Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

Two AF characteristics on the ECG

A

RR intervals are irregularly irregular

No distinct p waves

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2
Q

How can you classify AF?

A

Paroxysmal: at least one episode >30s, resolves within 7 days

Persistant: lasts more than 7 days or requires termination with medication or cardioversion

Permanent: does not resolve on cardioversion, sinus rhythm cannot be achieved and AF deemed the final rhythm

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3
Q

Risk factors for AF

A
Cardiac:
Cardiomyopathy 
IHD/heart failure 
Valvular disease 
HTN

Resp: COPD, pneumonia, PE, pleural effusion, lung cancer
Endocrine: diabetes, thyrotoxicosis
Infection
Electrolyte disturbances
Drugs: bronchodilators, thyroxine (+alcohol/caffeine)

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4
Q

Signs and symptoms of AF

A
Symptoms:
Dizziness/confusion
Palpitations
Chest pain
Breathlessness 
Dyspnoea 
Signs:
Raised JVP
Tachycardia 
Murmurs 
Irregular pulse 
Hypotension
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5
Q

AF investigations

A

Bedside: blood pressure, ECG
Bloods: FBC, U&Es, TFTs, magnesium, calcium, cholesterol
Imaging: CXR, CT/MRI if emboli, transthoracic echo

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6
Q

CHADSVASC score

A
Congestive heart failure 
Hypertension 140/90
Age >75 (2)
Diabetes 
Stroke/TIA/thromboembolism (2)
Vascular disease 
Age (65-74)
Sex (female)
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7
Q

CHADSVASC score interpretation

A

> 2 anti-coagulate

1 consider anti-coagulation

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8
Q

HAS-BLED score

A
Hypertension
Abnormal liver/renal function
Stroke
Bleeding
Liable INRs
Elderly (>65)
Drugs/alcohol
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9
Q

3 methods of AF treatment

A

Rate control (>65, IHD)
Rhythm control (<65, first presentation, symptomatic, CHF)
Anti-coagulation
Catheter and surgical ablation

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10
Q

Rate control medication for AF

A
Beta blockers (metopralol, bisoprolol) 
CCBs (verapamil cardia selective)
Digoxin (in sedentary patients)
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11
Q

What is the complication of BB and CCBs being co-prescribed?

A

AV heart block

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12
Q

Rhythm control in AF

A

First rate control with beta blockers

Electrical cardioversion
Drugs: amiodarone, sotalol, flecainide (pill in the pocket for paroxysmal AF)

This should be followed by 4 weeks of anticoagulation

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13
Q

Cardioversion considerations in AF

A

Identifiable reversible cause
Heart failure

Onset <48 hours: immediate cardioversion due to bleeding risk

Onset >48 hours: 3 weeks of anticoagulation before cardioversion due to risk of thromboembolism

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14
Q

When would you choose to rhythm control in an AF patient?

A

Rate control unsuccessful or symptoms persisting
Younger patient (to prevent permanent AF)
Recurrent symptomatic episodes
First onset AF (DC cardioversion if unstable)
Reversible cause
Co-existent HF

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15
Q

Anticoagulation options in AF

A

Warfarin (vitamin K antagonist) - regular INR monitoring

NOACs - rivaroxaban/apixaban (dirext Xa inhibitor)

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16
Q

Mechanism of low-molecular weight heparin?

A

Inhibition of antithrombin III leading to factor Xa inhibition

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17
Q

Mechanism of aspirin?

A

COC inhibitor

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18
Q

Causes of irregularly irregular heart beat

A

AF
Atrial/ventricular ectopics
Atrial flutter with variable block

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19
Q

What cardiac change does Wolff-Parkinson-White cause?

A

Supraventricular tachycardia

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20
Q

what causes a sawtooth ECG pattern, and what treatment is there?

A
Atrial flutter (ventricular rate is dependent on degree of AV block - atrial rhythm usually 300/min)
Same treatment as AF, although more sensitive to cardioversion
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21
Q

What investigations would you use to identify the cause of a TIA

A

Large vessel occlusions:
Carotid duplex ultrasound
MRA
CTA

Cardiac analysis:
Transthoracic Echo
ECG
Holter monitoring

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22
Q

Treatment of permanent AF?

A

Rate control and anti-coagulation

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23
Q

Adverse effects of amiodarone

A

Thyroid disease
Interstitial lung disease
Hepatotoxicity

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24
Q

What is the mechanism of digoxin toxicity?

A

Triggered activity in which there are afterdepolarisation oscillations in membrane activity

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25
Q

What are the three mechanisms of arrhythmogenesis?

A
Automaticity 
Re-entry (most common)
Triggered activity (digoxin toxicity)
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26
Q

What is the mechanism of Class I anti-arrhythmics?

A

Slow depolarisation (depress phase 0). Inhibits fast sodium channels and so reduce sodium entry.

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27
Q

Class I anti-arrhythmics examples

A

IB: phenytoin (also decreases length of action potential)

IC: flecainide (just depresses phase 0)

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28
Q

Class I anti-arrhythmics side-effects

A
Nause and vomiting 
SLE-like syndrome (flecainide)
Negative inotropic (weaken muscle contractions)
Proarrhythmic 
CNS toxicity
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29
Q

Class II anti-arrhythmics mechanism?

A

Catecholamine antagonist at the beta-adrenoreceptors
Negative inotrope and chronotrope (reduce HR and contraction strength)
Reduce conduction at AV node
Reduce rate of spontaneous depolarisaiton at SA node (reduces slope of phase 4)

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30
Q

Class II anti-arrhythmics examples and side effects?

A

Bisoprolol
Propanalol

Bradycardia 
Postural hypotension 
Insomnia 
Bronchoconstriction 
Erectile dysfunction 
Hypoglycaemia 
AV nodal heart block
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31
Q

Class III anti-arrhythmics mechanism?

A

Prolong action potential by blocking potassium channels (prolongs phase 2)

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32
Q

Class III anti-arrhythmics examples and side effects

A

Amiodarone
Nausa, thyroid dysfunction, peripheral neuropathy, photosensitivity, proarrhythmic, hepatitis, potentiates warfarin and digoxin

Sotalol (same as Class II)

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33
Q

What are the two different kinds of CCBs?

A

Dihydropyridines (anti-hypertensive e.g. amlodipine and nifedipine)

Non-dihydropyridines (anti-arrhythmics e.g. verapamil and diltiazem)

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34
Q

Class IV anti-arrhythmics mechanism

A

Block L-type calcium channels in autorhythmic cells (reduce rate of spontaneous depolarisation)
Negative inoptrope and chronotrope

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35
Q

Digoxin mechanism

A

Inhibits Na/K ATPase pump in cardiomyocytes
Increases intracellular calcium
More forceful contractions (positive inotrope)

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36
Q

What needs monitoring when a patient is on digoxin?

A
Kidney function 
ECG changes (ST depression, T wave changes, PR prolongation)
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37
Q

Digoxin side effects

A

Nausea and vomiting
Visual disturbances (yellow rings, change to colour perception)
Proarrhythmic
Insomnia

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38
Q

Adenosine mechanism and what is it treatment for?

A

Slows heart rate

Treats supraventricular tachycardia

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39
Q

Atropine mechanism and what is it treatment for?

A

Increases heart rate

Treats sinus bradycardia and AV block

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40
Q

What is magnesium sulfate used to treat?

A

Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (torsades des pointes)

Digoxin toxicity

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41
Q

Tests and monitoring of amiodarone?

A

LFTs and TFTs

Every 6 months on starting

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42
Q

Which patients should you not start flecainide on?

A

Coronary heart disease

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43
Q

Treatment for regular ventricular tachycardia?

A

Amiodarone (IV 300mg)

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44
Q

Which anti-arrhythmic can prolong QT interval?

A

Sotalol

Must have regular ECG monitoring

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45
Q

Three stages of hypertension

A
  1. 140/90 (135/85 ABPM) (plus end-organ damage, CVS, renal disease, diabetes, >20% CVS risk on Framingham calculator)
  2. 160/100 (150/95 ABPM)
  3. 180/110
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46
Q

Causes of secondary hypertension

A

Renal: renovascular disease, internal disease (CKD, AKI, glomerulonephritis)

Endocrine: Cushing’s, Acromegaly, Conn’s, phaeochromocytoma

Drugs: SSRIs, oral contraceptives, glucocorticoids, NSAIDs, EPO

Coarctation of the aorta

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47
Q

What symptoms and signs might you see with hypertension (either reflecting end-organ failure or secondary cause)

A

Symptoms: blurred vision, palpitations, chest pain, dyspnoea, headaches, new onset neuropathy

Signs: retinopathy, cardiomegaly, arrhythmias, proteinuria, uraemia

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48
Q

KWB retinopathy grades

A
  1. generalised arteriolar narrowing (silver wiring)
  2. focal narrowing and arteriovenous nipping
  3. retinal haemorrhages and cotton wool spots (retinal nerve fibre layer micro-infarcts leading to exudation of axoplasmic materials)
  4. papilloedema
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49
Q

Investigations for a patient with newly diagnosed hypertension?

A

Bedside: BP, urinalysis, fundoscopy, ECG

Bloods: FBC, U&Es, HbA1c/fasting glucose, cholesterol

Special tests: ambulatory BP, renal US, endocrine tests (aldosterone:renin ratio)

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50
Q

What are the BP targets in <80s and >80s?

A

<80s: 140/90
>80s: 150/90
(130/80 if renal disease and proteinuria or diabetes)

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51
Q

What is malignant hypertension?

A

180/110 with papilloedema and/or retinal haemorrhage

Signs:
Uncontrollable epistaxis 
Haematuria 
Epistaxis 
Raised ICP - headaches and nausea
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52
Q

Treatment of malignant hypertension/hypertensive emergency?

A
IV nitroprusside (nitric oxide releasing) or labetalol
Phentolamine (alpha adrenergic antagonist)

Over 24-48 hours so as to avoid hypoperfusion

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53
Q

Causes of aortic regurgitation?

A

Aortic leaflets:
rheumatic heart disease (commonest in developing countries)
congenital (bicuspid/quadcuspid)
degenerative (calcification) - commonest in developed
infective endocarditis

Aortic root: aortitis, aortic dissection (Stanford A), connective tissue disorders (Marfan’s)

Syphilis

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54
Q

Organisms causing infective endocarditis and rheumatic heart disease?

A

Infective endocarditis: strep viridans, staph aureus, enterococci

Rheumatic heart disease: post-strep Group A (pyogenes) auto-immune condition

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55
Q

What connective tissue disorders can cause aortic and mitral regurgitation?

A

Marfan’s: defective FBN1 gene

Ehlers-Danlos: collagen defects

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56
Q

What other chronic inflammatory diseases is aortitis associated with

A

Rheumatic arthritis
Anylosing spondilitis
Takayasu arteritis
Complicates giant cell arteritis

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57
Q

What are the complications of acute aortic regurgitation?

A

Reduced coronary flow leading to angina or MI

Increased end-diastolic pressure leads to pulmonary oedema and dyspnoea and eventually cardiogenic shock

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58
Q

What cardiac changes might you see in a patient with chronic aortic regurgitation?

A

Increased preload, leading to left ventricular dilatation and hypertrophy
Greater contractility
Eventual heart failure

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59
Q

Acute aortic regurgitation clinical features

A

Bilateral basal crackles
Raised JVP
Dyspnoea
Chest pain (consider angina or MI)

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60
Q

Chronic aortic regurgitation clinical features

A
Palpitations 
Angina 
Dyspnoea 
Water hammer pulse (collapsing) 
Wide pulse pressure 

Chest signs: displaced apex, early diastolic decrescendo murmur (left sternal edge, high pitched and blowing), soft s1 and s2

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61
Q

Eponymous signs associated with aortic regurgitation

A

de Musset’s: head bobbing with each heart beat

Quincke’s: pulsation of nail beds

Muller’s: vibrating uvula

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62
Q

Investigations for aortic regurgitation

A

Bedside: BP, ECG (LVH)

Bloods: FBC, U&Es, clotting, cholesterol

Imaging: echo (origin of regurgitant jet, its size, aortic valve pathology and hypertrophy), CXR (cardiomegaly, aortic dilatation, calcification)

Special: cardiac MRI, cardiac catheterisation, ECG exercise stress testing

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63
Q

Aortic regurgitation management

A

Surgery if acute or severe (determined by LVH, pressure gradient and valve area)

Transcatheter aortic valve replacement (TAVR)

Mechanical valve: for younger patients, need anti-coagulation, longer lifespan

Bioprosthetic: older patients, don’t need anti-coagulation, 10 year lifespan

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64
Q

What is the order of valves affected by rheumatic heart disease?

A
  1. Mitral
  2. Aortic
  3. Tricuspid
  4. Pulmonary
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65
Q

What are the classic stigmata of infective endocarditis?

A

FEVER AND NEW MURMUR
(FROM JANE)

Fever
Roth spots: retinal haemorrhages
Osler nodes: painful, red lesions on fingers
Murmur

Janeway lesions: painless plaques on palms or soles due to septic emboli
Anaemia
Nails (splinter haemorrhages)
Emboli

+ pallor, weight loss, glomerulonephritis

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66
Q

How is infective endocarditis diagnosed?

A

Modified Duke’s criteria (requires blood cultures and echo)
MAJOR: 2 separate positive blood cultures, endocardial involvement

MINOR: (FIVE)
Fever >38
IV drug user or predisposing heart condition
Vascular phenomena (myocotic aneurysm or Janeway)
Echo findings
Immunological findings (Rheumatoid factor, Osler nodes, glomerulonephritis)

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67
Q

Innocent murmurs characteristics (7s)

A
Soft 
Systolic 
Short 
Symptomless 
Sounds (normal s1 and s2)
Standing/sitting (vary with position) 
Special tests normal (echo/ECG)
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68
Q

What is the effect of inhibiting ACE?

A
Reduction of angiotensin II leading to:
Reduced ADH (lowering H2O)
Reduced aldosterone (lower Na, Ca, H2O; raised K)
Reduced vasoconstriction 
Reduced sympathetic activity
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69
Q

What are some adverse effects of ACE-i?

A

Persistent dry cough (build-up of bradykinin in lungs)
Headache
Postural hypotension
Rashes
Angioedema
TERATOGENIC (inhibit foetal urine production leading to oligohydramnios)

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70
Q

Who should you not give ACE-i to?

A

Pregnant women
Renal failure
Severe illness (can result in AKI, especially if also on NSAIDs)

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71
Q

Action of dihydropyridine CCBs and examples?

A

Block voltage-gated L-type calcium channels
Reduces vasoconstriction

Amlodipine, nifedipine

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72
Q

Adverse effects of CCBs?

A
Headache 
Flushing 
Peripheral oedema 
Reduced cardiac contractility 
Dizziness 
Constipation
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73
Q

Action of thiazide diurectics?

A

Block Na/Cl channels in distal convoluted tubules of kidney, preventing Na/Cl/H2O entering tubule cells

Long-term anti-hypertensive effects mainly due to vasodilation

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74
Q

Examples of thiazide diuretics and their adverse effects

A

Bendroflumethiazide
Indapamide

Electrolytes: LOW magnesium, sodium, potassium, HIGH calcium
Metabolites: HIGH glucose, uric acid (gout)
GI: disturbances
Severe: pancreatitis, cholestasis, agranulocytosis

Impotence
Frequency
TERATOGENIC

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75
Q

Alpha-1 blockers action and examples

A

Block alpha-1 adrenoreceptors in vascular smooth muscle

Reduced arteriolar tone
Venous dilation

Doxazosin

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76
Q

Adverse effects of alpha-1 blockers

A
Headaches 
Postural hypotension 
Dizziness 
Nausea 
Rhinitis 
Frequency
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77
Q

Beta blockers mechanism of action

A

Reduced renin production
Negative inotropic and chronotropic effects
Vasodilation

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78
Q

Beta blockers adverse effects

A
Cold peripheries 
Erectile dysfunction 
Bronchoconstriction/asthma exacerbation 
Postural hypotension 
Headache 
AV nodal heart block 
Hypoglycaemia 
Insomnia
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79
Q

Contraindications for beta blockers

A

Pheochromocytoma (unless given with alpha blocker - phenoxybenzamine)

Asthma

Severe peripheral arterial disease

Bradycardia (especially if with verapamil)

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80
Q

Starling equation

A

Net pressure = hydryostatic pressure - oncotic pressure (pull of proteins in blood)

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81
Q

Ohm’s law

A

Flow = change in pressure/resistance

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82
Q

Poiseulle’s law

A

Resistance (R) ∝ η x L / r4

(inversely proportional to radius^4)

OR

Flow (F) ∝ 𝚫p x r4 / η x L

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83
Q

Cardiac output =

A

stroke volume x heart rate (average of 5L)

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84
Q

What effect does the vagus nerve have on the heart?

A

Acts on SAN and AVN and contractile cells to reduce HR

SAN: Increases K+ permeability and action potential length

AVN: increases k+ permeability and AVN delay

contractile cells: reduces strength of contractions

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85
Q

What relationship does the Frank-Starling Law describe?

A

between preload (LVEDP) and stroke volume

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86
Q

Signs and symptoms of acute coronary syndrome?

A

Can be silent in MI if elderly or diabetic

Symptoms: chest pain >15 mins, SOB, sweating, nausea and vomiting

Signs: pale, clammy, hypotension, pulmonary oedema, tachycardia

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87
Q

ACS investigations

A

Bedside: obs, BP, glucose, ECG

Bloods: FBC, U&Es, TFTs, LFTs, cholesterol, Mg

Cardiac enzymes: troponin T/I, CK-MB, myoglobin

Imaging: CXR, transthoracic echo

Special: coronary angiogram

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88
Q

What changes would you see on an ECG following an MI (how do STEMI, NSTEMI and unstable angina differ)?

A
STEMI:
minutes-hours: hyperacute T waves
0-12 hours: STEMI 
1-12 hours: Q wave development 
Days: T wave inversion 
Weeks: T wave normalisation and persistent Q waves

NSTEMI and UA: may have signs of MI, T wave inversion or no changes

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89
Q

When can you measure troponins after MI? And when else might you see them raised?

A

6-12 hours (usually 8 hours rise)
New tests can be done 3 hours after event
Prognostic value

CKD,PE

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90
Q

Immediate management of ACS

A

MONA

IV morphine (2.5-5mg) + anti-emetic (10mg metoclopramide)

Oxygen (if <94%) - 15l/min via high flow non-rebreather mask

GTN

Aspirin 300mg

(+ metoclopramide)

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91
Q

Hospital management of STEMI

A

Aspirin + second antiplatelet (clopidogrel, prasugrel or ticagrelor) –> PCI within 120 mins –> LMWH

Fibrinolysis (alteplase) –> PCI 6-24 hours

Lifelong aspirin, 12 months of second antiplatelet

IV glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists (eptifibatide or tirofiban) if 6-month mortality >3%

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92
Q

How should UA or NSTEMI be managed according to GRACE scoring?

A

High risk (>3%):

  1. Angiography within 72 hours (fondaparinux if not possible);
  2. dual antiplatelet (lifelong aspirin and 12 months clopidogrel)
  3. if chest pain continues - glycoprotein inhibitor (IV eptifibatide, or tirofiban)
  4. PCI if chest pain continues

Medium risk (1.5-3%): dual antiplatelet

Low risk (<1.5%): lifelong aspirin only

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93
Q

What are the 8 factors considered in GRACE scoring and what does it estimate?

A
Age 
Heart rate 
CHF 
Renal function 
Elevated biomarkers 
ST segment deviation 
Cardiac arrest 
Systolic BP

6 month mortality risk in patients with NSTEMI or UA

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94
Q

Long-term management of ACS

A

Beta blocker and ACE-i (if not contraindicated) - bisoprolol and ramipril up to 10mg

Dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin and clopidogrel 75mg OD)

Artorvastatin 80mg OD

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95
Q

Cardiac complications of MI

A

Pericarditis (autoimmune - Dressler’s syndrome 2-10 weeks after)

Mitral regurgitation (secondary to ischaemia and rupture of papillary muscles) - systolic murmur

Complete heart block (AV node ischaemia from right coronary artery occlusion)

Ventricular tachycardia

HF

Recurrent MI

Thromboembolism
Ventricular aneurysm

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96
Q

What effect does COX enzyme have?

A

Production of prostaglandins and thromboxane A2 –> platelet aggregation

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97
Q

Acute pericarditis vs STEMI ECG changes?

A

Pericarditis:
widespread ST changes
PR depression
saddle-shaped ST elevation

STEMI
ST elevation greater in III than II
Convex or horizontal ST elevation
ST depression in leads other than aVR or V1

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98
Q

Most common cause of acute pericarditis? Treatment?

A

Viral secondary to coxsackie B infection

NSAIDs and colchicine

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99
Q

Which artery are most inferior MIs supplied by, and what leads will be affected? What other artery may be occluded in other patients?

A

Right Coronary Artery
II, III, aVF

Circumflex will sometimes supply posterior descending artery

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100
Q

Three stages of atherosclerosis

A
  1. Endothelial damage: LDL deposits under epothelium which are oxidised and cause more damage. Monocyte recruitment to tunica intima
  2. Plaque formation: monocytes become macrophages (lipid-laden = foam cells), multiple foam cells - fatty streak. Muscle cells from tunica media migrate and cover to form lipid rich atheroma with plaque on top
  3. Plaque rupture: leads to platelet aggregation and vessel occlusion
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101
Q

Artery occluded in posterior MI and ECG changes?

A

Left circumflex artery or RCA

ST DEPRESSION V1-V3
Tall R waves V1 and V2; upright T waves

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102
Q

Anterior MI artery

A

Left coronary artery

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103
Q

Anteroseptal MI artery and leads affected

A

LAD

V1-V3

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104
Q

Lateral MI - which artery and leads are affected?

A

left circumflex

Leads I, aVL and V4-V6

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105
Q

When does CK peak following MI, and what is it useful to assess?

A

24 hour peak

Recognition of re-infarction

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106
Q

Contraindications of fibrinolysis

A
Absolute: 
Active bleeding 
Bleeding disorder 
Previous haemorrhagic stroke 
Ischaemic stroke last 6 months 
Recent major surgery or head trauma 
Suspected aortic dissection 
CNS neoplasm 
Relative:
anticoagulation 
peptic ulcer 
pregnancy or less than 1 week postpartum 
TIA in preceding 6 months 
Recent trauma/surgery last 2 months 
infective endocarditis
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107
Q

Dressler’s syndrome features and treatment

A
1-4 weeks post MI
Low grade fever 
Sharp chest pain 
Raised ESR 
Pericardial rub and pericardial effusion 

Tx: NSAIDs or steroids

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108
Q

Signs and symptoms of left ventricular heart failure

A
Symptoms:
Dyspnoea 
Wheeze 
Cough 
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea 
Orthopnoea 
Nocturnal cough (pink froth)
Haemoptysis 
Fatigue and lethargy
Exercise intolerance 
Signs:
Tachypnoea and cardia
Cyanosis 
Pulsus alternans 
S3 (gallop rhythm)
Inspiratory basal crackles 
Pleural effusion 
Cardiomegaly
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109
Q

Signs and symptoms of right ventricular heart failure

A
Symptoms:
abdominal discomfort 
fatigue 
nausea 
peripheral oedema 
Signs:
tachycardia 
hepatomegaly 
ascites 
cachaxia 
cardiomegaly 
raised JVP 
pitting oedema 
right ventricular heave
110
Q

Signs and symptoms of aortic stenosis

A

SAD (syncope, angina, dyspnoea)

Epistaxis (acquired von Willebrand’s)

Signs:
Ejection systolic murmur (low-pitched in second right intercostal space)
Sustained apex, thrill 
Slow rising pulse 
Narrow pulse pressure 
Soft S2 if severe 
S4 sign of LVH
Reversed splitting
111
Q

Causes of aortic stenosis

A

Calcification - >65s, most common cause

Bicuspid valve - congenital, <65s, turbulent flow leads to stenosis and calcification

Rheumatic heart disease - post-Strep A autoimmune condition leading to inflammation

112
Q

What compensatory changes do you see in the heart in aortic stenosis?

A

Increased left ventricular hypertrophy
Increased pressure gradient across the valve
Left ventricular heart failure (bibasal crackles and dyspnoea)
Exertional syncope
Angina due to increased O2 demands from the heart and reduced coronary flow

113
Q

Investigations for suspected aortic stenosis

A

Bedside:
BP
ECG: LVH (deep S-waves in V1 and V2, tall R-waves V5 and V6)

Bloods: FBC, U&Es, cholesterol, clotting

Imaging:
CXR - typically small heart, but cardiomegaly if HF occurs; dilated ascending aorta - can be normal!avl
Transthoracic Echo - ejection fraction, valve area, ventricular hypertrophy

Special:
Cardiac catheterisation
Cardiac MRI
ECG exercise stress testing

114
Q

How is the severity of aortic stenosis assessed?

A

Transaortic pressure

Aortic valve area

115
Q

Management of aortic stenosis

A

Surgery in severe or symptomatic cases

Valvotomy - percutaneous ballon or open (forces valve leaflets apart)

Valvular replacement:
Mechanical - for younger patients, long lifespan, lifelong anti-coagulation

Bioprosthetic - older, no anti-coagulation needed, 10 year lifespan

TRANSCATHETER AORTIC VALVE REPLACEMENT (TAVR) if open surgery not indicated

116
Q

Complications of aortic stenosis

A

Sudden death
Infective endocarditis
Arrhythmias
Cardiac failure

117
Q

How might you distinguish aortic stenosis from sclerosis?

A

Sclerosis: normal pulse, normal heart sounds, quiet and soft murmur

118
Q

Most common effected areas in infective endocarditis

A

Left sided native or prosthetic valves
Right sided native valves
Devices e.g. pacemaker or defibrillator

119
Q

Angiotensin II receptor blockers - side effects

A

Hypotension

Hyperkalaemia

120
Q

What is first degree heart block?

A

PR interval >0.2s

Commonly asymptomatic and no need for intervention

121
Q

What is second degree heart block?

A

Mobitz i: progressive prolongation of PR interval until a dropped beat (no QRS) [Wenckebach]

Mobitz ii: normal PR interval, but P-wave often not followed by QRS complex

122
Q

What is third degree heart block?

A

Complete heart block

No association between P-wave and QRS complex

123
Q

Characteristics of cardiac tamponade

A

Beck’s triad: muffled heart sounds, hypotension, raised JVP

Dyspnoea
Tachycardia
Absent Y descent on JVP due to limited R ventricular filling
Pulsus paradoxus (abnormal BP drop on inspiration)
ECG: electrical alternans (alternating QRS heights)

124
Q

Signs and symptoms of acute pericarditis

A
Chest pain, may be pleuritic - relieved on sitting forward 
Dyspnoea 
Tachypnoea 
Tachycardia 
Pericardial rub 
Non-productive cough
125
Q

Causes of acute pericarditis

A
Coxsackie (+ varicella, influenza, mumps)
Dressler's syndrome (post-MI)
Uraemia (fibrinous pericarditis)
TB 
Hypothyroidism 
Trauma 
Malignancy 
Connective tissue disease (RA, SLE)
126
Q

70-year-old woman is found to have a pan-systolic murmur after presenting with dyspnoea. A soft S1 and split S2 is also noted

A

Mitral regurgitation

127
Q

Risk factors for mitral regurgitation?

A
Female 
Older 
Collagen disorders (Marfan's, Ehler-Dalnos) 
Low BMI 
Renal dysfunction 
MI
Mitral prolapse or stenosis
128
Q

Causes of mitral regurgitation?

A

MI (damage/ischaemia to papillary muscle or chordae tendenae)

Infective endocarditis

Rheumatic heart disease

Mitral valve prolapse

Congenital

129
Q

Signs and symptoms of mitral regurgitation

A

Fatigue, SOB, oedema

Soft S1 (incomplete closure of mitral valve)
Split S2 if severe 
Pansystolic murmur (blowing) over apex and radiating to axilla
130
Q

Mitral regurgitation investigations

A

BP
ECG: broad P-waves (atrial enlargement)

CXR: cardiomegaly

Transthoracic Echo - assessment of severity

131
Q

Management of mitral regurgitation

A

Nitrates, diuretics, positive inotropes, intra-aortic balloon pump (increases cardiac output)

HF: ACE-i, beta blockers, spironolactone
§
Severe - surgery (either repair or valve replacement)

132
Q

What is aortic dissection?

A

Tear in the tunic intima of the wall of the aorta

133
Q

What is aortic dissection associated with?

A
Hypertension 
Trauma 
Syphilis 
Collagen disorders (Marfen's, Ehlers-Danlos)
Bicuspid aortic valve 
Pregnancy 
Turner's and Noonan's
134
Q

Features of aortic dissection

A

Tearing chest pain radiating to back
Aortic regurgitation
HTN
Absent subclavian pulse
Carotid dissection
Specific arteries (angina from coronary, paraplegia from spinal, limb ischaemia from distal aorta)
Rarely ECG changes (sometimes ST elevation)

135
Q

Types of aortic dissection

A

Stanford A: ascending (2/3s)

Stanford B: descending

136
Q

Which drugs can lead to gout?

A

Loop diuretics
Thiazides
Pyrazinamide

137
Q

What ECG changes would you see in a PE?

A

SINUS TACHYCARDIA
RBBB
Right axis deviation
Inverted T waves

138
Q

How does the New York Health Association classify heart failure?

A

Class I-IV based on exercise ability (normal - unable without discomfort); and symptoms (none - at rest)

139
Q

What is the difference between systolic and diastolic heart failure?

A

Systolic: reduced LV ejection fraction (pumping out reduced proportion of its blood), ventricular dilatation

Diastolic: HF with preserved ejection fraction, ventricular hypertrophy

140
Q

Main causes of heart failure

A

Vascular: previous infarction; hypertension

Electrical: arrhythmias (leading to cardiac compensation)

Muscular: dilated cardiomyopathy, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, congenital heart disease

Valvular: stenosis or regurgitation

High-output: anaemia, thyrotoxicosis, septicaemia, liver failure - leading to reduced peripheral resistance

141
Q

What is the Frank-Starling law?

A

Increased preload (stretching of myocytes) leads to increased contractility (i.e. stroke volume)

This is up to a point. After preload increases to a certain threshold, stroke volume plateaus and then decreases

142
Q

What are the main determinants of stroke volume?

A

Preload
Cardiac contractility
Afterload (pressure against which the ventricles must contract)

143
Q

Signs and symptoms of heart failure

A

Symptoms:
Resp - SOB, orthopnoea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, wheeze
General - fatigue, ankle swelling, abdominal pain, weight loss, cachexia

Signs:
Raised JVP, peripheral oedema, bibasal crackles, hepatomegaly, ascites, displaced apex, S3/S4, pulsus alternans

144
Q

What urgent investigation would you do in suspected HF, and in which cases would you carry it out?

A

Echocardiogram <2 weeks

Patients with: previous MI, severe symptoms, BNP >400, evidence of valvular disease or renal dysfunction

145
Q

General investigations in patients with suspected HF

A

Bedside: BP, ECG (LVH, infarct), urinalysis (renal dysfunction)

Bloods: FBC (exclude anaemia or infection), U&Es (exclude renal causes of odema), TFTs (exclude thyrotoxicosis), cholesterol and HbA1c (CV risk stratification), LFTs (exclude liver failure), BNP

Imaging: CXR, echo

Special: cardiac catheterisation, cardiac biopsy, 24 hour ECG, lung function tests

146
Q

What might you see on a CXR in a patient with HF?

A

Alveolar oedema (perihilar shadowing)
Kerley B (fluid in septae of secondary lobules)
Cardiomegaly
Upper lobe Diversion
Pleural Effusion (blunting of costrophrenic angle)

147
Q

Lifestyle modifications for a patient with HF

A

Patient education
Smoking, weight, diet, sexual and travel advice
One-off pneumococcal vaccine and annual flu vaccine

148
Q

What condition is classically associated with S4?

A

hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

149
Q

What heart condition does alcohol abuse commonly cause?

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy

150
Q

Management of HF

A

ACE-i (ramipril 1.25mg OD - 5mg BD) - check renal function

Beta blockers (bisoprolol 1.25mg OD) - double dose every 4 weeks untel target reached; NOT IN BRADY, ASTHMA, COPD or PULMONARY OEDEMA

+/- spironolactone

If still symptomatic then consider:
Hydralazine + nitrate (esp if Afro)
ARB

If still symptomatic:

  • digoxin
  • cardiac resynchronisation therapy
151
Q

Management of heart failure with preserved ejection fraction

A

Loop diuretics for symptom control

Address co-morbidities and underlying causes

152
Q

Management of acute pulmonary oedema

A

FOND

Furosemide 40mg
O2 high-flow
Nitrates
Diamorphine

153
Q

What is considered a normal ejection fraction?

A

55-70%

154
Q

What is cor pulmonale and what are its causes?

A

Abnormal enlargement and dysfunction of right side of the heart due to pulmonary hypertension

PE
COPD
Pulmonary fibrosis

155
Q

Causes of LBBB

A

Cardiomyopathy
Aortic stenosis
IHD
HTN

156
Q

Treatment of severe bradycardia with signs of shock?

A

IV atropine 500mcg boluses

Transcutaneous pacing if necessary

157
Q

Causes of S3

A

Normal if <30 (<50 for women)
Left ventricular failure
Constrictive pericarditis
Mitral regurgitation

158
Q

Causes of S4

A

HOCM
Aortic stenosis
HTN

159
Q

Management if patient on warfarin has INR 5-8 (no bleeding)

A

Withhold two doses warfarin

Reduce subsequent maintenance dose

160
Q

Causes of RBBB

A
Right ventricular hypertrophy 
PE 
Increased right ventricular pressure (cor pulmonale) 
MI
Atrial septal defect 
Myocarditis or cardiomyopathy
161
Q

Management of a patient on warfarin due to undergo surgery

A

If can wait 6-8 hours give IV Vit K

If emergency: four-factor prothrombin factor complex

162
Q

Major and minor criteria of rheumatic heart disease (2 major/1 major and 2 minor)

A
Major: 
Erythema marginatum (pink rings on torso or inner limb surfaces)
Sydenham's chorea (late)
Polyarthritis 
Carditis and valvulitis 
Subcutaneous nodules 
Minor:
Raised ESR/CRP 
Pyrexia 
Arthralgia 
Prolonged PR interval
163
Q

Treatment of rheumatic heart disease

A

IM Benzylpenicillin
Admit and bed rest
10 day penicillin (long-term)
Aspirin as needed

164
Q

Cause of mitral stenosis

A

RHEUMATIC HEART FEVER

165
Q

Features of mitral stenosis

A
Mid-diastolic murmur (low-rumbling)
Tapping apex (non-displaced) 
Malar flush 
AF
Loud S1, opening snap 
Low volume pulse
166
Q

Mitral stenosis CXR and ECG features

A

CXR: left atrial enlargement

ECG: bifid p waves or absent p waves

167
Q

Most common cause of death following MI? What management would you consider for such patients

A

Cardiogenic shock (but actually VF)

Inoptropic support
Coronary angiography
Echo
Surgical intervention

168
Q

Common causes of cardiogenic shock following MI?

A

Damage to ventricular myocardium leading to reduced ejection fraction

Left ventricular free wall rupture

169
Q

What initial tests would you perform in someone with suspected pericarditis?

A

ECG (may be normal in 10%)
Echo (pericardial effusion)
Troponin (exclude MI or show myocardial involvement)

170
Q

Complications of acute pericarditis

A
Chronic pericarditis 
Cardiac tamponade (due to pericardial effusion)
171
Q

Management of VSD and shock post-MI

A
Inotropic support 
Intra-aortic balloon pump
Analgesia 
Consider angiogram 
Positive pressure ventilation 
Transfer to cardiothoracic unit 
Swann-Ganz pulmonary artery catheter
172
Q

Normal pressures and oxygen sats in heart chambers

A

RA: 0-4mmHg (70%)
RV: 20/0-4mmHg (70%)

LV: 105/0-5 (95-100%)

173
Q

Antibiotic management of infective endocarditis (for each organism)

A

Empirical: benpen, gentamicin
Strep: benpen and amoxicillin
Staph: fluclox and gentamicin
Aspergillus: miconazole

174
Q

Definition of supraventricular tachycardia?

A

Narrow complex tachycardia

175
Q

Acute and long-term management of SVT

A

Acute:
Vagal manoeuvres (valsalva, carotid sinus massage)
IV adenosine - 6mg, 12mg, 12mg (verapamil if asthmatic)
Electrical cardioversion

Long-term:
Beta-blocker
Radio-frequency ablation

176
Q

What manoeuvres can patients use to terminate SVT attacks?

A

Head in icy water
Pressing on eyeballs
Finger down throat

All stimulate vagus nerve, slowing AV node conduction

177
Q

What kind of tachy is Wolf-Parkinson-White and what are the ECG findings?

A

Atrioventricular re-entry tachy

Wide QRS with Delta waves (slurred upstroke)
Left axis deviation in most cases
Short PR

178
Q

Associations of WPW and treatment

A
HOCM 
Thyrotoxicosis 
Mitral valve prolapse  
Ebstein anomaly 
ASD

Tx:
Radio-frequency ablation (definitive)
Sotalol (not if AF), flecainide, amiodarone

179
Q

Anterolateral MI leads and artery?

A

V2, V3, I and aVL

180
Q

Investigations for suspected aortic dissection

A

Bloods
BP both arms (20mmHg difference)

ECG: any ischaemia, right heart strain or AF in PE

CXR: widened mediastinum

CT thoracic aorta: quantify damage and assess for possible repair

181
Q

Immediate management of aortic dissection

A

Admit to intensive care

Antihypertensives (reduce BP and HR) - IV sodium nitroprusside, beta blocker

Oxygen and analgesia

Surgery

182
Q

Definitive treatment of type A and B aortic dissections

A

A: median sternotomy and cardiopulmonary bypass for aortic root repair/replacement
CONTRAINDICATED - evolving CVA or renal failure

B: BP control (surgery if aortic expansion evidence)

183
Q

ECG changes in LVH

A

V1 or V2 S wave >30mm

V5 or V6 R wave >30mm

184
Q

What might lead to a false LVH diagnosis?

A

Obesity
Emphysema
Pericardial effusion
Young people with thin chest walls

185
Q

Marfan’s syndrome features

A
Tall and long limbed 
High arched palate 
Pes planus 
Pectus excavatum 
Aortic dilation (aortic aneurysm, dissection, regurgitation, mitral prolapse)
Upwards lens dislocation, blue sclera, myopia
Arachnodactyly 
Scoliosis 
Pneumothoraces
186
Q

Most common cause of death in HOCM and what is the hereditary pattern?

A

Arrhythmia

Autosomal dominant

187
Q

HOCM features

A

AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT
Exertional dyspnoea and angina
Syncope following exercise
Ejection systolic murmur
Arrhythmia
Sudden death (ventricular arrhythmia, arrhythmia, HF)
Jerky pulse, large a waves, bisferiens (double beat)

188
Q

Echo and ECG features of HOCM

A

Echo (MR SAM ASH)
Mitral Regurgitation
Systolic Anterior Motion of the mitral valve leaflet
Asymmetric hypertrophy

ECG
ST and T wave changes, progressive T wave inversion
Deep Q waves
AF

189
Q

Management of HOCM

A
Amiodarone
Beta blocker
Cardiac defibrilator 
Dual chamber pacemaker 
Endocarditis prophylaxis
190
Q

Drugs to avoid in HOCM

A

ACE-i
Nitrates
Inotropes

191
Q

How should suspected DVT be investigated if Wells’ score is >/=2 points?

A

Arrange leg vein ultrasound within 4 hours

If negative, take D-dimer

If US not possible in 4 hours, carry out D-dimer and give LMWH while waiting for US within 24 hours

192
Q

How should DVT/PE be managed?

A

Initial LMWH or fondaparinux - continued for 5 days or until INR is >2 for at least 24 hours (6 months if active cancer)

Warfarin (or other vitamin K antagonist) within 24 hours - continued for 3 months and then reassessed (extended if unprovoked DVT and no bleeding risk)

Thrombolysis if massive PE (hypotensive etc)

193
Q

What investigations would you carry out for a patient with an unprovoked DVT?

A

Cancer Ix:
Full examination, CXR, bloods (FBC, calcium, LFTs) and consider abdo-pelvic CT/mammogram if >40

Antiphospholipid antibodies (Hughes/APS)
Hereditary thrombophilia screening
194
Q

What is taken into consideration when deciding a dose for LMWH?

A

Weight of patient

Renal function

195
Q

How is heparin monitored?

A

Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT)

196
Q

Causes of sinus bradycardia

A
Athletics 
Hypothyroidism 
Hypothermia 
Legionnaire's, typhoid
MI
197
Q

Investigations for infective endocarditis

A
ECG 
Echo 
Blood cultures (3 sets) - from peripheral vein 
MC&amp;S
US abdomen (possible splenic infarcts)
198
Q

Complications of infective endocarditis

A
TIA 
Complete heart block 
AKI 
HF 
Vertebral osteomyelitis
199
Q

Risk factors for infective endocarditis

A
Miscarriage 
IVDU 
Prosthetic heart valve 
Chronic cholecystitis 
Pneumonia 
Colonic malignancy
200
Q

What are the two contraindications for statins

A
Pregnancy 
Macrolide antibiotics (risk of rhabdomyolosis)
201
Q

Causes of cardiac arrest

A

Hypoxia
Hypovolaemia
Hyperkalaemia, hypokalaemia, hypocalcaemia, hypoglycaemia, acidaemia
Hypothermia

Thrombosis
Tension pneumothorax
Tamponade
Toxins

202
Q

Action of loop diuretics and examples?

A

Inhibit Na-K-Cl transporter in ascending loop of Henle

Furosemide, bumetanide

203
Q

Treatment of stable angina?

A

BETA BLOCKER (or CCB unless HF)

+ Aspirin and simvastatin

204
Q

Normal QRS range

A

80-100ms

205
Q

Features of coarctation of the aorta

A

HF/HTN
Poor feeding
Lethargy, SOB
Hypoperfusion of lower extremities - weakened femoral pulses
Notching of inferior border of ribs
Systolic murmur loudest at left sternal border
Apical click

Associated with: 
Turner's 
Bicuspid aortic valve 
Neurofibromatosis 
Berry aneurysms
206
Q

First-line investigation for PE, and when is it contraindicated>

A

CT pulmonary angiogram

contraindicated if renal impairment as contrast is nephrotoxic - carry out V/Q (ventilation-perfusion) scan instead

Pulmonary angiography gold standard but significant complications

207
Q

What is the DRAGON score used for?

A

3-month outcome in ischaemic stroke patients receiving tissue plasminogen activator

208
Q

Indications for urgent surgical valve replacement in infective endocarditis?

A

Severe congestive heart failure
Overwhelming sepsis despite Abx
Pregnancy
Recurrent embolic episodes despite abx

209
Q

What ECG changes might you see in a patient with a pulmonary embolism?

A

SINUS TACHYCARDIA

Large S wave lead I
Large Q wave lead III
Inverted T wave lead III
S1Q3T3
RBBB
210
Q

Causes of raised proBNP

A
Renal dysfunction 
Age >70 
LVH 
Ischaemia 
Hypoxaemia (PE)
Sepsis 
COPD 
Liver cirrhosis 
Diabetes
211
Q

What drugs can cause a prolonged QT interval?

A
TCAs
Sotalol 
Amiodarone 
Chloroquine 
Erythromycin
212
Q

What conditions can cause a prolonged QT interval?

A

Hypo - calcaemia, kalaemia, magnesaemia

MI
Myocarditis
SAH
Hypothermia

213
Q

Management of ventricular tachycardia

A

If adverse signs (<90 systolic BP, chest pain, HF) - immediate cardioversion

Amiodarone (central line)
Lidocaine (not if severe LV impairment)

Electrical cardioversion if these fail

Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator

214
Q

Management of coarctation of the aorta in newborn

A

IV prostaglandins to keep patent ductus arteriosus

Surgical correction

215
Q

How is angina diagnosed?

A
  1. Constrictive pain in chest, neck, shoulders, jaw or arms
  2. Worsened by physical exertion
  3. Relieved within 5 mins by GTN
3 = typical angina 
2= atypical angina 
1 = non-anginal pain
216
Q

Investigations for typical/atypica angina

A

1st line: CT coronary angiography
2nd line: non-invasive functional imaging (e.g. stress echo, MRI)
3rd line: invasive coronary angiography

217
Q

When would you refer a patient with acute chest pain?

A

Current or within last 12 hours - emergency admission

12-72 hours ago - same-day admission

> 72 hours - ECG and full assessment with troponin before deciding

218
Q

Adverse effects of statins

A

Myopathies: rhabdomyolysis, myalgia, myositis

Liver impairment (must check baseline, 3 and 12 month LFTs): only stop statin if transaminise rises and persists at 3 times normal

Avoid if hx of cerebral haemorrhage

219
Q

What is pulsus paradoxus and in whom would you see it?

A

Drop of systolic BP by 10mmHg on inspiration

Seen with cardiac tamponade and asthma

220
Q

Features of Takayasu’s arteritis, and what is its management?

A
ASIAN FEMALES
Systemic arteritis features - headache, malaise 
Unequal BP in both arms 
Absent limb pulses
Renal artery stenosis associated 
Carotid bruit 
Aortic regurgitation 
Claudication 

Mx: steroids

221
Q

Features of hypokalaemia on an ECG

A

Prolonged PR
U waves
Small or absent T wave
Long QT

222
Q

Causes of hypokalaemia with and without HTN

A

HTN:
Cushings, Conn’s, Liddle’s syndrome

Without:
Diuretics, renal tubular acidosis, GI loss (diarrhoea/vomiting)

223
Q

Features of hypokalaemia

A

Muscle weakness, hypotonia

Predisposition to digoxin toxicity - take care if giving digoxin to a patient on diuretics

224
Q

Hypercalcaemia features on ECG

A

Short QT

J (osborne) waves

225
Q

Adverse effects of loop diuretics

A

LOW sodium, calcium, potassium, magnesium, chloride (alkalosis)
Ototoxicity
Hypotension
Gout
Renal impairment (dehydration and direct toxic effect)

226
Q

What valvular disease is associated with PCOS?

A

Mitral valve prolapse

227
Q

How many days before a surgery should warfarin be stopped, and what should INR be less than?

A

5 days before

<1.5 INR

228
Q

Management of aortic stenosis patients?

A

Aortic valve replacement if symptomatic or >40mmHg aortic valve gradient

229
Q

What are the Levine grades of murmur?

A

1: faint murmur
2: slight murmur
3: moderate murmur without palpable thrill
4: loud with palpable thrill
5: very loud with extremely palpable thrill and heard with stethoscope edge
6: can hear with stethoscope off the chest

230
Q

Takotsubo cardiomyopathy features

A

Crushing central chest pain following severely stressful event

Echo: apical ballooning of myocardium (octopus pot)

231
Q

What ECG changes are indications for immediate thrombolysis or PCI?

A

ST elevation of >1mm (one small square) in at least two consecutive inferior leads II, III, avF, avR
LBBB
ST elevation of >2mm in 2 or more consecutive anterior leads

232
Q

Management of orthostatic hypotension

A

Lifestyle measures - adequate salt and hydration

Compression stockings

Fludrocortisone (increases sodium reabsorption and plasma volume) or midodrine

Counter-pressure manoeuvres and head-tilt sleeping

233
Q

What is Eisenmenger’s syndrome?

A

Reversal of a left to right shunt once the right ventricle is so large it overcomes the pressure in the left leading to cyanosis. Child comes in cyanosed with haemoptysis, RVF, having had pansystolic murmur at birth.

Associated with uncorrected ASD, VSD and patent ductus arteriosus

Managed by lung-heart transplant

234
Q

What heart condition are alcoholics predisposed to?

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy (dilated left ventricle, <40% left ventricle ejection fraction)

235
Q

ECG changes with hypothermia

A
Prolonged PR, QT and QRS
J waves 
Brady <60bpm 
Shivering artefacts 
VT, VF, asystole <16 degrees
236
Q

Bus or lorry driver post-MI going back to work

A

Must notify DVLA and stay off work for 6 weeks. DVLA will then determine safety to return

237
Q

Target INR for a patient who has suffered more than one PE

A

3.5

238
Q

Broad complex tachycardia following MI and drop in BP

A

Ventricular tachycardia

239
Q

66-year-old woman suddenly develops dyspnoea 10 days after having an anterior myocardial infarction. Her blood pressure is 78/50 mmHg, JVP is elevated and the heart sounds are muffled. There are widespread crackles on her chest and the oxygen saturations are 84% on room air.

A

Left ventricular free wall rupture

240
Q

Orthostatic hypotension diagnosis

A

> 20mmHg drop in systolic or >10mmHg drop in diastolic after 3 mins of standing

241
Q

Young male smoker with painful hands and feet, cold and pale extremities (Raynaud’s) and ulcers

A

Buerger’s syndrome

242
Q

Features of constrictive pericarditis

A

JVP with X + Y descent
positive Kussmaul’s (rise in JVP on inspiration)
Dyspnoea, RHF signs (oedema, hepatomegaly, ascites)
Pericardial knock (loud S3)

CXR: pericardial calcification

243
Q

What investigations must you do for a patient starting on a statin?

A

LFTs baseline, 3 and 12 months

244
Q

DVLA advice post MI

A

cannot drive for 4 weeks

245
Q

First line test for coronary artery disease?

A

CT angiogram

246
Q

Immediate management of MI

A

Dual antiplatelet therapy - Aspirin + clopidogrel/ticagrelor

Morphine + metoclopramide (antiemetic)

Anticoagulation for 24-72 hours: heparin/fondaparinux

Angiography (within 24 hours for STEMI, 72 hours for NSTEMI)

247
Q

How to treat bradycardia

A

Pacemaker

248
Q

Commonest cause of leg pain following bypass surgery?

A

Reperfusion

249
Q

What is required prior to giving a CT angiogram?

A
Beta blocker (lowers heart rate before scan)
U&amp;Es - ensure renal function before giving CT contrast
250
Q

Diagnosis of rheumatic heart disease?

A

ASO titre

251
Q

How many small squares on an ECG is 1 second?

A

25mm

252
Q

P waves in normal sinus?

A

Positive in I, II and avF

Negative in avR

253
Q

Sinus arrhythmia

A

Increased HR on inspiration, decreases on expiration
Regularly irregular

Still fulfils criteria for sinus rhythm

254
Q

Characteristics of premature atrial complex on an ECG?

A

Positive p wave (lead II)
Narrow QRS
Different morphology of p wave

255
Q

Premature junctional complex characteristics

A

Absent or inverted p wave (II)

Narrow QRS

256
Q

Premature ventricular complex characteristics

A

Wide qrs
No p wave
T wave opposite to r wave

257
Q

Sinus brady characteristics ecg

A

narrow qrs
p wave present
HR <60

258
Q

SVT characteristics ecg

A

HR >150
Indistinguishable p wave
Narrow qrs
Regular

259
Q

Atrial flutter ecg characteristics

A

Sawtooth p waves >250
Narrow qrs
Often 2:1 ratio (can be confused with SVT)

260
Q

Junctional arrhythmia ecg

A

40-60 HR
Absent/inverted p wave
Narrow qrs

261
Q

When would you not treat AF with BB and CCB?

A

If patient has CHF - treat instead with digoxin and amiodarone

262
Q

Which patients should you not start on ACE-i for blood pressure?

A

Non-diabetics over55
Afro-Carribean

Women expecting to get pregnant

263
Q

Definitive management of WPW syndrome?

A

Radiofrequency ablation of the accessory pathway

Medical: sotalol, amiodarone, flecainide

264
Q

Treatment of torsades de pointes

A

Magnesium sulphate

265
Q
Cause of 
J waves
U waves
Delta waves
Q wave
A

J wave: hypothermia and hypercalcaemia
U wave: hypokalaemia
Delat wave: WPW
Q wave: previous MI

266
Q

Causes of ejection systolic murmur

A
Pulmonary stenosis 
Aortic stenosis 
HOCM 
Tetralogy of Fallot 
Atrial septal defect
267
Q

When should you prescribe anticoagulation to a patient following a stroke?

A

2 weeks after the event (as long as haemorrhage excluded)

268
Q

Most important causes of ventricular tachy

A

Hypokalaemia

Hypomagnesaemia

269
Q

Normal PR interval?

A

3-5 small squares

270
Q

Normal QRS interval

A

3 small squares

271
Q

Next investigation if BNP is high in patient with suspected heart failure?

A

Transthoracic echo