Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

Name two things that would constitute a positive stress test.

A

A drop in blood pressure, a new arrhythmia, an increase in angina symptoms, ST depressions

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2
Q

Are ulcers from venous insufficiency painful or painless?

A

Painless

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3
Q

A patient has just received a cardiac stent. How long will he be on aspirin and clopidogrel?

A

One year

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4
Q

Where is disease of the mitral valve best heard?

A

At the apex

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5
Q

What is the initial treatment for a myocardial infarction?

A

MONA - morphine, oxygen, mitroglycerin and aspirin

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6
Q

Clot busting drugs should be used within 3 hours of which two cardiac events?

A

STEMI and new left bundle brance block

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7
Q

List three catastrophic complications of a myocardial infarction.

A

Papillary muscle rupture, myocardial wall rupture and left ventricular aneurysm

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8
Q

An EKG shows a regular heart rate of 200 bpms. QRS is narrow. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Supraventricular tachycardia

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9
Q

An EKG shows a regular heart rate of 200 bps. QRS is narrow. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Supraventricular tachycardia

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10
Q

Acute endocarditis is most commonly caused by what organism?

A

Staph aureus

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11
Q

List three congenital heart diseases.

A

Atrial dental defect, ventricular dental defect, coarctation of the aorta, patent ductus arteriosus, tetralogy of Fallot

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12
Q

What is the most common cause of an atrial septal defect?

A

Patent foremen ovale

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13
Q

Where on your patient should you listen for the murmur associated with an atrial septal defect?

A

At the left second or third interspace

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14
Q

What side effect might make a patient stop taking an ACEI?

A

Cough

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15
Q

Define orthostatic hypotension.

A

A drop in systolic blood pressure of > 20 mmhg when standing up.

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16
Q

You feel a pulse that seems to be vibrating. What term do you use to describe it?

A

Thrill

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17
Q

What are three things in your differential if you have a paradoxical pulse?

A

Cardiac tamponade, pericarditis and obstructive lung disease

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18
Q

On palpation, what size is normal for the aorta?

A

Less than 3 cm

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19
Q

A fixed or consistent split S2 should make you think of what diagnosis?

A

Atrial septal defect

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20
Q

A pathologic S3 is most commonly associated with what diagnosis?

A

CHF

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21
Q

If you hear a midsystolic click you should immediately be thinking about what diagnosis?

A

Mitral valve prolapse

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22
Q

An opening snap on auscultation of the heart should make you think of what diagnosis?

A

Mitral stenosis

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23
Q

A continuous murmur most likely involves what area of the heart?

A

It is most likely a septal defect

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24
Q

You hear a continuous machine-like murmur. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Patent dusctus arteriosis (PDA)

25
Q

List three medications which may be used for pharmacological stress test.

A

Adenosine, dobutamine, dipyridamole and persantine

26
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing coronary artery disease?

A

Cardiac catheterization

27
Q

Define stage hypertension according to JNC 7.

A

Systolic pressure of 140-159 and diastolic of 90-99

28
Q

What is the treatment goal for a diabetic with hypertension?

A

130/80

29
Q

What is the most common cause of secondary hypertension?

A

Chronic kidney disease

30
Q

No matter what medications you use you are having trouble keeping a patient’s blood pressure under control. You also notice hyperpigmented skin and truncal obesity. What is the most like diagnosis?

A

Cushing’s disease

31
Q

List three signs or symptoms which will likely be included in a description of a patient with a pheochromocytoma?

A

Thin, diaphoretic, tachycardic, agitated and hypertensive

32
Q

You have a patient with diagnosis of a pheochromocytoma. While waiting for surgery, should you use an alpha blocker or a beta blocker?

A

Alpha blocker. You should never use a pure beta blocker

33
Q

A young boy comes into your office. He has elevated blood pressure when taken in his arm, but no femoral pulses can be palpated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Coarctation of the aorta

34
Q

According to the CDC, what is the range for a normal BMI?

A

18.5-24.9

35
Q

What is the first line medical treatment for stage 1 hypertension?

A

Thiazide diuretic

36
Q

After a thiazide diuretic, what medication should you start in a hypertensive patient who also has diabetes?

A

An ACE or an ARB

37
Q

Following a myocardial infarction, what medication should you be using to treat hypertension?

A

Beta blocker

38
Q

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyson’s should make you think of what diagnosis?

A

CHF

39
Q

What is the most common cause of CHF?

A

Coronary artery disease

40
Q

What ejection fraction is typical for a patient with CHF?

A

35-40%

41
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis for a young man who experiences sudden death while playing sports?

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

42
Q

Bat wing vessels or Kerley B lines on a CXR should make you think of what diagnosis?

A

CHF

43
Q

A beta natriuretic peptide below what level rules out CHF?

A

<100

44
Q

What is the therapeutic range for INR following a mechanical valve replacement?

A

2.5-3.5

45
Q

What is the first line IV inotropic agent when dealing with cardiogenic shock?

A

Dopamine

46
Q

What diagnosis is most likely in an IV drug user with a new heart murmur and fever?

A

Endocarditis

47
Q

Lost two diagnoses which require antibiotic prophylaxis for “dirty procedures?”

A

Prosthetic valve, valve repair with any prosthetic material, prior endocarditis diagnosis, congenital cyanotic heart defect

48
Q

Does a patient with mitral valve prolapse require prophylactic antibiotics for dental work?

A

No, a recent change moves mittal valve prolapse from high risk to moderate risk.

49
Q

What are the 3 major criteria for endocarditis?

A

2 positive blood cultures, a positive transesophageal echocardiography, new murmur

50
Q

Which are painful and found on the fingers and toes, Osler nodes or Janeway lesions?

A

Osler nodes

51
Q

List the 4 minor criteria for diagnosing endocarditis.

A

Fever, embolic event (Janeway lesions or or petechiae, splinter hemorrhages), immunological event (osler nodes, glomerulonephritis), 1 postive blood culture.

52
Q

What are the five components of tetralogy of Fallot?

A

Ventricular septal defect, right ventricular hypertrophy, right ventricular outflow obstruction (pulmonary valve stenosis), overriding aorta, right sided aortic arch

53
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing myocarditis?

A

Myocardial biopsy

54
Q

Where do most aortic dissections occur?

A

The ascending or descending thoracic aorta

55
Q

A patient complains of severe pleuritic chest pain that is relieved with sitting and leaning forward. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Pericarditis

56
Q

What is the first line medical treatment for pericarditis?

A

Aspirin and NSAIDS

57
Q

What is the name of the syndrome that involves pericarditis several days after a myocardial infarction?

A

Dressler syndrome

58
Q

A patient presents to the ER with chest pain. An EKG shows diffuse ST elevations in almost all the leads. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Pericarditis