Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

How much elevation in leads for STEMI?

A

1mm limb, 2mm chest

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2
Q

When do Tnl levels begin to rise and for how long?

A

3-4 hours for up to two weeks

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3
Q

What hs/Tnl level for likely myocardial necrosis?

A

34 for men, 16 for women

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4
Q

When is hs-Tnl taken?

A

Admission and 1 hour

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5
Q

What may be seen in a posterior MI?

A

ST depression in leads v1-4

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6
Q

What four conditions can mimic STEMI on ECG?

A
  1. Early repolarisation (V1-2 in younger, athletic patients)
  2. Pericarditis (widespread, concave ST changes)
  3. Bruguda syndrome (Genetic electrical arhythmia)
  4. Takotsubo cardiomyopathy (stress reaction ‘broken heart’)
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7
Q

Which antiplatelet therapy is indicated in STEMI?

A

Aspirin (300 mg loading dose, 75mg od)
Prasugrel (60 mg loading, 10 mg od 12/12)
[PPCI, u75, >60kg, no prior TIA]

Clopidogrel (600mg loading, 75 mg daily)
Ticagrelor (180mg loading, 90mg bd)
[First choice NSTEMI]

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8
Q

NSTEMI medical management?

A
  1. Morphine
  2. Aspirin
  3. LMWH (Enoxaparin, 48 hours)
  4. Ticagralor if GRACE Score risk >3: (180mg loading, 90mg bd)
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9
Q

What investigations should be offered for patients with CAD likelihoods of:

61-90%
30-60%
10-29%?

A

61-90% - Invasive coronary angiography
30-60% - Stress MRI, echo, myoview
10-29% - CT Calcium scoring

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10
Q

What is the drug treatment for Stable Angina?

A
  1. Asprin 75mg OD ( or clopidogrel 75mg)
  2. GTN
  3. Beta-blockers AND non-dihydropyridines (diltiazem/verapamil)
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11
Q

What sinus node-blocking agent and dose may be used where beta-blockade is contra-indicated? (and HR above 70)

A

Ivabradine (5-7.5 mg)

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12
Q

What are four signs of secondary causes of HTN?

A
  1. Cushing’s
  2. Enlarged kidneys
  3. Renal bruits
  4. Radio-femoral delay (coarction)
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13
Q

What 5 investigations should be undergone in HTN?

A

Kidney

  1. Urine: Protein, albumin:creatinine ratio, haematuria
  2. Blood: Glucose, electrolytes, creatinine, eGFR, cholesterol total and ratio

Eyes
3. Retina screen

Heart

  1. ECG
  2. Echo if suggestion of LVH or valve disease
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14
Q

Which patients should be prescribed CCB over an ACEi?

A

55+ or African or Carribean origin

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15
Q

What four drugs should be started in a Hypertensive Emergency?

A
  1. Sodium nitroprusside
  2. Labetalol
  3. GTN
  4. Esmolol (0.5-1mg over 1 minute)
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16
Q

What combination of classes is advised in Hypertensive urgency? (And which specific drugs)

A
  1. ACEi

2. Calcium antagonist (nifedipine 20mg BD for three days and amlodipine 10 mg OD)

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17
Q

What is the investigation and managment plan for the triad of Headache, sweating, and tachycardia?

A

Phaeochromocytoma:

  1. 24 hr urine collection (metanephrines and catecholamines)
  2. Abdo CT/MRI
  3. Phenoxybenzamine 10 mg OD/BD, increasing (Alpha and beta blockade)
  4. Resection
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18
Q

What are four Ix for Cushing’s?

A
  1. Plasma glucose
  2. 24hr urine cortisol (3x normal)
  3. Low-dose dexamethasone suppresion test.
  4. Adrenal CT
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19
Q

Primary Aldosteronism?

  1. Suspicion
  2. Confirmation
A
  1. Low/normal potassium and high/normal sodium
  2. Resistant hypertension
  3. Aldosterone:Renin ratio
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20
Q

Which patients are likely to have HFNEF?

A
  1. Elderly
  2. Overweight
  3. HTN
  4. AF
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21
Q

What are the CXR features of Heart failure?

A

A. Alveolar Oedema
B. Kerley B Lines
C. Cardiomegaly
D. ‘Deer antlers’ perihilar-shadowing

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22
Q

What five drugs are used in the medical management of HF?

A
  1. Diuretics (Furosemide 40mg-500mg, Bumetanide, Dendroflumethiazide 2-5mg OD, Metolazone 2.5-5mg, Spironolactone 25mg OD)
  2. ACEi
  3. ARB (Valsartan/candesartan)
  4. ARNI [neprilysin inhibitor] (Sabcutril w/ valsartan)
  5. Beta blockers [low and go slow]
    Carvedilol (Two weeks 3.125 mg BD - 6.25 mg BD - 12.5 mg BD - 25 mg BD)
    Bisoprolol (1 week 1.25 mg OD, 2.5 mg OD, 3.75 mg OD, 5mg OD 4 weeks, 7.5 mg OD, 10mg OD)
23
Q

What does ‘Start low and go slow’ mean for Beta blockade?

A

Carvedilol (Two weeks 3.125 mg BD - 6.25 mg BD - 12.5 mg BD - 25 mg BD)
Bisoprolol (1 week 1.25 mg OD, 2.5 mg OD, 3.75 mg OD, 5mg OD 4 weeks, 7.5 mg OD, 10mg OD)

24
Q

When is a CRT pacemaker indicated and how does it work?

A

Cardiac resynchronisation pacemakers

  1. Left Bundle Branch Block
  2. The broad QRS results in septum-lateral wall delay
25
When is an ICD indicated?
Secondary (or primary) prevention of sudden cardiac arrest
26
What are two irreversible sequalae of Valvular disease?
Ventricular dysfunction Pulmonary hypertension
27
What are three classical symptoms of aortic stenosis?
1. Angina 2. Heart failure 3. Syncope
28
What are the most common causes and symptoms of Aortic Regurgitation?
Symptom: 1. Exertional dyspnoea 2. Reduced exercise tolerance Causes: 1. Idiopathic dilatation 2. Congenital valve abnormalities (bicuspid) 3. Calcific degeneration 4. Rheumatic disease 5. Endocarditis 6. Marfan’s
29
What are two signs of Aortic regurgitation?
De Musset’s (head bob) | Collapsing pulse
30
Severe AR + LV dilation | - Medical Mx
ACEi (afterload reduction)
31
What are the commonest causative organisms of IE, detailing after prosthesis?
1. Strep viridans (50%) 2. Staph a (20%) (IVDUs - 50%) 3. Enterococal - 10% 4. Fungi (high mortality) - 2-10% (candida/aspergillus; immunosupressed/IVDU/surgery/IV) 5. HACEK - Not on culture Prosthesis: 1. First year - coag neg staph (epidermis) 2. ‘Later’ - viridans, aureus, coag neg.
32
Blood cultures for IE?
At least 3 (preferably 6) Different sites Several hours
33
IE ABx ?
Strep: Benzylpenicillin +gentamicin (vanc if allergic) Enterococci: Amoxicillin + gent (vanc if allergic) Staph: Flucloxacillin + gent (benzylpenicillin or vanc if sensitive/allergic)
34
Three degrees of AV block?
First degree: PR > 0.2 seconds (check digoxin toxicity/rate limiters) Second: Wenckebach (Mobitz I) Progressive PR lengthening and drop (Mobitz II) Constant PR and drops Permanent pacing arranged Third degree: No relationshipp between P and QRS
35
What management is indicated in complete AV block?
1. Atropine (600 micrograms to 3mg) - unstable (anticholinergic) 2. Urgent pacing (within 24 hours) 3. CaCL2 (10mlx 10%, 3-5 minutes) - Hyperkalaemia 4. Isoprenaline (5micrograms/min) - Adrenaline analogue - Beta agonist
36
AF stages and management?
1. Silent: no treatment 2. Paroxysmal: CHADVaSc + HAS-BLED + anticoagulation Rate control (betablocker, digoxin [non-dihydropyridine in >40% EF] Ablation 3.Persistent: Cardioversion 4.Permanent: Ablation
37
What are three vagal manoeuvres?
1. Breath-holding 2. Valsalva (modified) 3. Carotid massage on one side (young patients)
38
Short term medical management of SVT?
Flecainide (best but CI’d in MI history) Adenosine (90% effective in AVNRT or AVRT) CCB (Verapamil contraindicated in Beta Blocker patients)
39
Which drugs should NOT be used in WPW or AVRT?
WPW Contraindications 1. Verapamil 2. Digoxin 3. Amiodarone
40
What is the medical management of stable VT?
Stable VT 1. Beta blockade 2. Amiodarone (300mg loading, 900mg over 24hrs) 3. Lidocaine (50-100mg over 3-5 mins)
41
AF Signs and Sx
1. Palpitations 2. Dizziness 3. SoB and Fatigue
42
AF Mx
1. CHA2DVASc and HASBLED 2. Rate control (BB /CCB) 3. Rhythm control (BB) 4. Catheter ablation
43
AF | First prescription Follow-up
AF Follow-up 1. 1 Week of Tx 2. Ventricular rate: 60-80 (90-115 during exercise) 3. INR 2-3 (Warfarin)
44
HFPeF - Risk factors
HFPeF RFs 1. Age 2. Obesity 3. Diabetes 4. HTN
45
HFReF Foundation Drugs
HFReF Foundation Drugs 1. BB 2. ACEi 3. Spironolactone 4. SGLT
46
IHD Mx
IHD Mx Conservative 1. Lifestyle Medical 2. BP 3. Lipids (Statin -> PCSK9) 4. HbA1c 5. Anti-platelet 6. GTN Spray
47
Bi-fascicular block | - ECG
Bi-fascicular block RBBB with: 1. Left anterior fascicular block - Left axis deviation 2. Left posterior fascicular block - Right axis deviation - Less common (R+L circumflex supply)
48
Tri-fascicular Block | - ECG
Tri-fascicular Block 1. RBBB 2. Left axis deviation 3. Third degree block
49
Unstable WPW | - Management
Unstable WPW 1. DC Cardiovert
50
WPW Management | - Narrow tachy
Narrow Tachy WPW 1. Valsalva 2. Adenosine or AV blocking - 2º Verapamil/diltiazem - 2º Metoprolol - 3º Amiodarone/flecainide 3. Rapid Pacing 4. DC cardiovert
51
WPW Management | - Wide complex
Wide tachy WPW 1. IV Adenosine Or Anti-arrhythmics - 2º Procainamide - 2º Amiodarone/flecainide
52
WPW Management | - Stable w/ AF or A Flutter
WPW and AF or A Flutter 1. Antiarrhythmics - Procainamide - Flecainide 2. Rapid pacing 3. DC Cardiovert
53
WPW Management | - Stable w/ Atrial Tachycardia
Atrial Tachy WPW 1 Anti-arrhythmic - Procainamide/ibutilide - Amiodarone/flecainide