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PANRE > Cardiology > Flashcards

Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

What clinical syndrome is characterized by dyspnea, edema, and abnormal retention of water and sodium?

A

Congestive Heart Failure

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2
Q

Plain chest film signs of cardiomegaly, pulmonary effusions, and Kerley B lines are consistent with what condition?

A

Congestive Heart Failure

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3
Q

What is the most common cause of elevated blood pressure?

A

Primary (essential) hypertension

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4
Q

Metabolic syndrome is a major contributor to coronary heart disease and is associated with development of diabetes. What are the criteria?

A 
3 or more of the following:
abdominal obesity (>35" for women and >40 for men)
triglycerides > 150mg/dl
HDL <40 for men and <50 for women
FBG >110
Pre-hypertension
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5
Q

Severe cardiovascular failure caused by poor blood flow or inadequate distribution and delivery of oxygen is generally classified as what?

A

Shock

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6
Q

This condition, which can be related to reduced cardiac output, low blood volume or medications, is a reversible cause of syncope and a major cause of falls in the elderly.

A

Orthostatic (postural) hypotension

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7
Q

Name 5 causes of secondary hypertension.

A 
Sleep Apnea
estrogen use
pheochromocytoma
coarctation of the aorta
renal artery stenosis
thyroid/parathyroid disease
Cushings syndrome
chronic steroid therapy
pregnancy
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8
Q

What is the most common symptom of hypertension?

A

Nonspecific headache

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9
Q

What are the two major Duke criteria?

A

Positive blood cultures and

Findings on echocardiogram

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10
Q

What EKG finding would you expect in a patient with pericarditis?

A

Diffuse ST elevation

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11
Q

Hypertensive crisis encompasses both hypertensive urgency and emergency. Which one is associated with end organ damage?

A

Emergency

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12
Q

What is the most common cause of diastolic heart failure?

A

Ventricular hypertrophy (poor filling)

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13
Q

What medication class is preferred to treat hypertension in a patient with Raynauds?

A

Calcium channel blockers i.e Nifedipine Amlodipine

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14
Q

What is the most common cause of bronchiolitis in children?

A

RSV

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15
Q 
Which of the following is a potential adverse reaction to isoniazid in the treatment of tuberculosis?
A. glaucoma
B. headache
C. hepatitis
D. hypoglycemia
A

C. Hepatitis

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16
Q

This chronic inflammatory disorder causes facial flushing in response to heat stimuli, telangiectasias, and has a peak incidence between 40 and 50 years of age.

A

Rosacea

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17
Q

What condition is characterized by unregulated release of gastrin resulting in gastric acid hypersecretion? Most patients complain of diarrhea and peptic ulcer disease.

A

Zollinger Ellison syndrome

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18
Q

Upper extremity hypertension with lower blood pressures in the lower extremities would be consistent with what congenital abnormality?

A

Coarctation of the aorta

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19
Q

What is the most common sexually transmitted infection?

A

HPV

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20
Q

What vaccine is contraindicated for pregnant women?

A

Varicella

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21
Q

A gray pharyngeal pseudomembrane is a classic finding noted with what condition?

A

Diptheria

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22
Q

A false positive VDRL and a positive ANA should lead you to what Rheumatoid condition?

A

SLE (lupus)

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23
Q

Female with DM presents with new sxs of sweating, nervousness, irritability, and fatigue. She has had 10 lbs of unexplained weight loss in 4 weeks. What is the most likely cause?

A

Graves Disease (hyperthyroidism)

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24
Q

What is the most common form of thyroid cancer?

A

Papillary Carcinoma (80%)

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25
Q

What is the most common cause of upper GI bleeding?

A

Peptic ulcer disease

26
Q

Thrombophilia is a generic term for a disorder causing increased clotting. What is the most common inherited thrombophilia?

A

Factor V Leiden

27
Q

What is the most common cause of lower GI bleeding?

A

Diverticular disease

28
Q

This vascular condition is a common complication of Kawasaki’s syndrome.

A

Coronary artery aneurysm

29
Q

At what age would you begin evaluation for primary amenorrhea in a female without secondary sexual characteristics?

A

14 years

30
Q

At what age would you begin evaluation for primary amenorrhea in a female with secondary sexual characteristics?

A

16 years

31
Q

Where is the most common site of endometriosis?

A

The ovary

32
Q

32 y/o AA obese female with dysmenorrhea and history of PCOS presents with dysfunctional uterine bleeding. Urine hcg is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Uterine Fibroids (Leiomyoma)

33
Q

What is the most common gynecological malignancy in the United States?

A

Endometrial Cancer

34
Q

Pleural plaques noted in the lungs are consistent with what chronic lung disease?

A

Mesothelioma

35
Q

What disorder commonly presents with optic neuritis, focal weakness, numbness or tingling, balance problems and/or urinary symptoms?

A

Multiple Sclerosis

36
Q

What is the imaging study of choice when evaluating a patient with suspected Multiple Sclerosis?

A

MRI with gadolinium contrast demonstrating white mater lesions or plaques (Dawson’s fingers)

37
Q

What is the imaging study of choice when evaluating a patient with suspected Multiple Sclerosis?

A

MRI with gadolinium contrast demonstrating white mater lesions or plaques (Dawson’s fingers)

38
Q

This condition presents with vertigo, nausea and vomiting without hearing loss or tinnitus. It is related to viral URIs.

A

Acute labyrinthitis

39
Q

What drug class is the treatment of choice for a patient with BPH and hypertension?

A

Alpha blockers (-zosin)

40
Q

Rib notching on plain films are pathognomonic for what congenital abnormality?

A

Coarctation of the aorta

41
Q

What congenital abnormality is most commonly associated with coarctation of the aorta?

A

Bicuspid aortic valve

42
Q

What is the most common cause of sudden onset of floaters and flashing lights in the eye?

A

Vitreous hemorrhage or detachment in the posterior compartment of the eye.

43
Q

What is the most common cause of blindness in adults under the age of 60 in the US?

A

Diabetes Mellitus

44
Q

What is the most common cause of blindness in adults over the age of 60 in the US?

A

Macular degeneration

45
Q

A continuous, “machinelike” holosystolic and holodiastolic murmur heard best of the left sternal border in a patient that is not cyanotic is consistent with what anomaly?

A

Patent ductus arterious

46
Q

A mid to late systolic click heard best at the apex is most consistent with what valve abnormality?

A

Mitral valve prolapse

47
Q

Barretts esophagus can lead to what type of cancer?

A

Adenocarcinoma

48
Q

Target lesions associated with fever and recent viral infection are consistent with what dermatologic condition?

A

Erythema Multiforme

49
Q

What category of tumor are the most common malignant heart tumor?

A

Sarcomas

50
Q

What is the most common form of esophageal neoplasm? This type of cancer affects AAs 3 times as 9ften as Caucasians.

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

51
Q

What medication would be indicated for prophylactic therapy in an HIV patient with CD4 counts less than 200?

A

TMP-SMX Bactrim

52
Q

Which medication used to treat active TB can cause optic neuritis with high doses as well as loss of red-green color perception?

A

Ethambutol

53
Q

Which three leads on an EKG correspond with the right coronay artery which supplies the SA Node, AV Node, right ventricle and the inferior wall of the left ventricle?

A

II, III, and aVF

54
Q

Which leads on the EKG correspond with the circumflex artery which supplies the lateral wall of the left ventricle?

A

V5, V6, I and aVL

55
Q

What is the most common valvular disorder in the US?

A

Aortic stenosis

56
Q

What type of medication is most appropriate to treat hypertension in a patient who also has Raynauds?

A

CCBs Nifedipine, Amlodipine

57
Q

What are the two most common causes of macrocytic anemia?

A

B12 and Folate

58
Q

What is the most common cause of microcytic anemia?

A

Iron deficiency

59
Q

A positive Schillings test and hypersegmented neutrophils are signs of what disorder?

A

B12 deficiency

60
Q

A patient with abdominal pain and clumsiness also has signs of episodic paralytic ileus and basophilic stippling on a peripheral smear. What is at the top of your differential?

A

Lead Poisoning (sideroblastic anemia)

61
Q

What is the most common type of breast cancer?

A

Infiltrating ductal carcinoma

PANRE (1 decks)

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