Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the management of heart failure?

A

ACE inhibitor and beta-blocker - 1st line

Aldosterone antagonist (eg. spironolactone) - 2nd line

Dapagliflozin - 3rd line

Symptoms of fluid overload - prescribe loop diuretic (furosemide)

Digoxin - only if heart failure is in combination with atrial fibrilation

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2
Q

What is the definitions of hypertension stages 1, 2 and 3, and when should they be treated?

A

STAGE 1
BP equal or higher than 140/90.

Treat if < 80 years of age + one of the following:
- target organ damage
- established CV disease
- renal disease
- diabetes
- 1-year CV risk equivalent to 10% or greater

STAGE 2
BP equal or higher than 160/100

Always treat

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3
Q

What are the steps of hypertension treatment in non-diabetic patients?

A

STEP 1
- If age < 55y: ACE inhibitor
- If age equal or higher than 55 or black african or Caribbean origin: calcium channel blocker (if CCB cannot be tolerated, offer thiazide like diuretics)
- If still uncontrolled BP, go to STEP 2

STEP 2
- Combination of 2 classes
- ACE inhibitor (or ARB)
- Calcium channel blocker
- Thiazide-like diuretic
If Afro-Caribbean origin, the second medication should be an ARB or thiazide

STEP 3
- Combination of three classes

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4
Q

What are the steps of hypertension treatment in diabetic patients?

A

STEP 1
- Any age: ACE inhibitor
- Black african or Caribbean: consider ARB in preference to ACE inhibitor

STEP 2
- Combination of 2 classes
- ACE inhibitor (or ARB)
- Calcium channel blocker
- Thiazide-like diuretic

STEP 3
- Combination of three classes

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5
Q

What are the characteristics of a left ventricular aneurysm?

A

Complication resulting from an MI.
Presents 4-6 weeks after MI.
Persistenly raised ST segments.

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6
Q

What are the characteristics of Dressler’s syndrome?

A

Secondary form of pericarditis that occurs post MI.
Presents 1 week or several months after an MI.
Fever, pleuritic pain, pericardial and pleural effusion.
The pleuritic pain is usually the main complaint.

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7
Q

What are the symptoms of Tetralogy of Fallot?

A

Cyanotic heart condition of the first few weeks of life.
Symptoms depend on the severity. The low oxygen saturation and cyanosis are due to blood shunting across the ventricular septal defect into the aorta.
Ejection systolic murmur due to pulmonary stenosis.

Four characteristic features are
- Pulmonary stenosis (ejection systolic murmur)
- Right ventricular hypertrophy
- Overriding aorta
- Ventricular septal defect

Chest X-Ray shows a “boot-shaped” heart.
ECG shows right ventricular hypertrophy.

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8
Q

What do U waves represent?

A

Hypokalaemia

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9
Q

What do J waves represent?

A

Hypothermia

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10
Q

What do delta waves represent?

A

Wolff Parkinson White syndrome

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11
Q

What is coronary dominance, and which artery is dominant in 85% of the general population?

A

The artery that supplies the posterior descending artery determines the coronary dominance.

If the PDA is supplied by the right coronary artery, then the coronary circulation can be classified as “right-dominant”. This is found in 85% of population.

If the PDA is supplied by the circumflex artery (a branch of the left artery), then the coronary circulation can be classified as “left-dominant”

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12
Q

How to differentiate murmurs?

A

SYSTOLIC
- Ejection: aortic stenosis (2ICS right of the sternum)
- Pansystolic: mitral regurgitation (apex), tricuspid stenosis (lower left sternal edge), VSD

DIASTOLIC
- Early diastolic: aortic regurgitation (left upper sternal border)
- Mid-late diastolic: mitral stenosis (apex)

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13
Q

What are the definitions and treatments of the different degrees of heat block?

A

FIRST DEGREE
PR interval > 0.2 sec
TT: none required

SECOND DEGREE
- Mobitz type I (Wenckebach phenomenon): progressive prolongation of PR interval until a dropped beat occurs
TT: none required if asymptomatic, atropine if symptomatic
- Mobitz type II: PR interval is constant but the P wave is often not followed by a QRS complex
TT: atropine initially if symptomatic, definitive tt with pacemaker

THIRD DEGREE
P waves will occur regularly, but completely unconnected to QRS complexes
TT: atropine followed by transcutaneous pacing, permanent pacemaker

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14
Q

Which medication used to treat gout should not be used for CHF patients?

A

NSAIDs should be avoided in patients with CKD, HF or ischaemic heart disease. Selective COX-2 inhibitors (celecoxib) should also be avoided.

NSAIDs inhibit the synthesis of prostaglandins, which lead to reduction in sodium excretion, renal perfusion and GFR. They can also reduce the effectiveness and increase the toxicity of ACEI and diuretics, which can result in exacerbation of HF.

Also, thiazide diuretics increase the risk of gout due to reduced clearance of uric acid.

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15
Q

Which valvulopaty can be expected after an inferior MI?

A

Mitral regurgitation

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16
Q

When should hyperkalaemia be treated?

A

6.0 to 6.4 mmol/L with ECG changes
> 6.5 mmol/L regardless of ECG

Calcium gluconate antagonizes cardiac membrane excitability as a temporary measure which reduces the risk of a cardiac arrest.

17
Q

How does hypertension treatment differ in diabetics patients?

A

FIRST LINE
- Any age - ACEI
- Black African or Caribbean - ARB

18
Q

What are the common ECG features of hypokalaemia?

A
  • U waves (little wave after T wave)
  • small or absent T waves (or inverted)
  • prolongued PR interval
  • ST depression
19
Q

What are the common ECG features of hyperkalaemia?

A
  • tall-tented T waves
  • small P waves
  • widened QRS leading to sinusoidal pattern and asystole
20
Q

What are the common ECG features of hypercalcaemia?

A

shortened QT intervals

21
Q

What are the common ECG features of hypocalcaemia?

A

prolongued QT intervals

22
Q

What level of serum calcium determined severe hypocalcemia, and how should it be managed?

A

Calcium < 1.9 is severe
Management: urgently treat with calcium replacement (calcium gluconate) + close monitoring of serum corrected calcium levels

23
Q

Clinchers for right and left bundle branch blocks

A

MARROW and WILLIAM

RBBB
“M” in v1
“W” in v6

LBBB
“w” in v1
“M” in v6

24
Q

Which medications should be prescribed to all patients with MI upon discharge?

A

Aspirin
Antiplatelet
Beta blocker
ACHEi
Statin

Mnemonic AA BAS (A BUS)

25
Q

What is the most common congenital heart defect on people with Down syndrome?

A

Atrioventricular septal defect

26
Q

When should DOAC be given to a patient with Afib?

A

If they are 65 years old or older with at least one comorbidity (simplifyed CHADSVASC)