Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

Two AF characteristics on the ECG

A

RR intervals are irregularly irregular

No distinct p waves

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2
Q

How can you classify AF?

A

Paroxysmal: at least one episode >30s, resolves within 7 days

Persistant: lasts more than 7 days or requires termination with medication or cardioversion

Permanent: does not resolve on cardioversion, sinus rhythm cannot be achieved and AF deemed the final rhythm

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3
Q

Risk factors for AF

A
Cardiac:
Cardiomyopathy 
IHD/heart failure 
Valvular disease 
HTN

Resp: COPD, pneumonia, PE, pleural effusion, lung cancer
Endocrine: diabetes, thyrotoxicosis
Infection
Electrolyte disturbances
Drugs: bronchodilators, thyroxine (+alcohol/caffeine)

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4
Q

Signs and symptoms of AF

A
Symptoms:
Dizziness/confusion
Palpitations
Chest pain
Breathlessness 
Dyspnoea 
Signs:
Raised JVP
Tachycardia 
Murmurs 
Irregular pulse 
Hypotension
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5
Q

AF investigations

A

Bedside: blood pressure, ECG
Bloods: FBC, U&Es, TFTs, magnesium, calcium, cholesterol
Imaging: CXR, CT/MRI if emboli, transthoracic echo

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6
Q

CHADSVASC score

A
Congestive heart failure 
Hypertension 140/90
Age >75 (2)
Diabetes 
Stroke/TIA/thromboembolism (2)
Vascular disease 
Age (65-74)
Sex (female)
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7
Q

CHADSVASC score interpretation

A

> 2 anti-coagulate

1 consider anti-coagulation

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8
Q

HAS-BLED score

A
Hypertension
Abnormal liver/renal function
Stroke
Bleeding
Liable INRs
Elderly (>65)
Drugs/alcohol
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9
Q

3 methods of AF treatment

A

Rate control (>65, IHD)
Rhythm control (<65, first presentation, symptomatic, CHF)
Anti-coagulation
Catheter and surgical ablation

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10
Q

Rate control medication for AF

A
Beta blockers (metopralol, bisoprolol) 
CCBs (verapamil cardia selective)
Digoxin (in sedentary patients)
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11
Q

What is the complication of BB and CCBs being co-prescribed?

A

AV heart block

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12
Q

Rhythm control in AF

A

First rate control with beta blockers

Electrical cardioversion
Drugs: amiodarone, sotalol, flecainide (pill in the pocket for paroxysmal AF)

This should be followed by 4 weeks of anticoagulation

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13
Q

Cardioversion considerations in AF

A

Identifiable reversible cause
Heart failure

Onset <48 hours: immediate cardioversion due to bleeding risk

Onset >48 hours: 3 weeks of anticoagulation before cardioversion due to risk of thromboembolism

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14
Q

When would you choose to rhythm control in an AF patient?

A

Rate control unsuccessful or symptoms persisting
Younger patient (to prevent permanent AF)
Recurrent symptomatic episodes
First onset AF (DC cardioversion if unstable)
Reversible cause
Co-existent HF

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15
Q

Anticoagulation options in AF

A

Warfarin (vitamin K antagonist) - regular INR monitoring

NOACs - rivaroxaban/apixaban (dirext Xa inhibitor)

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16
Q

Mechanism of low-molecular weight heparin?

A

Inhibition of antithrombin III leading to factor Xa inhibition

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17
Q

Mechanism of aspirin?

A

COC inhibitor

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18
Q

Causes of irregularly irregular heart beat

A

AF
Atrial/ventricular ectopics
Atrial flutter with variable block

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19
Q

What cardiac change does Wolff-Parkinson-White cause?

A

Supraventricular tachycardia

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20
Q

what causes a sawtooth ECG pattern, and what treatment is there?

A
Atrial flutter (ventricular rate is dependent on degree of AV block - atrial rhythm usually 300/min)
Same treatment as AF, although more sensitive to cardioversion
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21
Q

What investigations would you use to identify the cause of a TIA

A

Large vessel occlusions:
Carotid duplex ultrasound
MRA
CTA

Cardiac analysis:
Transthoracic Echo
ECG
Holter monitoring

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22
Q

Treatment of permanent AF?

A

Rate control and anti-coagulation

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23
Q

Adverse effects of amiodarone

A

Thyroid disease
Interstitial lung disease
Hepatotoxicity

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24
Q

What is the mechanism of digoxin toxicity?

A

Triggered activity in which there are afterdepolarisation oscillations in membrane activity

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25
What are the three mechanisms of arrhythmogenesis?
``` Automaticity Re-entry (most common) Triggered activity (digoxin toxicity) ```
26
What is the mechanism of Class I anti-arrhythmics?
Slow depolarisation (depress phase 0). Inhibits fast sodium channels and so reduce sodium entry.
27
Class I anti-arrhythmics examples
IB: phenytoin (also decreases length of action potential) IC: flecainide (just depresses phase 0)
28
Class I anti-arrhythmics side-effects
``` Nause and vomiting SLE-like syndrome (flecainide) Negative inotropic (weaken muscle contractions) Proarrhythmic CNS toxicity ```
29
Class II anti-arrhythmics mechanism?
Catecholamine antagonist at the beta-adrenoreceptors Negative inotrope and chronotrope (reduce HR and contraction strength) Reduce conduction at AV node Reduce rate of spontaneous depolarisaiton at SA node (reduces slope of phase 4)
30
Class II anti-arrhythmics examples and side effects?
Bisoprolol Propanalol ``` Bradycardia Postural hypotension Insomnia Bronchoconstriction Erectile dysfunction Hypoglycaemia AV nodal heart block ```
31
Class III anti-arrhythmics mechanism?
Prolong action potential by blocking potassium channels (prolongs phase 2)
32
Class III anti-arrhythmics examples and side effects
Amiodarone Nausa, thyroid dysfunction, peripheral neuropathy, photosensitivity, proarrhythmic, hepatitis, potentiates warfarin and digoxin Sotalol (same as Class II)
33
What are the two different kinds of CCBs?
Dihydropyridines (anti-hypertensive e.g. amlodipine and nifedipine) Non-dihydropyridines (anti-arrhythmics e.g. verapamil and diltiazem)
34
Class IV anti-arrhythmics mechanism
Block L-type calcium channels in autorhythmic cells (reduce rate of spontaneous depolarisation) Negative inoptrope and chronotrope
35
Digoxin mechanism
Inhibits Na/K ATPase pump in cardiomyocytes Increases intracellular calcium More forceful contractions (positive inotrope)
36
What needs monitoring when a patient is on digoxin?
``` Kidney function ECG changes (ST depression, T wave changes, PR prolongation) ```
37
Digoxin side effects
Nausea and vomiting Visual disturbances (yellow rings, change to colour perception) Proarrhythmic Insomnia
38
Adenosine mechanism and what is it treatment for?
Slows heart rate | Treats supraventricular tachycardia
39
Atropine mechanism and what is it treatment for?
Increases heart rate | Treats sinus bradycardia and AV block
40
What is magnesium sulfate used to treat?
Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (torsades des pointes) | Digoxin toxicity
41
Tests and monitoring of amiodarone?
LFTs and TFTs | Every 6 months on starting
42
Which patients should you not start flecainide on?
Coronary heart disease
43
Treatment for regular ventricular tachycardia?
Amiodarone (IV 300mg)
44
Which anti-arrhythmic can prolong QT interval?
Sotalol | Must have regular ECG monitoring
45
Three stages of hypertension
1. 140/90 (135/85 ABPM) (plus end-organ damage, CVS, renal disease, diabetes, >20% CVS risk on Framingham calculator) 2. 160/100 (150/95 ABPM) 3. 180/110
46
Causes of secondary hypertension
Renal: renovascular disease, internal disease (CKD, AKI, glomerulonephritis) Endocrine: Cushing's, Acromegaly, Conn's, phaeochromocytoma Drugs: SSRIs, oral contraceptives, glucocorticoids, NSAIDs, EPO Coarctation of the aorta
47
What symptoms and signs might you see with hypertension (either reflecting end-organ failure or secondary cause)
Symptoms: blurred vision, palpitations, chest pain, dyspnoea, headaches, new onset neuropathy Signs: retinopathy, cardiomegaly, arrhythmias, proteinuria, uraemia
48
KWB retinopathy grades
1. generalised arteriolar narrowing (silver wiring) 2. focal narrowing and arteriovenous nipping 3. retinal haemorrhages and cotton wool spots (retinal nerve fibre layer micro-infarcts leading to exudation of axoplasmic materials) 4. papilloedema
49
Investigations for a patient with newly diagnosed hypertension?
Bedside: BP, urinalysis, fundoscopy, ECG Bloods: FBC, U&Es, HbA1c/fasting glucose, cholesterol Special tests: ambulatory BP, renal US, endocrine tests (aldosterone:renin ratio)
50
What are the BP targets in <80s and >80s?
<80s: 140/90 >80s: 150/90 (130/80 if renal disease and proteinuria or diabetes)
51
What is malignant hypertension?
180/110 with papilloedema and/or retinal haemorrhage ``` Signs: Uncontrollable epistaxis Haematuria Epistaxis Raised ICP - headaches and nausea ```
52
Treatment of malignant hypertension/hypertensive emergency?
``` IV nitroprusside (nitric oxide releasing) or labetalol Phentolamine (alpha adrenergic antagonist) ``` Over 24-48 hours so as to avoid hypoperfusion
53
Causes of aortic regurgitation?
Aortic leaflets: rheumatic heart disease (commonest in developing countries) congenital (bicuspid/quadcuspid) degenerative (calcification) - commonest in developed infective endocarditis Aortic root: aortitis, aortic dissection (Stanford A), connective tissue disorders (Marfan's) Syphilis
54
Organisms causing infective endocarditis and rheumatic heart disease?
Infective endocarditis: strep viridans, staph aureus, enterococci Rheumatic heart disease: post-strep Group A (pyogenes) auto-immune condition
55
What connective tissue disorders can cause aortic and mitral regurgitation?
Marfan's: defective FBN1 gene Ehlers-Danlos: collagen defects
56
What other chronic inflammatory diseases is aortitis associated with
Rheumatic arthritis Anylosing spondilitis Takayasu arteritis Complicates giant cell arteritis
57
What are the complications of acute aortic regurgitation?
Reduced coronary flow leading to angina or MI Increased end-diastolic pressure leads to pulmonary oedema and dyspnoea and eventually cardiogenic shock
58
What cardiac changes might you see in a patient with chronic aortic regurgitation?
Increased preload, leading to left ventricular dilatation and hypertrophy Greater contractility Eventual heart failure
59
Acute aortic regurgitation clinical features
Bilateral basal crackles Raised JVP Dyspnoea Chest pain (consider angina or MI)
60
Chronic aortic regurgitation clinical features
``` Palpitations Angina Dyspnoea Water hammer pulse (collapsing) Wide pulse pressure ``` Chest signs: displaced apex, early diastolic decrescendo murmur (left sternal edge, high pitched and blowing), soft s1 and s2
61
Eponymous signs associated with aortic regurgitation
de Musset's: head bobbing with each heart beat Quincke's: pulsation of nail beds Muller's: vibrating uvula
62
Investigations for aortic regurgitation
Bedside: BP, ECG (LVH) Bloods: FBC, U&Es, clotting, cholesterol Imaging: echo (origin of regurgitant jet, its size, aortic valve pathology and hypertrophy), CXR (cardiomegaly, aortic dilatation, calcification) Special: cardiac MRI, cardiac catheterisation, ECG exercise stress testing
63
Aortic regurgitation management
Surgery if acute or severe (determined by LVH, pressure gradient and valve area) Transcatheter aortic valve replacement (TAVR) Mechanical valve: for younger patients, need anti-coagulation, longer lifespan Bioprosthetic: older patients, don't need anti-coagulation, 10 year lifespan
64
What is the order of valves affected by rheumatic heart disease?
1. Mitral 2. Aortic 3. Tricuspid 4. Pulmonary
65
What are the classic stigmata of infective endocarditis?
FEVER AND NEW MURMUR (FROM JANE) Fever Roth spots: retinal haemorrhages Osler nodes: painful, red lesions on fingers Murmur Janeway lesions: painless plaques on palms or soles due to septic emboli Anaemia Nails (splinter haemorrhages) Emboli + pallor, weight loss, glomerulonephritis
66
How is infective endocarditis diagnosed?
Modified Duke's criteria (requires blood cultures and echo) MAJOR: 2 separate positive blood cultures, endocardial involvement MINOR: (FIVE) Fever >38 IV drug user or predisposing heart condition Vascular phenomena (myocotic aneurysm or Janeway) Echo findings Immunological findings (Rheumatoid factor, Osler nodes, glomerulonephritis)
67
Innocent murmurs characteristics (7s)
``` Soft Systolic Short Symptomless Sounds (normal s1 and s2) Standing/sitting (vary with position) Special tests normal (echo/ECG) ```
68
What is the effect of inhibiting ACE?
``` Reduction of angiotensin II leading to: Reduced ADH (lowering H2O) Reduced aldosterone (lower Na, Ca, H2O; raised K) Reduced vasoconstriction Reduced sympathetic activity ```
69
What are some adverse effects of ACE-i?
Persistent dry cough (build-up of bradykinin in lungs) Headache Postural hypotension Rashes Angioedema TERATOGENIC (inhibit foetal urine production leading to oligohydramnios)
70
Who should you not give ACE-i to?
Pregnant women Renal failure Severe illness (can result in AKI, especially if also on NSAIDs)
71
Action of dihydropyridine CCBs and examples?
Block voltage-gated L-type calcium channels Reduces vasoconstriction Amlodipine, nifedipine
72
Adverse effects of CCBs?
``` Headache Flushing Peripheral oedema Reduced cardiac contractility Dizziness Constipation ```
73
Action of thiazide diurectics?
Block Na/Cl channels in distal convoluted tubules of kidney, preventing Na/Cl/H2O entering tubule cells Long-term anti-hypertensive effects mainly due to vasodilation
74
Examples of thiazide diuretics and their adverse effects
Bendroflumethiazide Indapamide Electrolytes: LOW magnesium, sodium, potassium, HIGH calcium Metabolites: HIGH glucose, uric acid (gout) GI: disturbances Severe: pancreatitis, cholestasis, agranulocytosis Impotence Frequency TERATOGENIC
75
Alpha-1 blockers action and examples
Block alpha-1 adrenoreceptors in vascular smooth muscle Reduced arteriolar tone Venous dilation Doxazosin
76
Adverse effects of alpha-1 blockers
``` Headaches Postural hypotension Dizziness Nausea Rhinitis Frequency ```
77
Beta blockers mechanism of action
Reduced renin production Negative inotropic and chronotropic effects Vasodilation
78
Beta blockers adverse effects
``` Cold peripheries Erectile dysfunction Bronchoconstriction/asthma exacerbation Postural hypotension Headache AV nodal heart block Hypoglycaemia Insomnia ```
79
Contraindications for beta blockers
Pheochromocytoma (unless given with alpha blocker - phenoxybenzamine) Asthma Severe peripheral arterial disease Bradycardia (especially if with verapamil)
80
Starling equation
Net pressure = hydryostatic pressure - oncotic pressure (pull of proteins in blood)
81
Ohm's law
Flow = change in pressure/resistance
82
Poiseulle's law
Resistance (R) ∝ η x L / r4 (inversely proportional to radius^4) OR Flow (F) ∝ 𝚫p x r4 / η x L
83
Cardiac output =
stroke volume x heart rate (average of 5L)
84
What effect does the vagus nerve have on the heart?
Acts on SAN and AVN and contractile cells to reduce HR SAN: Increases K+ permeability and action potential length AVN: increases k+ permeability and AVN delay contractile cells: reduces strength of contractions
85
What relationship does the Frank-Starling Law describe?
between preload (LVEDP) and stroke volume
86
Signs and symptoms of acute coronary syndrome?
Can be silent in MI if elderly or diabetic Symptoms: chest pain >15 mins, SOB, sweating, nausea and vomiting Signs: pale, clammy, hypotension, pulmonary oedema, tachycardia
87
ACS investigations
Bedside: obs, BP, glucose, ECG Bloods: FBC, U&Es, TFTs, LFTs, cholesterol, Mg Cardiac enzymes: troponin T/I, CK-MB, myoglobin Imaging: CXR, transthoracic echo Special: coronary angiogram
88
What changes would you see on an ECG following an MI (how do STEMI, NSTEMI and unstable angina differ)?
``` STEMI: minutes-hours: hyperacute T waves 0-12 hours: STEMI 1-12 hours: Q wave development Days: T wave inversion Weeks: T wave normalisation and persistent Q waves ``` NSTEMI and UA: may have signs of MI, T wave inversion or no changes
89
When can you measure troponins after MI? And when else might you see them raised?
6-12 hours (usually 8 hours rise) New tests can be done 3 hours after event Prognostic value CKD,PE
90
Immediate management of ACS
MONA IV morphine (2.5-5mg) + anti-emetic (10mg metoclopramide) Oxygen (if <94%) - 15l/min via high flow non-rebreather mask GTN Aspirin 300mg (+ metoclopramide)
91
Hospital management of STEMI
Aspirin + second antiplatelet (clopidogrel, prasugrel or ticagrelor) --> PCI within 120 mins --> LMWH Fibrinolysis (alteplase) --> PCI 6-24 hours Lifelong aspirin, 12 months of second antiplatelet IV glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists (eptifibatide or tirofiban) if 6-month mortality >3%
92
How should UA or NSTEMI be managed according to GRACE scoring?
High risk (>3%): 1. Angiography within 72 hours (fondaparinux if not possible); 2. dual antiplatelet (lifelong aspirin and 12 months clopidogrel) 3. if chest pain continues - glycoprotein inhibitor (IV eptifibatide, or tirofiban) 4. PCI if chest pain continues Medium risk (1.5-3%): dual antiplatelet Low risk (<1.5%): lifelong aspirin only
93
What are the 8 factors considered in GRACE scoring and what does it estimate?
``` Age Heart rate CHF Renal function Elevated biomarkers ST segment deviation Cardiac arrest Systolic BP ``` 6 month mortality risk in patients with NSTEMI or UA
94
Long-term management of ACS
Beta blocker and ACE-i (if not contraindicated) - bisoprolol and ramipril up to 10mg Dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin and clopidogrel 75mg OD) Artorvastatin 80mg OD
95
Cardiac complications of MI
Pericarditis (autoimmune - Dressler's syndrome 2-10 weeks after) Mitral regurgitation (secondary to ischaemia and rupture of papillary muscles) - systolic murmur Complete heart block (AV node ischaemia from right coronary artery occlusion) Ventricular tachycardia HF Recurrent MI Thromboembolism Ventricular aneurysm
96
What effect does COX enzyme have?
Production of prostaglandins and thromboxane A2 --> platelet aggregation
97
Acute pericarditis vs STEMI ECG changes?
Pericarditis: widespread ST changes PR depression saddle-shaped ST elevation STEMI ST elevation greater in III than II Convex or horizontal ST elevation ST depression in leads other than aVR or V1
98
Most common cause of acute pericarditis? Treatment?
Viral secondary to coxsackie B infection | NSAIDs and colchicine
99
Which artery are most inferior MIs supplied by, and what leads will be affected? What other artery may be occluded in other patients?
Right Coronary Artery II, III, aVF Circumflex will sometimes supply posterior descending artery
100
Three stages of atherosclerosis
1. Endothelial damage: LDL deposits under epothelium which are oxidised and cause more damage. Monocyte recruitment to tunica intima 2. Plaque formation: monocytes become macrophages (lipid-laden = foam cells), multiple foam cells - fatty streak. Muscle cells from tunica media migrate and cover to form lipid rich atheroma with plaque on top 3. Plaque rupture: leads to platelet aggregation and vessel occlusion
101
Artery occluded in posterior MI and ECG changes?
Left circumflex artery or RCA ST DEPRESSION V1-V3 Tall R waves V1 and V2; upright T waves
102
Anterior MI artery
Left coronary artery
103
Anteroseptal MI artery and leads affected
LAD | V1-V3
104
Lateral MI - which artery and leads are affected?
left circumflex | Leads I, aVL and V4-V6
105
When does CK peak following MI, and what is it useful to assess?
24 hour peak | Recognition of re-infarction
106
Contraindications of fibrinolysis
``` Absolute: Active bleeding Bleeding disorder Previous haemorrhagic stroke Ischaemic stroke last 6 months Recent major surgery or head trauma Suspected aortic dissection CNS neoplasm ``` ``` Relative: anticoagulation peptic ulcer pregnancy or less than 1 week postpartum TIA in preceding 6 months Recent trauma/surgery last 2 months infective endocarditis ```
107
Dressler's syndrome features and treatment
``` 1-4 weeks post MI Low grade fever Sharp chest pain Raised ESR Pericardial rub and pericardial effusion ``` Tx: NSAIDs or steroids
108
Signs and symptoms of left ventricular heart failure
``` Symptoms: Dyspnoea Wheeze Cough Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea Orthopnoea Nocturnal cough (pink froth) Haemoptysis Fatigue and lethargy Exercise intolerance ``` ``` Signs: Tachypnoea and cardia Cyanosis Pulsus alternans S3 (gallop rhythm) Inspiratory basal crackles Pleural effusion Cardiomegaly ```
109
Signs and symptoms of right ventricular heart failure
``` Symptoms: abdominal discomfort fatigue nausea peripheral oedema ``` ``` Signs: tachycardia hepatomegaly ascites cachaxia cardiomegaly raised JVP pitting oedema right ventricular heave ```
110
Signs and symptoms of aortic stenosis
SAD (syncope, angina, dyspnoea) Epistaxis (acquired von Willebrand's) ``` Signs: Ejection systolic murmur (low-pitched in second right intercostal space) Sustained apex, thrill Slow rising pulse Narrow pulse pressure Soft S2 if severe S4 sign of LVH Reversed splitting ```
111
Causes of aortic stenosis
Calcification - >65s, most common cause Bicuspid valve - congenital, <65s, turbulent flow leads to stenosis and calcification Rheumatic heart disease - post-Strep A autoimmune condition leading to inflammation
112
What compensatory changes do you see in the heart in aortic stenosis?
Increased left ventricular hypertrophy Increased pressure gradient across the valve Left ventricular heart failure (bibasal crackles and dyspnoea) Exertional syncope Angina due to increased O2 demands from the heart and reduced coronary flow
113
Investigations for suspected aortic stenosis
Bedside: BP ECG: LVH (deep S-waves in V1 and V2, tall R-waves V5 and V6) Bloods: FBC, U&Es, cholesterol, clotting Imaging: CXR - typically small heart, but cardiomegaly if HF occurs; dilated ascending aorta - can be normal!avl Transthoracic Echo - ejection fraction, valve area, ventricular hypertrophy Special: Cardiac catheterisation Cardiac MRI ECG exercise stress testing
114
How is the severity of aortic stenosis assessed?
Transaortic pressure | Aortic valve area
115
Management of aortic stenosis
Surgery in severe or symptomatic cases Valvotomy - percutaneous ballon or open (forces valve leaflets apart) Valvular replacement: Mechanical - for younger patients, long lifespan, lifelong anti-coagulation Bioprosthetic - older, no anti-coagulation needed, 10 year lifespan TRANSCATHETER AORTIC VALVE REPLACEMENT (TAVR) if open surgery not indicated
116
Complications of aortic stenosis
Sudden death Infective endocarditis Arrhythmias Cardiac failure
117
How might you distinguish aortic stenosis from sclerosis?
Sclerosis: normal pulse, normal heart sounds, quiet and soft murmur
118
Most common effected areas in infective endocarditis
Left sided native or prosthetic valves Right sided native valves Devices e.g. pacemaker or defibrillator
119
Angiotensin II receptor blockers - side effects
Hypotension | Hyperkalaemia
120
What is first degree heart block?
PR interval >0.2s | Commonly asymptomatic and no need for intervention
121
What is second degree heart block?
Mobitz i: progressive prolongation of PR interval until a dropped beat (no QRS) [Wenckebach] Mobitz ii: normal PR interval, but P-wave often not followed by QRS complex
122
What is third degree heart block?
Complete heart block | No association between P-wave and QRS complex
123
Characteristics of cardiac tamponade
Beck's triad: muffled heart sounds, hypotension, raised JVP Dyspnoea Tachycardia Absent Y descent on JVP due to limited R ventricular filling Pulsus paradoxus (abnormal BP drop on inspiration) ECG: electrical alternans (alternating QRS heights)
124
Signs and symptoms of acute pericarditis
``` Chest pain, may be pleuritic - relieved on sitting forward Dyspnoea Tachypnoea Tachycardia Pericardial rub Non-productive cough ```
125
Causes of acute pericarditis
``` Coxsackie (+ varicella, influenza, mumps) Dressler's syndrome (post-MI) Uraemia (fibrinous pericarditis) TB Hypothyroidism Trauma Malignancy Connective tissue disease (RA, SLE) ```
126
70-year-old woman is found to have a pan-systolic murmur after presenting with dyspnoea. A soft S1 and split S2 is also noted
Mitral regurgitation
127
Risk factors for mitral regurgitation?
``` Female Older Collagen disorders (Marfan's, Ehler-Dalnos) Low BMI Renal dysfunction MI Mitral prolapse or stenosis ```
128
Causes of mitral regurgitation?
MI (damage/ischaemia to papillary muscle or chordae tendenae) Infective endocarditis Rheumatic heart disease Mitral valve prolapse Congenital
129
Signs and symptoms of mitral regurgitation
Fatigue, SOB, oedema ``` Soft S1 (incomplete closure of mitral valve) Split S2 if severe Pansystolic murmur (blowing) over apex and radiating to axilla ```
130
Mitral regurgitation investigations
BP ECG: broad P-waves (atrial enlargement) CXR: cardiomegaly Transthoracic Echo - assessment of severity
131
Management of mitral regurgitation
Nitrates, diuretics, positive inotropes, intra-aortic balloon pump (increases cardiac output) HF: ACE-i, beta blockers, spironolactone § Severe - surgery (either repair or valve replacement)
132
What is aortic dissection?
Tear in the tunic intima of the wall of the aorta
133
What is aortic dissection associated with?
``` Hypertension Trauma Syphilis Collagen disorders (Marfen's, Ehlers-Danlos) Bicuspid aortic valve Pregnancy Turner's and Noonan's ```
134
Features of aortic dissection
Tearing chest pain radiating to back Aortic regurgitation HTN Absent subclavian pulse Carotid dissection Specific arteries (angina from coronary, paraplegia from spinal, limb ischaemia from distal aorta) Rarely ECG changes (sometimes ST elevation)
135
Types of aortic dissection
Stanford A: ascending (2/3s) | Stanford B: descending
136
Which drugs can lead to gout?
Loop diuretics Thiazides Pyrazinamide
137
What ECG changes would you see in a PE?
SINUS TACHYCARDIA RBBB Right axis deviation Inverted T waves
138
How does the New York Health Association classify heart failure?
Class I-IV based on exercise ability (normal - unable without discomfort); and symptoms (none - at rest)
139
What is the difference between systolic and diastolic heart failure?
Systolic: reduced LV ejection fraction (pumping out reduced proportion of its blood), ventricular dilatation Diastolic: HF with preserved ejection fraction, ventricular hypertrophy
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Main causes of heart failure
Vascular: previous infarction; hypertension Electrical: arrhythmias (leading to cardiac compensation) Muscular: dilated cardiomyopathy, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, congenital heart disease Valvular: stenosis or regurgitation High-output: anaemia, thyrotoxicosis, septicaemia, liver failure - leading to reduced peripheral resistance
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What is the Frank-Starling law?
Increased preload (stretching of myocytes) leads to increased contractility (i.e. stroke volume) This is up to a point. After preload increases to a certain threshold, stroke volume plateaus and then decreases
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What are the main determinants of stroke volume?
Preload Cardiac contractility Afterload (pressure against which the ventricles must contract)
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Signs and symptoms of heart failure
Symptoms: Resp - SOB, orthopnoea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, wheeze General - fatigue, ankle swelling, abdominal pain, weight loss, cachexia Signs: Raised JVP, peripheral oedema, bibasal crackles, hepatomegaly, ascites, displaced apex, S3/S4, pulsus alternans
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What urgent investigation would you do in suspected HF, and in which cases would you carry it out?
Echocardiogram <2 weeks Patients with: previous MI, severe symptoms, BNP >400, evidence of valvular disease or renal dysfunction
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General investigations in patients with suspected HF
Bedside: BP, ECG (LVH, infarct), urinalysis (renal dysfunction) Bloods: FBC (exclude anaemia or infection), U&Es (exclude renal causes of odema), TFTs (exclude thyrotoxicosis), cholesterol and HbA1c (CV risk stratification), LFTs (exclude liver failure), BNP Imaging: CXR, echo Special: cardiac catheterisation, cardiac biopsy, 24 hour ECG, lung function tests
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What might you see on a CXR in a patient with HF?
Alveolar oedema (perihilar shadowing) Kerley B (fluid in septae of secondary lobules) Cardiomegaly Upper lobe Diversion Pleural Effusion (blunting of costrophrenic angle)
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Lifestyle modifications for a patient with HF
Patient education Smoking, weight, diet, sexual and travel advice One-off pneumococcal vaccine and annual flu vaccine
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What condition is classically associated with S4?
hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
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What heart condition does alcohol abuse commonly cause?
Dilated cardiomyopathy
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Management of HF
ACE-i (ramipril 1.25mg OD - 5mg BD) - check renal function Beta blockers (bisoprolol 1.25mg OD) - double dose every 4 weeks untel target reached; NOT IN BRADY, ASTHMA, COPD or PULMONARY OEDEMA +/- spironolactone If still symptomatic then consider: Hydralazine + nitrate (esp if Afro) ARB If still symptomatic: - digoxin - cardiac resynchronisation therapy
151
Management of heart failure with preserved ejection fraction
Loop diuretics for symptom control | Address co-morbidities and underlying causes
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Management of acute pulmonary oedema
FOND Furosemide 40mg O2 high-flow Nitrates Diamorphine
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What is considered a normal ejection fraction?
55-70%
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What is cor pulmonale and what are its causes?
Abnormal enlargement and dysfunction of right side of the heart due to pulmonary hypertension PE COPD Pulmonary fibrosis
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Causes of LBBB
Cardiomyopathy Aortic stenosis IHD HTN
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Treatment of severe bradycardia with signs of shock?
IV atropine 500mcg boluses | Transcutaneous pacing if necessary
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Causes of S3
Normal if <30 (<50 for women) Left ventricular failure Constrictive pericarditis Mitral regurgitation
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Causes of S4
HOCM Aortic stenosis HTN
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Management if patient on warfarin has INR 5-8 (no bleeding)
Withhold two doses warfarin | Reduce subsequent maintenance dose
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Causes of RBBB
``` Right ventricular hypertrophy PE Increased right ventricular pressure (cor pulmonale) MI Atrial septal defect Myocarditis or cardiomyopathy ```
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Management of a patient on warfarin due to undergo surgery
If can wait 6-8 hours give IV Vit K | If emergency: four-factor prothrombin factor complex
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Major and minor criteria of rheumatic heart disease (2 major/1 major and 2 minor)
``` Major: Erythema marginatum (pink rings on torso or inner limb surfaces) Sydenham's chorea (late) Polyarthritis Carditis and valvulitis Subcutaneous nodules ``` ``` Minor: Raised ESR/CRP Pyrexia Arthralgia Prolonged PR interval ```
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Treatment of rheumatic heart disease
IM Benzylpenicillin Admit and bed rest 10 day penicillin (long-term) Aspirin as needed
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Cause of mitral stenosis
RHEUMATIC HEART FEVER
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Features of mitral stenosis
``` Mid-diastolic murmur (low-rumbling) Tapping apex (non-displaced) Malar flush AF Loud S1, opening snap Low volume pulse ```
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Mitral stenosis CXR and ECG features
CXR: left atrial enlargement ECG: bifid p waves or absent p waves
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Most common cause of death following MI? What management would you consider for such patients
Cardiogenic shock (but actually VF) Inoptropic support Coronary angiography Echo Surgical intervention
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Common causes of cardiogenic shock following MI?
Damage to ventricular myocardium leading to reduced ejection fraction Left ventricular free wall rupture
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What initial tests would you perform in someone with suspected pericarditis?
ECG (may be normal in 10%) Echo (pericardial effusion) Troponin (exclude MI or show myocardial involvement)
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Complications of acute pericarditis
``` Chronic pericarditis Cardiac tamponade (due to pericardial effusion) ```
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Management of VSD and shock post-MI
``` Inotropic support Intra-aortic balloon pump Analgesia Consider angiogram Positive pressure ventilation Transfer to cardiothoracic unit Swann-Ganz pulmonary artery catheter ```
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Normal pressures and oxygen sats in heart chambers
RA: 0-4mmHg (70%) RV: 20/0-4mmHg (70%) LV: 105/0-5 (95-100%)
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Antibiotic management of infective endocarditis (for each organism)
Empirical: benpen, gentamicin Strep: benpen and amoxicillin Staph: fluclox and gentamicin Aspergillus: miconazole
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Definition of supraventricular tachycardia?
Narrow complex tachycardia
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Acute and long-term management of SVT
Acute: Vagal manoeuvres (valsalva, carotid sinus massage) IV adenosine - 6mg, 12mg, 12mg (verapamil if asthmatic) Electrical cardioversion Long-term: Beta-blocker Radio-frequency ablation
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What manoeuvres can patients use to terminate SVT attacks?
Head in icy water Pressing on eyeballs Finger down throat All stimulate vagus nerve, slowing AV node conduction
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What kind of tachy is Wolf-Parkinson-White and what are the ECG findings?
Atrioventricular re-entry tachy Wide QRS with Delta waves (slurred upstroke) Left axis deviation in most cases Short PR
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Associations of WPW and treatment
``` HOCM Thyrotoxicosis Mitral valve prolapse Ebstein anomaly ASD ``` Tx: Radio-frequency ablation (definitive) Sotalol (not if AF), flecainide, amiodarone
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Anterolateral MI leads and artery?
V2, V3, I and aVL
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Investigations for suspected aortic dissection
Bloods BP both arms (20mmHg difference) ECG: any ischaemia, right heart strain or AF in PE CXR: widened mediastinum CT thoracic aorta: quantify damage and assess for possible repair
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Immediate management of aortic dissection
Admit to intensive care Antihypertensives (reduce BP and HR) - IV sodium nitroprusside, beta blocker Oxygen and analgesia Surgery
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Definitive treatment of type A and B aortic dissections
A: median sternotomy and cardiopulmonary bypass for aortic root repair/replacement CONTRAINDICATED - evolving CVA or renal failure B: BP control (surgery if aortic expansion evidence)
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ECG changes in LVH
V1 or V2 S wave >30mm | V5 or V6 R wave >30mm
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What might lead to a false LVH diagnosis?
Obesity Emphysema Pericardial effusion Young people with thin chest walls
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Marfan's syndrome features
``` Tall and long limbed High arched palate Pes planus Pectus excavatum Aortic dilation (aortic aneurysm, dissection, regurgitation, mitral prolapse) Upwards lens dislocation, blue sclera, myopia Arachnodactyly Scoliosis Pneumothoraces ```
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Most common cause of death in HOCM and what is the hereditary pattern?
Arrhythmia | Autosomal dominant
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HOCM features
AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT Exertional dyspnoea and angina Syncope following exercise Ejection systolic murmur Arrhythmia Sudden death (ventricular arrhythmia, arrhythmia, HF) Jerky pulse, large a waves, bisferiens (double beat)
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Echo and ECG features of HOCM
Echo (MR SAM ASH) Mitral Regurgitation Systolic Anterior Motion of the mitral valve leaflet Asymmetric hypertrophy ECG ST and T wave changes, progressive T wave inversion Deep Q waves AF
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Management of HOCM
``` Amiodarone Beta blocker Cardiac defibrilator Dual chamber pacemaker Endocarditis prophylaxis ```
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Drugs to avoid in HOCM
ACE-i Nitrates Inotropes
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How should suspected DVT be investigated if Wells' score is >/=2 points?
Arrange leg vein ultrasound within 4 hours If negative, take D-dimer If US not possible in 4 hours, carry out D-dimer and give LMWH while waiting for US within 24 hours
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How should DVT/PE be managed?
Initial LMWH or fondaparinux - continued for 5 days or until INR is >2 for at least 24 hours (6 months if active cancer) Warfarin (or other vitamin K antagonist) within 24 hours - continued for 3 months and then reassessed (extended if unprovoked DVT and no bleeding risk) Thrombolysis if massive PE (hypotensive etc)
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What investigations would you carry out for a patient with an unprovoked DVT?
Cancer Ix: Full examination, CXR, bloods (FBC, calcium, LFTs) and consider abdo-pelvic CT/mammogram if >40 ``` Antiphospholipid antibodies (Hughes/APS) Hereditary thrombophilia screening ```
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What is taken into consideration when deciding a dose for LMWH?
Weight of patient | Renal function
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How is heparin monitored?
Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT)
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Causes of sinus bradycardia
``` Athletics Hypothyroidism Hypothermia Legionnaire's, typhoid MI ```
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Investigations for infective endocarditis
``` ECG Echo Blood cultures (3 sets) - from peripheral vein MC&S US abdomen (possible splenic infarcts) ```
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Complications of infective endocarditis
``` TIA Complete heart block AKI HF Vertebral osteomyelitis ```
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Risk factors for infective endocarditis
``` Miscarriage IVDU Prosthetic heart valve Chronic cholecystitis Pneumonia Colonic malignancy ```
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What are the two contraindications for statins
``` Pregnancy Macrolide antibiotics (risk of rhabdomyolosis) ```
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Causes of cardiac arrest
Hypoxia Hypovolaemia Hyperkalaemia, hypokalaemia, hypocalcaemia, hypoglycaemia, acidaemia Hypothermia Thrombosis Tension pneumothorax Tamponade Toxins
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Action of loop diuretics and examples?
Inhibit Na-K-Cl transporter in ascending loop of Henle Furosemide, bumetanide
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Treatment of stable angina?
BETA BLOCKER (or CCB unless HF) + Aspirin and simvastatin
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Normal QRS range
80-100ms
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Features of coarctation of the aorta
HF/HTN Poor feeding Lethargy, SOB Hypoperfusion of lower extremities - weakened femoral pulses Notching of inferior border of ribs Systolic murmur loudest at left sternal border Apical click ``` Associated with: Turner's Bicuspid aortic valve Neurofibromatosis Berry aneurysms ```
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First-line investigation for PE, and when is it contraindicated>
CT pulmonary angiogram contraindicated if renal impairment as contrast is nephrotoxic - carry out V/Q (ventilation-perfusion) scan instead Pulmonary angiography gold standard but significant complications
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What is the DRAGON score used for?
3-month outcome in ischaemic stroke patients receiving tissue plasminogen activator
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Indications for urgent surgical valve replacement in infective endocarditis?
Severe congestive heart failure Overwhelming sepsis despite Abx Pregnancy Recurrent embolic episodes despite abx
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What ECG changes might you see in a patient with a pulmonary embolism?
SINUS TACHYCARDIA ``` Large S wave lead I Large Q wave lead III Inverted T wave lead III S1Q3T3 RBBB ```
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Causes of raised proBNP
``` Renal dysfunction Age >70 LVH Ischaemia Hypoxaemia (PE) Sepsis COPD Liver cirrhosis Diabetes ```
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What drugs can cause a prolonged QT interval?
``` TCAs Sotalol Amiodarone Chloroquine Erythromycin ```
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What conditions can cause a prolonged QT interval?
Hypo - calcaemia, kalaemia, magnesaemia MI Myocarditis SAH Hypothermia
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Management of ventricular tachycardia
If adverse signs (<90 systolic BP, chest pain, HF) - immediate cardioversion Amiodarone (central line) Lidocaine (not if severe LV impairment) Electrical cardioversion if these fail Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator
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Management of coarctation of the aorta in newborn
IV prostaglandins to keep patent ductus arteriosus Surgical correction
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How is angina diagnosed?
1. Constrictive pain in chest, neck, shoulders, jaw or arms 2. Worsened by physical exertion 3. Relieved within 5 mins by GTN ``` 3 = typical angina 2= atypical angina 1 = non-anginal pain ```
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Investigations for typical/atypica angina
1st line: CT coronary angiography 2nd line: non-invasive functional imaging (e.g. stress echo, MRI) 3rd line: invasive coronary angiography
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When would you refer a patient with acute chest pain?
Current or within last 12 hours - emergency admission 12-72 hours ago - same-day admission >72 hours - ECG and full assessment with troponin before deciding
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Adverse effects of statins
Myopathies: rhabdomyolysis, myalgia, myositis Liver impairment (must check baseline, 3 and 12 month LFTs): only stop statin if transaminise rises and persists at 3 times normal Avoid if hx of cerebral haemorrhage
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What is pulsus paradoxus and in whom would you see it?
Drop of systolic BP by 10mmHg on inspiration Seen with cardiac tamponade and asthma
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Features of Takayasu's arteritis, and what is its management?
``` ASIAN FEMALES Systemic arteritis features - headache, malaise Unequal BP in both arms Absent limb pulses Renal artery stenosis associated Carotid bruit Aortic regurgitation Claudication ``` Mx: steroids
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Features of hypokalaemia on an ECG
Prolonged PR U waves Small or absent T wave Long QT
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Causes of hypokalaemia with and without HTN
HTN: Cushings, Conn's, Liddle's syndrome Without: Diuretics, renal tubular acidosis, GI loss (diarrhoea/vomiting)
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Features of hypokalaemia
Muscle weakness, hypotonia | Predisposition to digoxin toxicity - take care if giving digoxin to a patient on diuretics
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Hypercalcaemia features on ECG
Short QT | J (osborne) waves
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Adverse effects of loop diuretics
LOW sodium, calcium, potassium, magnesium, chloride (alkalosis) Ototoxicity Hypotension Gout Renal impairment (dehydration and direct toxic effect)
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What valvular disease is associated with PCOS?
Mitral valve prolapse
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How many days before a surgery should warfarin be stopped, and what should INR be less than?
5 days before | <1.5 INR
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Management of aortic stenosis patients?
Aortic valve replacement if symptomatic or >40mmHg aortic valve gradient
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What are the Levine grades of murmur?
1: faint murmur 2: slight murmur 3: moderate murmur without palpable thrill 4: loud with palpable thrill 5: very loud with extremely palpable thrill and heard with stethoscope edge 6: can hear with stethoscope off the chest
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Takotsubo cardiomyopathy features
Crushing central chest pain following severely stressful event Echo: apical ballooning of myocardium (octopus pot)
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What ECG changes are indications for immediate thrombolysis or PCI?
ST elevation of >1mm (one small square) in at least two consecutive inferior leads II, III, avF, avR LBBB ST elevation of >2mm in 2 or more consecutive anterior leads
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Management of orthostatic hypotension
Lifestyle measures - adequate salt and hydration Compression stockings Fludrocortisone (increases sodium reabsorption and plasma volume) or midodrine Counter-pressure manoeuvres and head-tilt sleeping
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What is Eisenmenger's syndrome?
Reversal of a left to right shunt once the right ventricle is so large it overcomes the pressure in the left leading to cyanosis. Child comes in cyanosed with haemoptysis, RVF, having had pansystolic murmur at birth. Associated with uncorrected ASD, VSD and patent ductus arteriosus Managed by lung-heart transplant
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What heart condition are alcoholics predisposed to?
Dilated cardiomyopathy (dilated left ventricle, <40% left ventricle ejection fraction)
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ECG changes with hypothermia
``` Prolonged PR, QT and QRS J waves Brady <60bpm Shivering artefacts VT, VF, asystole <16 degrees ```
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Bus or lorry driver post-MI going back to work
Must notify DVLA and stay off work for 6 weeks. DVLA will then determine safety to return
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Target INR for a patient who has suffered more than one PE
3.5
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Broad complex tachycardia following MI and drop in BP
Ventricular tachycardia
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66-year-old woman suddenly develops dyspnoea 10 days after having an anterior myocardial infarction. Her blood pressure is 78/50 mmHg, JVP is elevated and the heart sounds are muffled. There are widespread crackles on her chest and the oxygen saturations are 84% on room air.
Left ventricular free wall rupture
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Orthostatic hypotension diagnosis
>20mmHg drop in systolic or >10mmHg drop in diastolic after 3 mins of standing
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Young male smoker with painful hands and feet, cold and pale extremities (Raynaud's) and ulcers
Buerger's syndrome
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Features of constrictive pericarditis
JVP with X + Y descent positive Kussmaul's (rise in JVP on inspiration) Dyspnoea, RHF signs (oedema, hepatomegaly, ascites) Pericardial knock (loud S3) CXR: pericardial calcification
243
What investigations must you do for a patient starting on a statin?
LFTs baseline, 3 and 12 months
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DVLA advice post MI
cannot drive for 4 weeks
245
First line test for coronary artery disease?
CT angiogram
246
Immediate management of MI
Dual antiplatelet therapy - Aspirin + clopidogrel/ticagrelor Morphine + metoclopramide (antiemetic) Anticoagulation for 24-72 hours: heparin/fondaparinux Angiography (within 24 hours for STEMI, 72 hours for NSTEMI)
247
How to treat bradycardia
Pacemaker
248
Commonest cause of leg pain following bypass surgery?
Reperfusion
249
What is required prior to giving a CT angiogram?
``` Beta blocker (lowers heart rate before scan) U&Es - ensure renal function before giving CT contrast ```
250
Diagnosis of rheumatic heart disease?
ASO titre
251
How many small squares on an ECG is 1 second?
25mm
252
P waves in normal sinus?
Positive in I, II and avF | Negative in avR
253
Sinus arrhythmia
Increased HR on inspiration, decreases on expiration Regularly irregular Still fulfils criteria for sinus rhythm
254
Characteristics of premature atrial complex on an ECG?
Positive p wave (lead II) Narrow QRS Different morphology of p wave
255
Premature junctional complex characteristics
Absent or inverted p wave (II) | Narrow QRS
256
Premature ventricular complex characteristics
Wide qrs No p wave T wave opposite to r wave
257
Sinus brady characteristics ecg
narrow qrs p wave present HR <60
258
SVT characteristics ecg
HR >150 Indistinguishable p wave Narrow qrs Regular
259
Atrial flutter ecg characteristics
Sawtooth p waves >250 Narrow qrs Often 2:1 ratio (can be confused with SVT)
260
Junctional arrhythmia ecg
40-60 HR Absent/inverted p wave Narrow qrs
261
When would you not treat AF with BB and CCB?
If patient has CHF - treat instead with digoxin and amiodarone
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Which patients should you not start on ACE-i for blood pressure?
Non-diabetics over55 Afro-Carribean Women expecting to get pregnant
263
Definitive management of WPW syndrome?
Radiofrequency ablation of the accessory pathway Medical: sotalol, amiodarone, flecainide
264
Treatment of torsades de pointes
Magnesium sulphate
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``` Cause of J waves U waves Delta waves Q wave ```
J wave: hypothermia and hypercalcaemia U wave: hypokalaemia Delat wave: WPW Q wave: previous MI
266
Causes of ejection systolic murmur
``` Pulmonary stenosis Aortic stenosis HOCM Tetralogy of Fallot Atrial septal defect ```
267
When should you prescribe anticoagulation to a patient following a stroke?
2 weeks after the event (as long as haemorrhage excluded)
268
Most important causes of ventricular tachy
Hypokalaemia | Hypomagnesaemia
269
Normal PR interval?
3-5 small squares
270
Normal QRS interval
3 small squares
271
Next investigation if BNP is high in patient with suspected heart failure?
Transthoracic echo