, Mummification, Embryonic Death, Infertility pertains to pigs, Diseases- PRRS, Porcine Circovirus, porcine parvovirus, pseudorabies

58
Q

What are the two disorders of testicular development

A

Hypoplasia and cryptorchidism

59
Q

What causes testicular degeneration and atrophy

A

Inflammation, infection, too much sex, high protein diet, old age, poor nutrition, and more

60
Q

Because sperm are what they can cause granulomatous inflammation

A

Immunologically foreign

61
Q

What causes orchitis/epididymitis commonly

A

Brucella (canis, ovis, etc.)

62
Q

What are the three types of cells in the testicles and what do they do

A

Leydig (interstitial cells)- produce androgens like testosterone
Sertoli- provide support for the germ cells
Spermatogonia (germ cells)- mature into sperm

63
Q

How do seminoma and leydig cell tumors differ

A

Seminona are of germ cell origin and are more diffuse in the testicle and leydig are interstitial cell tumors that are more localized and can secrete androgens

64
Q

What can happen with a leydig cell tumor

A

They can secrete androgens and cause perinatal gland hyperplasia and neoplasia and prostatic hyperplasia

65
Q

What can happen with a Sertoli cell tumor

A

There is feminization syndrome due to the tumor producing estrogen- atrophy of testes and penis, squamous metaplasia of prostate, anemia, attractive to other males

66
Q

How can you usually get a prostatic cyst to go away

A

Neuter the animal

67
Q

What hormone causes hyperplasia of the prostate and which causes metaplasia

A

Testosterone causes hyperplasia and estrogen can cause metaplasia

68
Q

What are the three types of cardiomyopathies and what do they look like

A

hypertrophic- thickened ventricular walls with decreased chamber volume
dilated- increased chamber volume and thin ventricular walls
restrictive- fibrosis restricts the capacity of the ventricle to expand and contract

69
Q

What type of cardiomyopathies do dogs have

A

dilated- boxer cardiomyopathy, grain free DCM, large breed (genetic) DCM

70
Q

What is the most common cardiomyopathy in cats

A

hypertrophic

71
Q

What causes DCM in cats

A

taurine deficiency

72
Q

What does dilated cardiomyopathy lead to

A

leaky valves

73
Q

What are some peripheral adjustments the body makes for insufficient cardiac output

A

vasoconstriction, polycythemia (increase RBCs), and decreased blood volume (increase gloumerular filtration but often counteracted by aldosterone)

74
Q

Cardiac adjustments for insufficient cardiac output

A

increase heart rate and myocardial hypertrophy for chronic cases

75
Q

What is eccentric hypertrophy and what usually causes it

A

volume overload hypertrophy- the volume of the heart increases/ expanded chambers/ increase chamber size- usually too much blood getting to the heart because of a septal defect or valvular insufficiency

76
Q

What is concentric hypertrophy and what causes it

A

pressure overload hypertrophy- the ventricular wall gets thicker- usually because of pulmonary hypertension or aortic stenosis

77
Q

what does right heart failure result in

A

hepatic congestion and edema, ascites

78
Q

what does left heart failure result in

A

pulmonary congestion and edema

79
Q

name the four pericardial types of effusions

A

hydropericardium, hemopericardium, fibrinous pericarditis, purulent pericarditis

80
Q

A form of endocardial mineralization known as white muscle disease is caused by what

A

vitamin E/selenium deficiency

81
Q

What looks like smooth, nodular thickenings of the valve leaflets and is the most common myocardial lesion in dogs (and most common cause of mitral systolic murmurs in dogs)

A

valvular endocardiosis

82
Q

What can result on the endocardium when valvular endocardiosis causes turbulent blood flow

A

jet lesions, also predisposition for thrombosis

83
Q

What is it called when heart valves are inflamed and what can cause it

A

endocarditis, caused by trauma, infection, irritants (toxins), or parasites

84
Q

what three changes can occur when there is valvular stenosis

A

systolic murmur, dilation of vessel distal to narrowing (poststenotic dilation), and concentric ventricular hypertrophy

85
Q

what is a ventricular septal defect

A

the septum that operates the two ventricles is not fully formed so blood can backflow from the left to the right ventricle, but once there is hypertrophy of the right ventricle the flow will shift from right to left resulting in cyanosis

86
Q

What happens in Boxer cardiomyopathy

A

the myofibers progressively get replaced by fat

87
Q

In a cat with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy what will the heart muscles look like microscopically

A

disarray- all going in different directions

88
Q

what happens with a patent ductus arteriosis

A

There is a patent ductus arteriosis causing blood to be shunted from aorta to the pulmonary artery–> overloads the pulmonary vessels–> right concentric hypertrophy–> also increased volume overload to left side causing left eccentric hypertrophy–> too much pulmonary artery pressure and the blood switches to a right to left direction causing cyanosis

89
Q

What happens with a tetralogy of fallot

A

there are four defects- ventricular septal defect, aorta that overrides the defect, pulmonary stenosis (obstruction of right ventricle outflow, compensatory hypertrophy of right ventricle

90
Q

What happens with a persistent right aortic arch

A

a vascular ring anomaly- the esophagus and trachea are entrapped in a ring containing the right aortic arch, pulmonary artery, and ligamentum arteriosum - constricts the esophagus

Systemic Pathology (1 decks)

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