Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PANCE Key Terms > Cardiology > Flashcards

Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

What side effect might make a patient stop taking an ACEI?

A

Cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define orthostatic hypotension

A

A drop in systolic BP of >20 mmhg when standing up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

You feel a pulse that seems to be vibrating, what term do you use to describe it?

A

Thrill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are three things in your differential if you have a paradoxical pulse?

A

Cardiac tamponade, pericarditis, obstructive Lung disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

On palpating, what size is normal for the aorta?

A

Less than 3cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A fixed consistent split S2 should make you think of what diagnosis?

A

Atrial septal defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A pathological S3 is most commonly associated with what diagnosis?

A

CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If you hear a midsystolic click you should immediately be thinking about what diagnosis?

A

Mitral stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

An opening snap on auscultation should make you think of what diagnosis?

A

Mitral stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A continuous murmur most likely involves what area of the heart?

A

Most likely a septal defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

You hear an continuous machine-like murmur, why is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Patent ductus arteriosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

List three medications which may be used for pharmological stress test

A

Adenosine, dobutamine, dipyridamole, Persantine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing CAD?

A

Cardiac catheterization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define stage I HTN according to JNC 7

A

Systolic: 140-159
Diastolic: 90-99

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the treatment goal for a diabetic with HTN?

A

130/80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the MCC of secondary HTN?

A

CKD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

No matter what medicaitons you use you are having trouble keeping a patient’s BP under control. You also notice hyperpigmented skin and truncal obesity. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Cushing’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

List three S/S which will likely be included in a description of a patient with a pheochromocytoma

A

thin, diaphoretic, tachycardic, agitated, hypertensive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

You have a patient with a diagnosis of pheochromocytoma, while waiting for surgery, should you use an alpha or beta blocker?

A

Alpha blocker, NEVER use pure beta blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A young boy comes to you office. He has an elevated BP but no femoral pulses can be palpated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Coarctation of the aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

according to the CDC, what is the range for a normal BMI?

A

18.5-24.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the first line medication treatment for stage I HTN?

A

Thiazide diuretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

After a thiazide diuretic, what medication should you start in a hypertensive patient who also has DM?

A

ACEI or ARB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Following an MI, what medication should be prescribed to treat HTN?

A

Beta Blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea should make you think of what diagnosis?

A

CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the most common cause of CHF?

A

CAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What ejection fraction is typical for a patient with CHF

A

35-40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis for a young man who experiences sudden death while playing sports?

A

Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Bat wing vessels or Kerley B links on a CXR should make you think of what diagnosis?

A

CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

a BNP below what level rules out CHF?

A

<100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the therapeutic range for INR following a mechanical valve replacement?

A

2.5-3.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the first line IV inotropic agent when dealing with cardiogenic shock?

A

Dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What diagnosis is most likely in an IV drug user with a nre heart murmur and fever

A

Endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

List two diagnoses which require antibiotic prophylaxis for “dirty procedures”

A

prosthetic valve, valve repair with any prosthetic material, prior endocarditis, congenital cyanotic heart defect

35
Q

Does a patient with mitral valve prolapse require prophylactic antibiotics for dental work?

A

No, recent change move mitral valve prolapse from high risk to medium risk

36
Q

What are the three major criteria for endocarditis

A

2 positive blood cultures, positive transesophageal echo, new murmur

37
Q

Which are painful and found on the fingers and toes, osler nodes or janeway lesions?

A

osler nodes

38
Q

list the 4 minor criteria for diagnosing enodcarditis

A

fever, embolic event, immunological event, 1 positive blood culture

39
Q

What are the 5 components of tetralogy of fallot?

A

overriding aorta, RVH, ventricular septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, right sided aortic arch

40
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing myocarditis?

A

Myocardial biopsy

41
Q

Where do most aortic dissections occur?

A

the ascending or descending thoracic aorta

42
Q

a patient complains of severe pleuritic CP that is relived with sitting and leaning forward. what is the most likely diagnosis?

A

pericarditis

43
Q

What is the first line medical treatment for pericarditis?

A

aspirin and NSAIDs

44
Q

What is the name of the syndrome that involves pericarditis several days after a MI?

A

Dressler syndrome

45
Q

A patient presents to the ED with CP, an EKG shows diffuse ST elevations in almost all of the leads, what is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Pericarditis

46
Q

Define paradoxical pulse

A

there is a large difference in pulse pressure between inhalation and exhalation

47
Q

define pulses alternans

A

EKG waveform changes from beat to beat

48
Q

What is the definitive treatment for cardiac tamponade?

A

Pericardiocentesis

49
Q

On physical exam, you hear a harsh systolic murmur along the right sternal border, what is the most likely diagnosis

A

aortic stenosis

50
Q

A wide pulse pressure with a blowing diastolic decrescendo murmur at the right 2nd intercostal space should make you think of what diagnosis?

A

aortic regurgitation

51
Q

what is the best locations to hear problems with the aortic valve?

A

2nd right intercostal space

52
Q

where is disease of the pulmonary valve best heard?

A

2nd left intercostal space

53
Q

What two antibiotics are used for empiric treatment of endocarditis?

A

Vancomycin and ceftriaxone together are first line empiric Tx

54
Q

What two valvular issues do patients with Marfan’s syndrome often have?

A

Aortic regurgitation and Mitral prolapse

55
Q

What are the two main causes of aortic stenosis?

A

congenital bicuspid valve and calcification of the valve secondary to CAD

56
Q

An elderly patient presents with dyspnea, angina, and syncope on exertion. The EKG is normal, what is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Aortic stenosis

57
Q

On auscultation you hear a harsh, blowing, pansystolic murmur at the apex, what is the most likely diagnosis?

A

mitral regurgitation

58
Q

You suspect mitral regurgitation, what is the most accurate way to prove your diagnosis?

A

tranesophageal echo

59
Q

a patient with Mitral prolapse will often have what physical characteristics?

A

often a thin female

60
Q

What is the best patient position to hear aortic regurge and aortic stenosis?

A

sitting up and leaning forward

61
Q

What is Tietze syndrome?

A

costochondritis

62
Q

Are most pulmonary valve problems congenital or acquired?

A

95% congenital

63
Q

What is the therapeutic range for INR following an organic valve replacement?

A

2-3

64
Q

a 60 year old male presents to the ER with severe dizziness and back pain. his BP is dropping and you can feel and abdominal pulsatile mass on physical exam. what is the most likely diagnosis?

A

ruptured aortic aneurysm

65
Q

In a patient with aortic stenosis, how will the PMI be displaced?

A

laterally d/t LVH

66
Q

A patient complains of severe crushing chest pain. EKG shows ST segment elevations. all labs including troponins and CK-MB are negative. what is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Prinzmetal’s angina

67
Q

a questions about prinsmetal’s angina will often contain what key thing in the patient’s history?

A

cocaine use

68
Q

name two things that would constitute a positive stress test

A

a drop in BP, a new arrhythmia, an increase in angina symptoms, ST depressions

69
Q

Are ulcers from venous insufficiency painful or painless?

A

Painless

70
Q

A patient has just received a cardiac stent. How long will he be on aspirin and clopidogrel?

A

1 year

71
Q

Where is disease of the mitral valve best heard?

A

at the apex

72
Q

What is the initial treatment for a MI?

A

MONA > morphine, oxygen, nitroglycerin, aspirin

73
Q

Clot busting drugs should be used within 3 hours of which two cardiac events?

A

STEMI and new LBBB

74
Q

List three catastrophic complications of a MI

A

Papillary muscle rupture, myocardial wall rupture, left ventricular aneurysm

75
Q

an EKG shows a regular heart rate of 200 BPM, QRS is narrow, what is the most likely diagnosis?

A

SVT

76
Q

Acute endocarditis is most commonly cauased by what organism?

A

staph aureus

77
Q

list three congenital heart diseases?

A

Atrial septal defect, ventricular septal defect, coarctation of the aorta, patent ductus arteriosus, tetralogy of fallot

78
Q

what is the most common cause of an atrial septal defect

A

patent foramen ovale

79
Q

Where on your patient should you listen for the murmur associated with an atrial septal defect?

A

at the second or third interspace

80
Q

a CXR shows a “3” sign with notching of the ribs, what is the most likely diagnosis?

A

coarctation of the aorta

81
Q

what is the appropriate treatment for a patent ductus arteriosus?

A

indomethacin

82
Q

a Blalock procedure is used to correct what congenital heart condition?

A

tetralogy of fallot

83
Q

You hear a loud, harsh pulmonary murmur along the left sternal border, what is the most likely diagnosis?

A

ventricular septal defect

PANCE Key Terms (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions