Cardio Quickfire 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Statins and fibrates
a) which is used for hypercholesterolaemia and which is used for high triglycerides?
b) LDL Target for high risk and medium risk patients
c) add on therapy to statins

A

a) statins for cholesterol, fibrates for triglycerides
b) <1.8 in high risk, <3 in medium risk
c) ezetimibe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Posterior STEMI
a) Arteries affected with associated ST changes (other than V7-9)

A

a) PDA (branch of RCA in most - associated inferior STE, branch of LCxA in some - associated lateral STE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Acute heart failure:
a) Acute management
b) What to do about beta blockers?
c) Other treatments

A

a) - Reducing preload: Diuretics, (nitrates only used in Level 2 care if coexisting ACS, severe HTN, or aortic/mitral regurgitation)
- Improvement of LV function: ACE inhibitors (once BP stabilised)
- BP support: inotropes
- Respiratory support: Oxygen, CPAP
- CRT/cardioversion/transplant etc.
- Angiography + PCI/CABG

b) Beta blockers:
- If already taking beta‑blockers, continue unless HR <50, 2nd/3rd AV block or shock
- Start BBs when stabilised (e.g. no longer needing IV diuretics)
- Ensure stable for 48 hours after starting or restarting beta‑blockers before discharging from hospital

c) - Start ACE-inhibitors and MRA if reduced LVEF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

HFpEF
a) Define
b) Risk factors
c) Management

A

a) High LV filling pressures with preserved systolic function (LVEF >50%)*

*Note that heart failure with EF 40-49% is considered mid-range = HFmrEF. These patients are often treated as for HFrEF with BBs/ACE/MRA, etc.

b) - Hypertension
- Fibrillation (AF)
- Pulmonary hypertension
- Elderly
- Fat (obesity)

c) - SGLT2 inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists (if NYHA class 2-3 and raised BNP)
- Symptom control - diuretics, fluid restriction, etc.
- Control of other risk factors - e.g. BP, cholesterol, diabetes, AF, obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

ICD
a) NICE indications
b) Explain what CRT-C and CRT-D are

A

a) - Previous VT or VF arrest
- Spontaneous sustained VT causing syncope or significant haemodynamic compromise
- Sustained VT with LVEF <35% and NYHA I-III (not IV)
- Familial cardiac condition with a high risk of sudden death, such as long QT syndrome, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, Brugada syndrome or arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia
- Surgical repair of congenital heart disease.

b) CRT-P is CRT with pacing. Usually given for NYHA class IV with long QRS

  • CRT-D is CRT with defibrillation. Usually given for NYHA class I-III with long QRS and LBBB (if just QRS <150ms, give ICD alone)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Vasopressors + Inotropes
- NorAd, Ad, Dob, Dop, Pheny (order)

A
  • NAd - vasopressor + weak inotrope
  • Ad vasopressor + strong inotrope
  • Dob - inotrope and vasodilator
  • Dopamine - vasopressor and inotrope (better in cardiac arrhythmia)
  • Pheny - vasopressor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Indications for a PPM

A
  • Sinus pauses >3 seconds
  • Symptomatic Mobitz type 1
  • Mobitz type 2
  • Complete HB
  • In CCF - CRT-P for NYHA class IV and long QRS

N.B. stop/reduce doses of any AV blocking drugs (e.g. adenosine, bisoprolol, CCBs, digoxin) beforehand to see if this removes need for PPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Ventricular ectopics
a) What is considered a high frequency in 24h? (and sometimes requires treatment)
b) What is the potential risk of high frequency VEs?

A

a) >1000 in 24h

b) Cardiomyopathy, LV impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Aortic regurgitation
a) Presentation
b) Management

A

a) Usually asymptomatic
- Symptoms present late

b) - Annual review for mild/mod and severe
- Annual ECHO for severe AR (or more frequent)
- 2-3 yearly ECHO for mild-moderate AR
- ACE inhibitors likely prevent LV remodelling in AR
- Elective replacement if symptomatic AR, LVEF <50% or LV dilatation (LVED >50mm)
- Emergency replacement for acute severe AR (usually due to IE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Angina:
a) Typical features (triad)
b) Diagnosis
c) Management
d) including when to consider revascularisation

A

a) 1. Central chest (or jaw/neck/arm) tightening
2. Precipitated by exertion
3. Relieved by rest

b) Initially do ECG and troponins if in ED. Then confirm with:
- 1st line - CT Coronary angiography
(significant = 70% stenosis of a main coronary artery i.e. one greater than 2mm, or 50% stenosis of the left main stem)
- 2nd line - Functional testing for REVERSIBLE myocardial ischaemia (SPECT, stress ECHO, stress cardiac MR)
- 3rd line - Invasive angiography

c) 1. GTN spray + advice for use
2. Anti-anginals. “Optimal” therapy is:
- 1st line is BB or CCB
- If not tolerated/CI, then offer monotherapy with ISMN, ranolazine, nicorandil or ivabradine
- 2nd line is BB + CCB, or BB/CCB + ISMN/R/N/I
3. Secondary prevention
- Aspirin 75mg OD
- Statin
- ACE inhibitor if diabetic

d) - Consider revascularisation when angina symptoms are not controlled on “optimal” angina therapy which means 2 anti-anginals (or 1 on ISMN/ ranolazine/ nicorandil/ ivabradine monotherapy).
- If revascularisation not appropriate, then add 3rd anti-anginal
- Also, while awaiting revascularisation, can add 3rd anti-anginal
- If main stem/complex 3 vessel disease or over 65 or diabetic, consider CABG
- Otherwise, PCI generally first line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cardiac syndrome X
a) What is it?
b) How is it diagnosed?
c) How is it treated?
d) vs coronary vasospasm

A

a) - Anginal chest pain with no evidence of significant stenosis* on angiogram (microvascular angina)
- Most common in peri/post-menopausal females

  • > 50% left main stem or >70% in main coronaries i.e. those bigger than 2mm

b) - Typical/atypical anginal pain with normal CT/invasive angiogram
- Pain/ ST depression/ reversible ischaemia on exercise stress testing or DSE

c) - Anti-anginals
- Also TCAs effective if BBs are not
- Not routinely offered secondary prevention

d) Coronary vasospasm generally occurs at rest (Prinzmetal angina) or with vasoconstricting agents (e.g. cocaine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Carotid sinus hypersensitivity
a) Typical presentation
b) Management

A

a) Collapses following shaving, neck extension, or if wearing tight collared shirts. With quick recovery

b) - Avoidance of precipitants
- Fludrocortisone
- PPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Duke’s criteria for IE
a) Major
b) Minor
c) How many of each are needed?

A

a) - 2x positive blood cultures with typical species for IE*
- ECHO evidence of IE**

*Or single positive blood culture for Coxiella burnetii

**Oscillating intracardiac mass on valve or supporting structures, in the path of regurgitant jets, or on implanted material in the absence of an alternative anatomic explanation; or
Abscess; or
New partial dehiscence of prosthetic valve; or
New valvular regurgitation (worsening or changing of pre-existing murmur not sufficient)

b) - Predisposing factor (valve issue or IVDU)
- Temp >38C
- Vascular phenomena* ( major arterial emboli, septic pulmonary infarcts, mycotic aneurysm, intracranial hemorrhage, conjunctival hemorrhages, and Janeway lesions)
- Immunological phenomena (GN, Osler nodes, Roth spots, Rheumatoid factor)
- Positive blood cultures not meeting the major criteria
- ECHO evidence of endocarditis not meeting the major criteria

*Splinter haemorrhages NOT accepted here

c) - 2 Major, or
- 1 Major and 3 minor, or
- 5 minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Congenital shunts
a) Which direction causes cyanosis?
b) What is Eisenmenger’s?
c) When do VSDs vs ASDs present

A

a) Right to left

b) Reversal of left-right shunt with PAH that causes right-left shunt and cyanosis

c) VSDs in childhood, ASDs in adulthood usually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Complications post-MI
a) Rapid deterioration with hypotension, acute heart failure (pulmonary oedema) and pansystolic murmur, 5-10 days post-MI
b) Further episode of chest pain with ECG change and troponin rise post-PCI
c) Hypotension and abdominal pain in 24h post-PCI
d) Pleuritic chest pain and diffuse ST elevation 1 week - 3 months post-MI
e) Tachycardia
f) Bradycardia
g) Persisting ST elevation 2 weeks post-MI
h) Post-PCI, livedo reticularis with blue toes, AKI, and eosinophilia

A

a) - Ventricular septal rupture or acute MR secondary to chordae tendinae rupture*.
- Diagnose each on ECHO with doppler.
- Treat with nitrates (reduce afterload), inotropes and surgery

*More likely in inferior or posterior MI

b) In-stent thrombosis, or new infarct - depends on territory affected on ECG.
May also be T2MI (check for anaemia, hypotension, etc.)

c) Retroperitoneal haematoma

d) Dressler syndrome.
Treat with high dose aspirin/NSAIDs

e) - If non-sustained (<30s) and haemodynamically stable –>Don’t treat
- If sustained, treat as per ALS. Note that reperfusion may be indicated
- If rate <110, likely an accelerated junctional rhythm, which is a sign of reperfusion post-MI

f) - Beta-blockade, increased vagal tone
- Inferior MI - transient heart block due to oedema, generally resolves in 1 week, generally managed conservatively
- Anterior MI - reflects widespread ischaemia and poor prognosis. Indications for tvPacing would be Mobitz 2/CHB, new LBBB or new bifascicular block

g) LV aneurysm

h) Cholesterol embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Saphenous vs LIMA graft

A

LIMA has greater longevity

17
Q

Takotsubo cardiomyopathy
a) Pathophysiology
b) Presentation
c) Diagnosis
d) Management

A

a) - Catecholamine surge as a result of physical or emotional stress that results in ballooning of the apex of the heart and transient wall motion abnormalities

b) Presents as ACS, often STEMI

c) - ECG changes and troponin rise
- ECHO - dyskinetic apices, characteristic octopus pot shape, RWMA
- Normal coronary angiography (<50% stenosis)
- Absence of myocarditis or phaeo

d) - Supportive, usually spontaneously recover in 3 weeks
- May require anticoagulation if significant dyskinesia

18
Q

Heart failure in pregnancy: causes

A
  • Peripartum cardiomyopathy
  • Congenital heart disease e.g. bicuspid valve, VSD
19
Q

Types of PPM
a) 4 basic types
b) Pacing and sensing programs

A

a) - Single chamber (RV, box sited below left clavicle) - AF or the elderly/frail
- Dual chamber (RA and RV, box usually sited below right clavicle) - physiologically better than dual chamber as atria contract first then ventricles, allowing adequate filling to optimise CO, best for symptomatic heart block
- Biventricular (3 leads - RA, RV and LV) - for heart failure, resynchronise LV + RV contraction to increase CO
- ICD - can shock for VF (large DC shock) or delivering anti-tachy pacing (faster than internal rhythm to restore normal sinus rhythm)

b) - VVI - ventricular paced, ventricular sensing, inhibits ventricular pacing (facilitates intrinsic conduction where possible)*
- DDI - dual chamber pacing, dual chamber sensing, inhibits pacing in both atria and ventricles

*This is why pacing spikes are not always seen - they will be absent where there is normal intrinsic activity

20
Q

Driving regulations
a) STEMI, NSTEMI
b) UA
c) Unexplained LOC
d) PPM insertion, angioplasty, stent insertion
e) TIA

A

a) 4 weeks
b) Can drive from discharge
c) 6 months
d) 1 week
e) 4 weeks

21
Q

31 year old barrister presents with dizzy episodes that occur at rest without position change. Examination reveals a systolic murmur and S3 ‘plop’ sound but no other positive findings.
a) Diagnosis
b) Management

A

a) Atrial myxoma

b) - Confirmed by ECHO - usually a left atrial mass
- Refer for surgery - good outcomes