Cardiology Flashcards
The nurse is monitoring a client who has recently undergone pericardiocentesis. Following the procedure, the nurse assesses the client and finds a decreased blood pressure, distended neck veins, and clear lungs. The nurse suspects that the client has developed which of the following?
1) Heart failure
2) Cardiac tamponade
3) Pericarditis
4) Cardiomyopathy
Cardiac tamponade
Rationale: Cardiac tamponade occurs as a result of accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac. This restricts filling of the cardiac chambers and thus reduces stroke volume, cardiac output, and blood pressure. Because the right atrium is also affected, jugular venous distention (JVD) occurs and the lungs are clear. In heart failure (option 1), the cardiac chambers are dilated, and the increase in volume and pressure is reflected back to the lungs causing crackles to develop as an early sign. Pericarditis (option 3) is one cause of cardiac tamponade. Signs of pericarditis include a temperature elevation and chest pain. Cardiomyopathy may cause heart failure with the development of crackles (option 4).
A 54-year-old male client was recently diagnosed with subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE). The nurse determines that the client understands the discharge teaching when he makes which statement?
1) “I need a referral to a dietician to understand a low- sodium diet.”
2) “I have to call my doctor so I can get antibiotics before seeing the dentist.”
3) “Can I take the antibiotics as a pill now?’
4) “If I quit smoking, it will help the endocarditis.”
“I have to call my doctor so I can get antibiotics before seeing the dentist.”
Rationale: Once a client is diagnosed with SBE, he or she is at risk for repeated episodes. Taking prophylactic antibiotics prior to dental care is an important activity to prevent further infections. There is no routine sodium restriction with SBE unless heart failure develops (option 1). Antibiotic treatment for SBE is given by the IV route for the entire course (option 3). Although stopping smoking will decrease his risk factor for coronary artery disease, it does not affect the SBE (option 4).
The nurse on a cardiac unit is caring for a client admitted with an acute exacerbation of heart failure. The nurse concludes that the client’s condition is worsening after noting which of the following with client assessment?
1) Sinus tachycardia becomes normal sinus rhythm
2) Urine drainage is increased in amount
3) A cough develops with pink frothy sputum
4) Falls asleep when not disturbed
A cough develops with pink frothy sputum
Rationale: Heart failure is the accumulation of fluid in the alveoli characterized by increased crackles, tachypnea, tachycardia, pink frothy sputum, decreased SO2 and PO2. The amount and severity of symptoms indicates the severity of the disease. The client in heart failure presents with acute restlessness and anxiety and is unable to fall asleep when acutely short of breath (option 4). The SNS stimulation not only causes the anxiety but also a tachycardia. As the SNS stimulation decreases and heart failure resolves, the heart rate declines (option 1). Urine output is generally decreased in heart failure clients but is increased when treated with diuretic therapy (option 2).
A client is scheduled for coronary angiography. In reviewing the client’s record, what significant finding would the nurse report to the healthcare provider before the diagnostic procedure?
1) Client reported an allergy to shrimp.
2) Client’s electocardiogram shows atrial fibrillation
3) Potassium level is 4.0 mEq/L
4) Client has a history of chronic renal failure
Client reported an allergy to shrimp.
Rationale: The contrast medium or dye typically used for cardiac angiography is iodine based. The client with a known allergy to shellfish is at risk for anaphylaxis and requires the use of an alternate (hypoallergenic) contrast medium. Atrial fibrillation (option 2) and chronic renal failure (option 4) are not contraindications to cardiac angiography. A value of 4.0 mEq/L is normal value for potassium (option 3).
The nurse is implementing a discharge teaching plan for a client newly diagnosed with heart failure. When discussing fluid status with the client, the nurse would explain the importance of doing which of the following?
1) Restricting fluid intake to apx 800 mL/ day
2) Taking an extra diuretic if there is decreased urination for several days
3) Recording body weight every day before breakfast and report a weight gain of 3 or more pounds in a week
4) Keeping track of daily output and calling hp if it is less than 1 L on anyday
Recording body weight every day before breakfast and report a weight gain of 3 or more pounds in a week.
Rationale: Daily weight is the most sensitive indicator of changes in fluid status. It is more accurate for a client at home than urine output (option 4). A fluid restriction (option 1) may be recommended for a client with advanced heart failure, but it is not a method of monitoring fluid status. The client should never adjust the dose of his or her medications independently (option 2).
The nurse is caring for a client with complete heart block who is being prepared to have a temporary transvenous pacemaker inserted. In briefly explaining the blockage to the cardiac conduction system to the client, the nurse would point out which area on the diagram shown? Select the affected area.
Atrioventricular node (AV node, bundle of His) Rationale: Atrioventricular (AV) node heart block occurs because of conduction abnormalities at AV node . First-degree block indicates a slowed AV nodal conduction (PR interval greater than 0.2 second duration). Second-degree indicates intermittent AV nodal block that can be either Mobitz Type 1 or Type 2. Third-degree block (complete heart block) indicates a complete dissociation between atrial and ventricular conduction fibers because of a loss of impulse transmission through the AV node. The other areas are unaffected.
A client is getting ready to go home after acute myocardial infarction (AMI). The client is asking questions about the prescribed medications, and wants to know why metoprolol (Lopressor) was prescribed. The nurse’s best response would be which of the following?
1) “Your heart was beating too slowly, and metoprolol increases your heart rate.”
2) “Lopressor helps to increse the blood to the heart by dialating your coronary arteries.”
3) “Lopressor helps make your heart beat stronger to supply more blood to your boby.”
4) “Lopressor slows your heart rate and decreases the amount of work it has to do so it can heal.”
“Lopressor slows your heart rate and decreases the amount of work it has to do so it can heal.”
Rationale: Metoprolol (Lopressor) is a beta adrenergic blocker that slows the heart rate and decreases myocardial contractility (option 4). These actions reduce cardiac workload. Because of this, options 1 and 3 cannot be true. Nitroglycerine is a drug that dilates the coronary arteries (option 2).
A client is taking digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix) for heart failure. The nurse approves of which of the following client selections that is the best menu choice for this client?
1) Chicken with baked potato and cantaloupe.
2) Ham and cheese omelet with low- cholesterol egg substitute
3) Grilled cheeseand and pan- browned potatoes
4) Pizza with low- fat mozzarella cheese and pepperoni
Chicken with baked potato and cantaloupe.
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes a loss of serum potassium. When taken concurrently with digoxin, it can potentiate digoxin toxicity. For clients who are taking a diuretic regularly, especially with concurrent digoxin, they should be instructed to eat foods high in potassium and low in sodium to prevent additional fluid overload with heart failure and prevent excess potassium loss. Chicken, potato, and cantaloupe are all potassium-rich foods (option 1), while the foods in options 2, 3, and 4 are higher in sodium. Note that the foods in options 3 and 4 are also higher in fat.
The nurse is caring for a newly admitted client with a diagnosis of restrictive cardiomyopathy. When planning this client’s care, which of the following would be the most appropriate nursing diagnosis?
1) Fear related to new onset of symptoms.
2) Hopelessness related to lack of cure and debilitating symptoms.
3) Defecient knowledge related to medication regime.
4) Activity intolerance related to decreased cardiac output.
Activity intolerance related to decreased cardiac output.
Rationale: All clients with cardiomyopathy have some decrease in their cardiac output and corresponding activity intolerance (option 4). The experiences of fear (option 1), hopelessness (option 2), or deficient knowledge (option 3) are client specific and must be evaluated on an individual basis. Any or all of these may be present, but more data would be needed to determine whether the other nursing diagnoses apply.
The nurse working on a cardiac telemetry unit prepares to utilize an external pacemaker after noting that an assigned client has a blood pressure of 70/52 and has developed which of the following cardiac dysrhythmias?
1) Ventricular fibrillation.
2) Atrial fibrillation.
3) Ventricular tachycardia.
4) Second-degree heart block.
Second-degree heart block.
Rationale: The client with severe bradycardia, third-degree or complete heart block, or second-degree heart block (which has a high potential to progress to complete AV block) are those who are most likely to need an external pacemaker as a temporary therapy until definitive treatment can be given. Defibrillation is the only effective and definitive treatment for a client who is in ventricular fibrillation (option 1). A client in rapid atrial fibrillation (option 2) and unstable ventricular tachycardia (option 3) may require synchronized cardioversion to terminate the abnormal rhythm.
The nurse has admitted a client to the emergency department with complaints of chest pain over the previous 2 hours. There are no clear changes on the 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG). The nurse would expect which laboratory test to provide confirmation of a myocardial infarction (MI)?
CK of 320 with MB of 12%
CK of 320 with MB of 12%
Rationale: A CK level > 150 with > 5% MB isoenzyme indicates myocardial damage from acute myocardial infarction (option 3). An MM band relates to skeletal muscle damage (option 2). Elevated potassium is not indicative of myocardial infarction (option 1). Elevated white blood count (WBC) is an indicator of many conditions including MI (option 4).
The nurse is preparing to discharge a client after coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. The client is taking several new medications including digoxin (Lanoxin), metoprolol (Lopressor), and furosemide (Lasix). The client reports nausea and anorexia. Before reporting this new finding to the health care provider, the nurse checks which priority laboratory test result?
Digoxin level
Digoxin level
Rationale: Nausea and anorexia are signs of digitalis toxicity (option 4). Although hypokalemia can predispose the client to digitalis toxicity, it is not the most important value to note. The sodium level and INR (options 2 and 3) are not applicable.
The registered nurse (RN) has finished reviewing the 07:00 shift report on a telemetry unit. Which of the following would be the best client for the RN to assign to the licensed practical nurse (LPN)?
Rationale: A stable client with complex dressings is an appropriate assignment for a LPN, because the procedures are appropriate for an LPN (option 1). Initial assessment (new admission from the ED) (option 2), the assessment of a client before and after a complex procedure (PTCA) (option 4) and discharge teaching (option 3) are all responsibilities of the professional registered nurse and may not be delegated to the LPN.
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of hypertension who is being treated with metoprolol (Lopressor), hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrodiuril), and captopril (Capoten). The client has a blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg, and a pulse rate of 48. Which of the following is the best action by the nurse?
Administer the captopril and the hydrochlorothiazide, withhold the metoprolol, and notify the health care provider.
Rationale: The client’s heart rate reveals bradycardia and metoprolol, a beta blocker, decreases the heart rate (option 2). Neither the captopril nor the hydrochlorothiazide lower the heart rate, and may be safely administered to maintain control of the hypertension. When a dose of medication is withheld, it is the responsibility of the nurse to notify the health care provider of the action and rationale.
The nurse has finished reviewing the intershift report on a cardiac unit. The nurse should plan to see which of the following assigned clients first?
Client receiving antibiotics for bacterial endocarditis who is reporting anxiety and chest pain.
Rationale: A client with endocarditis is at risk for thrombus formation, and chest pain and anxiety are signs of pulmonary embolism (PE), which is a life-threatening complication that requires immediate attention (option 3). The other conditions are serious but not as pressing as the client with possible PE. Dyspnea is a chronic symptom with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy which requires assessment (option 1); a temperature of 101°F requires additional assessment (option 4); and a client who is ambulating for the first time will be assessed by the nurse (option 2). The nurse can assess all of these clients once the life-threatening problem is assessed.
A client with a new diagnosis of atrial fibrillation is being discharged to home. The nurse explains that which of the following is an important symptom to report to the physician?
Hemoptysis
Rationale: A serious complication of atrial fibrillation is pulmonary embolism (option 4). Chest pain and hemoptysis are common symptoms of pulmonary embolism. Irregular pulse is expected with atrial fibrillation (option 1). Fatigue may accompany atrial fibrillation in some individuals (option 3) particularly if the heart rate is elevated. Fever is not associated with atrial fibrillation (option 2), and is not necessarily included in discharge teaching. Another serious complication of atrial fibrillation not addressed in the question is stroke, so a change in level of consciousness or other signs of stroke would also warrant immediate attention.
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of renal failure and a new myocardial infarction. The nurse is reviewing laboratory findings and calls the health care provider to report which result?
Calcium level of 7.0 mg/dL
Rationale: Renal failure is a common cause of hypocalcemia and a value of 7.0 mg/dL is below the normal range of serum calcium, which is 9-11 mg/dL (option 3). Options 1 and 2 are within normal ranges for potassium (3.5-5.1 mEq/L) and sodium (135-145 mEq/L) and option 4 is within the therapeutic range of digoxin (0.5-2.0 ng/mL).
A client has had a permanent pacemaker inserted in the operating room as treatment for complete heart block. The nurse determines that which of the following client outcomes indicates a successful procedure?
Client’s cardiac monitor shows paced beats at the rate of 68 per minute
Rationale: The client is not allowed to ambulate for 24 hours to prevent dislodging of the electrodes (option 1). Normal sinus rhythm, heart rate of 80 and a BP of 120/80 do not explicitly reflect pacemaker function (options 2 and 3). Paced beats indicate that the pacemaker is functioning (option 4).
The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of aortic stenosis. The client reports episodes of angina and passing out recently at home. The client has surgery scheduled in two weeks. Which of the following would be the nurse’s best explanation about activity at this time?
Rationale: Symptomatic aortic stenosis has a poor prognosis without surgery because of a fixed cardiac output. Restricting activity limits myocardial oxygen consumption and demand for an increased cardiac output (option 1). Since the incidence of sudden death is high in this population, it is prudent to decrease the strain on the heart while awaiting surgery. Each of the incorrect options has some degree of exercise or activity that could increase the cardiac demand more than the cardiac muscle can accommodate.
The nurse is caring for a client who just underwent cardiac angiography. The catheter insertion site has no bleeding or signs of hematoma. The vital signs and distal pulses remain in the client’s normal range. The intravenous fluids were discontinued. The client is not hungry or thirsty and refuses any food or fluids, asking to be left alone to rest. Which of the following is the nurse’s best response?
“It is important to drink fluids after this procedure, to protect your kidney function. I will bring you a pitcher of water for you to drink.”
Rationale: The contrast medium (dye) used in angiography is nephrotoxic, and the client should have adequate fluids after the procedure to eliminate the dye (option 3). Resting is not contraindicated after the procedure as long as the client has adequate fluids (option 1). Leg exercises are not recommended (option 4). Although a client can walk 6 or more hours after angiography, the most important intervention that the client needs is to encourage fluids (option 2).