Cardiology Flashcards
What clinical syndrome is characterized by dyspnea, edema, and abnormal retention of water and sodium?
Congestive Heart Failure
Plain chest film signs of cardiomegaly, pulmonary effusions, and Kerley B lines are consistent with what condition?
Congestive Heart Failure
What is the most common cause of elevated blood pressure?
Primary (essential) hypertension
Metabolic syndrome is a major contributor to coronary heart disease and is associated with development of diabetes. What are the criteria?
3 or more of the following: abdominal obesity (>35" for women and >40 for men) triglycerides > 150mg/dl HDL <40 for men and <50 for women FBG >110 Pre-hypertension
Severe cardiovascular failure caused by poor blood flow or inadequate distribution and delivery of oxygen is generally classified as what?
Shock
This condition, which can be related to reduced cardiac output, low blood volume or medications, is a reversible cause of syncope and a major cause of falls in the elderly.
Orthostatic (postural) hypotension
Name 5 causes of secondary hypertension.
Sleep Apnea estrogen use pheochromocytoma coarctation of the aorta renal artery stenosis thyroid/parathyroid disease Cushings syndrome chronic steroid therapy pregnancy
What is the most common symptom of hypertension?
Nonspecific headache
What are the two major Duke criteria?
Positive blood cultures and
Findings on echocardiogram
What EKG finding would you expect in a patient with pericarditis?
Diffuse ST elevation
Hypertensive crisis encompasses both hypertensive urgency and emergency. Which one is associated with end organ damage?
Emergency
What is the most common cause of diastolic heart failure?
Ventricular hypertrophy (poor filling)
What medication class is preferred to treat hypertension in a patient with Raynauds?
Calcium channel blockers i.e Nifedipine Amlodipine
What is the most common cause of bronchiolitis in children?
RSV
Which of the following is a potential adverse reaction to isoniazid in the treatment of tuberculosis? A. glaucoma B. headache C. hepatitis D. hypoglycemia
C. Hepatitis
This chronic inflammatory disorder causes facial flushing in response to heat stimuli, telangiectasias, and has a peak incidence between 40 and 50 years of age.
Rosacea
What condition is characterized by unregulated release of gastrin resulting in gastric acid hypersecretion? Most patients complain of diarrhea and peptic ulcer disease.
Zollinger Ellison syndrome
Upper extremity hypertension with lower blood pressures in the lower extremities would be consistent with what congenital abnormality?
Coarctation of the aorta
What is the most common sexually transmitted infection?
HPV
What vaccine is contraindicated for pregnant women?
Varicella
A gray pharyngeal pseudomembrane is a classic finding noted with what condition?
Diptheria
A false positive VDRL and a positive ANA should lead you to what Rheumatoid condition?
SLE (lupus)
Female with DM presents with new sxs of sweating, nervousness, irritability, and fatigue. She has had 10 lbs of unexplained weight loss in 4 weeks. What is the most likely cause?
Graves Disease (hyperthyroidism)
What is the most common form of thyroid cancer?
Papillary Carcinoma (80%)
What is the most common cause of upper GI bleeding?
Peptic ulcer disease
Thrombophilia is a generic term for a disorder causing increased clotting. What is the most common inherited thrombophilia?
Factor V Leiden
What is the most common cause of lower GI bleeding?
Diverticular disease
This vascular condition is a common complication of Kawasaki’s syndrome.
Coronary artery aneurysm
At what age would you begin evaluation for primary amenorrhea in a female without secondary sexual characteristics?
14 years
At what age would you begin evaluation for primary amenorrhea in a female with secondary sexual characteristics?
16 years
Where is the most common site of endometriosis?
The ovary
32 y/o AA obese female with dysmenorrhea and history of PCOS presents with dysfunctional uterine bleeding. Urine hcg is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Uterine Fibroids (Leiomyoma)
What is the most common gynecological malignancy in the United States?
Endometrial Cancer
Pleural plaques noted in the lungs are consistent with what chronic lung disease?
Mesothelioma
What disorder commonly presents with optic neuritis, focal weakness, numbness or tingling, balance problems and/or urinary symptoms?
Multiple Sclerosis
What is the imaging study of choice when evaluating a patient with suspected Multiple Sclerosis?
MRI with gadolinium contrast demonstrating white mater lesions or plaques (Dawson’s fingers)
What is the imaging study of choice when evaluating a patient with suspected Multiple Sclerosis?
MRI with gadolinium contrast demonstrating white mater lesions or plaques (Dawson’s fingers)
This condition presents with vertigo, nausea and vomiting without hearing loss or tinnitus. It is related to viral URIs.
Acute labyrinthitis
What drug class is the treatment of choice for a patient with BPH and hypertension?
Alpha blockers (-zosin)
Rib notching on plain films are pathognomonic for what congenital abnormality?
Coarctation of the aorta
What congenital abnormality is most commonly associated with coarctation of the aorta?
Bicuspid aortic valve
What is the most common cause of sudden onset of floaters and flashing lights in the eye?
Vitreous hemorrhage or detachment in the posterior compartment of the eye.
What is the most common cause of blindness in adults under the age of 60 in the US?
Diabetes Mellitus
What is the most common cause of blindness in adults over the age of 60 in the US?
Macular degeneration
A continuous, “machinelike” holosystolic and holodiastolic murmur heard best of the left sternal border in a patient that is not cyanotic is consistent with what anomaly?
Patent ductus arterious
A mid to late systolic click heard best at the apex is most consistent with what valve abnormality?
Mitral valve prolapse
Barretts esophagus can lead to what type of cancer?
Adenocarcinoma
Target lesions associated with fever and recent viral infection are consistent with what dermatologic condition?
Erythema Multiforme
What category of tumor are the most common malignant heart tumor?
Sarcomas
What is the most common form of esophageal neoplasm? This type of cancer affects AAs 3 times as 9ften as Caucasians.
Squamous Cell Carcinoma
What medication would be indicated for prophylactic therapy in an HIV patient with CD4 counts less than 200?
TMP-SMX Bactrim
Which medication used to treat active TB can cause optic neuritis with high doses as well as loss of red-green color perception?
Ethambutol
Which three leads on an EKG correspond with the right coronay artery which supplies the SA Node, AV Node, right ventricle and the inferior wall of the left ventricle?
II, III, and aVF
Which leads on the EKG correspond with the circumflex artery which supplies the lateral wall of the left ventricle?
V5, V6, I and aVL
What is the most common valvular disorder in the US?
Aortic stenosis
What type of medication is most appropriate to treat hypertension in a patient who also has Raynauds?
CCBs Nifedipine, Amlodipine
What are the two most common causes of macrocytic anemia?
B12 and Folate
What is the most common cause of microcytic anemia?
Iron deficiency
A positive Schillings test and hypersegmented neutrophils are signs of what disorder?
B12 deficiency
A patient with abdominal pain and clumsiness also has signs of episodic paralytic ileus and basophilic stippling on a peripheral smear. What is at the top of your differential?
Lead Poisoning (sideroblastic anemia)
What is the most common type of breast cancer?
Infiltrating ductal carcinoma
