Cardio Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Factor V Leiden

A
  • more common in Caucasian
  • alters an amino acid residue in factor V and renders it resistant to protein C (failure of protein C to prolong aPTT)
  • heterozygotes carry 5-fold increased risk for venous thrombosis, with homozygotes having a 50-fold increased risk
  • seen to exist in compound states with other defects (i.e. protein C, protein S, or ATIII deficiency)
  • 35 fold incrtease of developing DVT if taking OCPs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Prothrombin mutation (G20210A variant)

A
  • single-nucleotide substitution
  • results in more stable mRNA and increased prothrombin transcription
  • three-fold increased risk for venous thromboses
  • heterozygotes at increased risk of VTE
  • compound heterozygous state in conjunction with other thrombophilias seen
  • young age of first thrombosis
  • up to 40% of homozygotes may not experience thrombotic event
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Hyperhomocysteinemia

A
  • vitamin B12 deficienc
  • folate deficiency
  • lack of vitamin B12 or folate leads to decreased conversion of homocysteine to methionine resulting in buildup of homocysteine
  • cystathionine beta synthase (CBS) deficiency results in high homocystein elevels with homocystinuria
  • CBS converts homocysteine to cystathionine; enzyme build up leads to homocysteine buildup
  • characterized by vessel thrombosis mental retardation, lens dislocation, and long slender fingers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenic (HIT) syndrome

A
  • occurs in up to 5% of patients treated with unfractionated heparin
  • development of auto-antibodies that bind complexes of heparin and platelet membrane protein (PF-4)
  • antibodies may bind similar complzes present on platelet and endothelial surfaces, resulting in platelet activation, aggregation, and consumption (thrombocytopenia)
  • causes prothrombotic state
  • fragments of destroyed platelets may activate remaining platelets, leading to thrombosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Antiphospholipid Antibody Syndrome

A
  • recurrent thrombosis, repeated miscarriages, cardiac valve vegetations, thrombocytopenia
  • associated with autoantibodies directed against anionic phospholipids (e.g. cardiolipin) or , more accurately, plasma protein antigens that are unveiled by binding to such phospholipids (e.g. prothrombin)
  • induces hypercoagulable state, perhaps by inducing endothelial injury, by activating platelets or complement directly, or by interacting with the catalytic domains of certain coagulation factors
  • secondary antiphospholipid syndrome –> well defined autoimmune disease such as lupus
  • primary antiphospholipid syndrome –> hypercoagulable state without evidence of another autoimmune disorder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Protein C/Protein S Deficiency

A
  • decreases negative feedback on the coagulation cascade
  • normally inactivate factors V and VIII
  • increased risk of warfarin skin necrosis
  • in preexisting C or S deficiency, a severe deficiency is seen at the onset of warfarin therapy increasing risk for thrombosis, especially in the skin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Antithrombin III Deficiency

A
  • decreases the protective effect of heparin-like molecules produced by the endothelium
  • increases risk of thrombus
  • heparin-like molecules normally activate ATIII, which inactivates thrombin and coagulation factors
  • in ATIII deficiency, PTT does not rise with standard heparin dosing because heparin levels cannot activate limited ATIII
  • high doses of heparin activate limited ATIII; coumadin is then given to maintain an anticoagulated state
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP)

A
  • pathologic formation of platelet microthrombi in small vessels
  • platelets are consumed in the formation of microthrombi
  • RBCs are sheared as they cross microthrombi, resulting in hemolytic anemia with schistocytes
  • due to decreased ADAMTS12, an enzyme that normally cleaves vWF multimers into smaller monomers for eventual degradation
  • large uncleaved multimers lead to abnormal platelet adhesion, resulting in microthrombi
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Warfarin Induced Skin Necrosis

A
  • microvascular thrombosis
  • may occur in patients with heterozygous protein C or S deficiency if a high initial dose is used or heparin overlap is inadequate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Bernard-Soulier syndrome

A
  • due to a genetic GPIb deficiency
  • platelet adhesion is impaired
  • blood smear shows mild thrombocytopenia with enlarged platelets
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Glanzmann Thrombasthenia

A
  • genetic GPIIb/IIa deficiency

- platelet aggregation impaired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Aspirin

A
  • irreversibly inactivates cyclooxygenase

- lack of TXA2 impairs aggregation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Uremia

A
  • disrupts platelet function

- both adhesion and aggregation are impaired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Hemophilia A

A
  • genetic factor VIII deficiency
  • X-linked recessive
  • deep tissue, joint, and postsurgical bleeding
  • increased PTT; normal PT
  • normal platelet count and bleeding time
  • treatment: recombinant FVIII
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Hemophilia B

A
  • genetic factor IX deficiency

- resembles hemophilia A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Von Willebrand Disease

A
  • genetic vWF deficiency
  • most common inherited coagulation disorder
  • mild mucosal and skin bleeding
  • increased bleeding time
  • increased PTT; normal PT (decreased VIII half-life)
  • abnormal ristocetin test
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Ristocetin

A
  • induces platelet agglutination by causing vWF to bind platelet GPIb
  • lack of vWF –> impaired agglutination –> abnormal test
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Vitamin K Deficiency

A
  • vit. K is activated by epoxide reductase in the liver
  • activated vit. K gamma carboxylates factors II, VII, IX, X, and Proteins C and S
  • deficiency in newborns (lack of GI colonization)
  • deficiency in long-term antibiotic use
  • malabsorption causes deficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)

A
  • pathologic activation of the coagulation cascade
  • widespread microthrombi result in ischemia and infarction
  • consumption of platelets and factors results in bleeding
  • secondary to OB complications, sepsis (endotoxins), adenocarcinoma, acute promyelocytic leukemia, rattlesnake bite
  • decreased platelet count
  • increased PT/PTT
  • decreased fibrinogen
  • elevated D-dimer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Temporal (Giant Cell) Arteritis

A
  • large-vessel vasculitis
  • granulomatous vasculitis of branches of carotid artery
  • headache (temporal artery), visual disturb. (ophthalmic artery, jaw claudication
  • flu sxs and joint pain (polymyalgia rheumatica) - ESR elev.
  • inflammed vessel wall with giant cells and intimal fibrosis
  • treatment: corticosteroids
  • high risk of blindness without treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Takayasu Arteritis

A
  • large-vessel vasculitis
  • granulomatous vasculitis of aortic arch at branch pts
  • adults )
  • ESR elevated
  • treatment: corticosteroids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Polyarteritis Nodosa

A
  • medium vessel vasculitis
  • necrotizing vasculitis involving multiple organs
  • lungs are spared
  • HTN in young adults (renal artery involvement)
  • abd pain with melena (mesenteric artery)
  • neurologic disturbances and skin lesions
  • serum HBsAg
  • early lesions: transmural inflamm. with fibrinoid necrosis
  • late lesions: heal with fibrosis, producing “string of pearls” appearance on imaging
  • treatment: corticosteroids and cyclophosphamide
  • fatal if not treated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Kawasaki Disease

A
  • medium vessel vasculitis
  • Asian children < 4 years old
  • nonspecific sxs: fever, conjunctivitis, erythematous rash of palms and soles, enlarged cervical lymph nodes
  • coronary artery involvement is common
  • thrombosis with MI
  • aneurysm with rupture
  • treatment: aspirin and IVIG
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Buerger Disease

A
  • medium vessel vasculitis
  • necrotizing vasculitis involving digits
  • ulceration, gangrene, autoamputation of fingers/toes
  • Raynaud phenomenon often present
  • highly associated with heavy smoking
  • treatment: smoking cessation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Wegener Granulomatosis

A
  • small vessel vasculitis
  • necrotizing granulomatous vasculitis involving nasopharynx, lungs, kidneys
  • middle-aged male with sinusitis or nasopharyngeal ulceration, hemoptysis with bilateral nodular lung infiltrates, and hematuria (rapidly dev. glomerulonephritis)
  • treatment: cyclophosphamide and steroids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Microscopic Polyangiitis

A
  • small vessel vasculitis
  • necrotizing vasculitis involving multiple organs
  • commonly the lungs and kidneys
  • similar to Wegener, but nasopharyngeal involvement and granulomas are absent
  • treatment: corticosteroids and cyclophosphamide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Churg-Strauss Syndrome

A
  • small vessel vasculitis
  • necrotizing granulomatous inflammation with eosinophils involving mult. organs, (lungs and heart esp.)
  • asthma and peripheral eosinophilia are often present
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Henoch-Schonlein Purpura

A
  • small vessel vasculitis
  • due to IgA immune complex deposition
  • most common vasculitis in children
  • palpable purpura on buttocks and legs
  • GI pain and bleeding
  • hematuria (IgA nephropahty)
  • usually occurs following URI
  • treatment: steroids, if severe
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Atherosclerosis

A
  • intimal plaque that obstructs blood flow
  • necrotic lipid core with fibromusc. cap
  • often undergoes dystrophic calcification
  • large and medium sized arteries
  • damaged endothelium - lipids leak into intima
  • lipids consumed by macrophages - foam cells
  • inflammation and healing - deposition of ECM and proliferation of smooth muscle
  • begins as fatty streaks (arise early in life)
  • peripheral vascular disease (e.g. popliteal)
  • angina (coronary arteries)
  • ischemic bowel disease (mesenteric arteries)
  • MI and stroke due to plaque rupture
  • aneurysm due to weakening vessel wall (e.g. abd aorta)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Hyaline Arteriolosclerosis

A
  • narrowing of small arterioles
  • hyaline: proteins leaking into the vessel wall causing vascular thickening; proteins seen as pink hyaline
  • consequence of long-standing benign HTN or diabetes
  • reduced vessel caliber with end-organ ischemia
  • glomerular scarring that slowly progresses to chronic renal failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Hyperplastic Arteriolosclerosis

A
  • narrowing of small arterioles
  • thickening of vessel wall by hyperplasia of smooth muscle (“onion-skin” appearance)
  • consequence of malignant hypertension
  • reduced vessel caliber with end-organ ischemia
  • fibrinoid necrosis of the vessel wall with hemorrhage
  • acute renal failure with characteristic “flea-bitten” appearance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Monckeberg Medial Calcific Sclerosis

A
  • calcification of the media of muscular (medium-sized) arteries
  • non-obstructive
  • not clinically significant; seen as incidental finding on CXR or mammography
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Aortic Dissection

A
  • intimal tear with dissection of blood through media
  • proximal 10 cm of aorta (high stress) with preexisting weakness of the media
  • hypertension and inherited defects of connec. tissue
  • hypertension results in hyaline arteriolosclerosis of the vasa vasorum, which decreases flow; atrophy to media
  • Marfan syndrome and Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
  • sharp, tearing CP that radiates to back
  • complications: pericardial tamponade (most common cause of death), rupture with fatal hemorrhage, obstruction of branching arteries with end-organ ischemia
34
Q

Thoracic Aneurysm

A
  • balloon-like dilation of the thoracic aorta
  • weakness in aortic wall
  • tertiary syphilis: endarteritis of the vasa vasorum results in luminal narrowing, decreased flow, and atrophy of the vessel wall
  • results in “tree-bark” appearance of the aorta
  • dilation of aortic valve root (aortic valve insufficiency)
  • compression of mediastinal structures (airway or esophagus) and thrombosis/embolism
35
Q

AAA

A
  • balloon-like dilation of the abd aorta
  • below the renal arteries, but above the aortic bifurcation
  • primarily due to atherosclerosis, which increases the diffusion barrier to the media, resulting in atrophy and weakness of the vessel wall
  • pulsatile abd mass that grows with time
  • complications: rupture, especially when >5 cm in diameter
  • triad of hypotension, pulsatile abd mass, flank pain
  • compression of local structures (e.g. ureter) and thrombosis/embolism
36
Q

Hemangioma

A
  • benign tumor comprised of blood vessels
  • commonly present at birth; often regresses during childhood
  • most often involves skin and liver
37
Q

Angiosarcoma

A
  • malignant proliferation of endothelial cells
  • highly aggressive
  • common sites: skin, breast, liver
  • liver angiosarcoma is associated with exposure to polyvinyl chloride, arsenic, and Thorostrast
38
Q

Kaposi Sarcoma

A
  • low-grade malignant proliferation of endothelial cells
  • associated with HHV-8 (Kaposi’s sarcoma-associated herpes virus)
  • purple patches, plaques, and nodules of the skin
  • may also involve visceral organs
  • older Eastern European males (tumor remains localized to skin; txt involves surgical removal)
  • AIDS: tumor spreads early; treatment is antiretroviral agents)
  • Transplant recipients: tumor spreads early; txt involves decreasing immunosuppression
39
Q

Stable Angina

A
  • CP that arises with exertion or emotional stress
  • coronary arteries with >70% stenosis
  • CP lasting <20 min
  • ST segment depression (subendocardial ischemia)
  • relieved by rest and NO
40
Q

Unstable Angina

A
  • rupture of an atherosclerotic plaque with thrombosis and incomplete occusion of a coronary artery
  • reversible injury to myocytes (no necrosis)
  • ST segment depression (subendocardial ischemia)
  • relieved by NO
  • high risk of progression to MI
41
Q

Prinzmetal Angina

A
  • coronary artery vasospasm
  • reversible injury to myocytes (no necrosis)
  • ST segment elevation due to transmural ischemia
  • relieved by NO or Ca2+ channel blockers
42
Q

Myocardial Infarction (MI)

A
  • necrosis of cardiac myocytes
  • usually due to rupture of an atherosclerotic plaque with thrombosis and complete occlusion of coronary artery
  • also by coronary artery vasospasm (Prinzmetal angina or cocaine use), emboli, and vasculitis (e.g. Kawasaki dis.)
  • severe, crushing CP (>20 min)
  • not relieved by NO
43
Q

Location of MI

A
  • usually LV (right RV and both atria generally spared)
  • occlusion of LAD: anterior wall and anterior septum (45% of cases)
  • occlusion of RCA: posterior wall, posterior septum, papillary muscles of the LV (2nd most common)
  • occlusion of LCX: lateral wall of LV
44
Q

Initial Phase of MI

A
  • subendocardial necrosis involving <50% of the myocardial thickness (subendocardial infarction)
  • ST segment depression
45
Q

Continued Phase of MI

A
  • transmural necrosis

- ST segment elevation

46
Q

Laboratory Tests (Troponin I)

A
  • most sensitive and specific marker

- levels rise 2-4 hours after infarction, peak at 24 hours, and return to normal by 7-10 days

47
Q

Laboratory Tests (CK-MB)

A
  • useful for detecting reinfarction that occurs days after an initial MI
  • levels rise 4-6 hrs after infarction, peak at 24 hrs, and return to normal by 72 hrs
48
Q

MI Treatment

A
  • aspirin and/or heparin (limits thrombosis)
  • supplemental O2 (minimized ischemia)
  • nitrates (vasodilate veins and coronary arteries)
  • beta-blocker (shows heart rate, decreased O2 demand and risk for arrhythmia)
  • ACE inhibitor (decreases LV dilation)
  • fibrinolysis or angioplasty (opens blocked vessel)
  • reperfusion or irreversibly-damaged cells results in calcium influx, leading to hypercontraction of myofibrils (contraction band necrosis)
  • return of O2 and inflammatory cells may lead to free radical generation, further damaging myocytes (reperfusion injury)
49
Q

MI (<4 hrs)

A
  • no gross changes
  • no microscopic changes
  • complications: cardiogenic shock (massive infarction), CHF, and arrhythmia
50
Q

MI (4-24 hrs)

A
  • gross changes (dark discoloration)
  • coagulative necrosis
  • complications: arrhythmias
51
Q

MI (1-3 days)

A
  • gross changes (yellow pallor)
  • neutrophils
  • complications: fibrinous pericarditis; presents as CP with friction rub
52
Q

MI (4-7 days)

A
  • gross changes (yellow pallor)
  • macrophages
  • complications: rupture of ventricular free wall (leads to cardiac tamponade), interventricular septum (leads to shunt), or papillary muscle (leads to mitral insufficiency)
53
Q

MI (1-3 weeks)

A
  • gross changes (white scar)
  • fibrosis
  • complications: aneurysm, mural thrombus, or Dressler syndrome (immune system response leading to pericarditis)
54
Q

Sudden Cardiac Death

A
  • usually due to fatal ventricular arrhythmia
  • without symptoms or <1 hour after sxs arise
  • acute ischemia
  • less common causes: mitral valve prolapse, cardiomyopathy, cocaine abuse
55
Q

Left-Sided HF

A
  • causes: ischemia, HTN, dilated cardiomyopathy, MI, restrictive cardiomyopathy
  • decreased forward perfusion and pulmonary congestion
  • pulmonary edema (dyspnea, PND, orthopnea, rales)
  • ** intraalveolar hemorrhage marked by hemosiderin-laden macrophages (“heart failure cells”) ***
  • decreased flow to kidneys leads to fluid retention (exacerbates CHF)
  • mainstay of treatment: ACE inhibitor
56
Q

Right-Sided HF

A
  • commonly due to left-sided HF
  • also caused by left to right shunt and chronic lung disease (cor pulmonale)
  • JVD
  • painful hepatosplenomegaly with characteristic “nutmeg” liver; may lead to cardiac cirrhosis
  • dependent pitting edema
57
Q

VSD

A
  • defect in septum that divides RV and LV
  • most common congenital heart defect
  • associated with fetal alcohol syndrome
  • left-to-right shunt
  • large defect can lead to Eisenmenger syndrome
  • treatment: surgical closure; small defects may close spontaneously
58
Q

ASD

A
  • defect in septum between RA and LA
  • most common type: ostium secundum
  • ostium primum type is associated with Down Syndrome
  • left-to-right shunt
  • fixed split S2
  • paradoxical emboli are an important complication
59
Q

Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)

A
  • failure of ductus arteriosus to close
  • associated with congenital rubella
  • left-to-right shunt between the aorta and the pulmonary artery
  • asymptomatic at birth with “machine-like” murmur
  • may lead to Eisenmenger syndrome, with lower extremity cyanosis
  • treatment: indomethacin, which decreases PGE, resulting in PDA closure (PGE maintains patency)
60
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot

A
  • stenosis of the right ventricular outflow tract
  • right ventricular hypertrophy
  • VSD
  • aorta that overrides the VSD
  • right-to-left shunt leads to early cyanosis
  • pts learn to squat in response to cyanotic spell (increased arterial resistance decreases shunting and allows more blood to reach the lungs)
  • “boot-shaped” heart on x-ray
61
Q

Transposition of the Great Arteries

A
  • pulmonary artery arising from the LV and aorta arising from the RV
  • associated with maternal diabetes
  • early cyanosis; pulmonary systemic circuits don’t mix
  • creation of shunt (allowing blood to mix) after birth is required for survival
  • PGE can be administered to maintain PDA until surgery
  • results in hypertrophy of RV and atrophy of LV
62
Q

Truncus Arteriosus

A
  • characterized by a single large vessel arising from both ventricles (truncus fails to divide)
  • early cyanosis
  • deoxygenated blood from the RV mixed with oxygenated blood from the LV before pulmonary and aortic circulations separate
63
Q

Tricuspid Atresia

A
  • tricuspid valve orifice fails to develop; RV ventricle is hypoplastic
  • often associated with ASD, resulting in right-to-left shunt
  • presents with early cyanosis
64
Q

Coarctation of the Aorta (infantile form)

A
  • narrowing of the aorta
  • associated with PDA; coarctation lies after (distal to) the aortic arch, but before the PDA
  • presents as lower extremity cyanosis in infants, often at birth
  • associated with Turner syndrome
65
Q

Coarctation of the Aorta (adult form)

A
  • not associated with PDA
  • coarctation lies after (distal to) the aortic arch
  • presents as hypertension in the UEs and hypotension with weak pulses in the LEs
  • classically discovered in adulthood
  • collateral circulation develops across the intercostal arteries; leading to “notching” of ribs on CXR
  • associated with bicuspid aortic valve
66
Q

Acute Rheumatic Fever

A
  • systemic complication of pharyngitis due to group A beta-hemolytic steptococci
  • affects children 2-3 wks after episode of strep throat
  • molecular mimicry; bacteral M protein resembles proteins in human tissue
  • diagnosis based on JONES criteria
  • acute attack usually resolves, but may progress to chronic rheumatic heart disease; repeat exposure to group A strep results in relapse of the acute phase and increases risk for chronic disease
67
Q

Jones Criteria For Acute Rheumatic Fever

A
  • J: joints; migratory polyarthritis (large joints)
  • O: obvious (cardiac): endocarditis (mitral valve more common than aortic); myocarditis with Aschoff bodies (foci of chronic inflammation), reactive histiocytes with slender, wavy nuclei (Anitschkow cells), giant cells, and fibrinoid material
  • N: Nodules: subcutaneous nodules
  • E: Erythema marginatum: annular, nonpruritic rash with erythematous borders, commonly involving trunk and limbs
  • S: Sydenham chorea: rapid, involuntary muscle mov’ts)
68
Q

Chronic Rheumatic Fever

A
  • valve scarring
  • stenosis with “fish-mouth” appearance (mitral stenosis)
  • almost always involves MV; leads to thickening of chordae tendineae and cusps
  • occasionally involves the aortic valve; leads to fusion of the commissures
  • infectious endocarditis
69
Q

Aortic Stenosis

A
  • narrowing of the aortic valve orifice
  • fibrosis and calcification from “wear and tear”
  • late adulthood (>60 years)
  • increased risk with bicuspid valve (increased “wear and tear” with only two valves)
  • possible consequence of chronic rheumatic fever
  • coexisting mitral stenosis and fusion of the aortic valve commissures distinguish rheumatic disease from “wear and tear”
  • cardiac compensation: prolonged asymptomatic stage with systolic ejection click followed by crescendo-decrescendo murmur is heard
  • complications: concentric LVH; angina; microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (RBCs are damaged (producing schistocytes) while crossing the calcified valve
  • treatment: valve replacement
70
Q

Aortic Regurgitation

A
  • backflow of blood from aorta into LV during diastole
  • aortic root dilation (e.g. syphilitic aneurysm and aortic dissection) or valve damage (e.g. infectious endocarditis)
  • early, blowing diastolic mrumur
  • hyperdynamic circulation: increased pulse pressure (diastolic pressure decreases due to regurg, while systolic pressure increases due to increased SV)
  • bounding pulse (water-hammer pulse), pulsating nail bed (Quincke pulse), and head bobbing
  • LV dilation and eccentric hypertrophy (volume overload)
  • treatment: valve replacement once LV dysfunction develops
71
Q

Mitral Valve Prolapse

A
  • ballooning of mitral valve into LA during systole
  • due to myxoid degeneration (accumulation of ground substance) of the valve, making it floppy
  • may be seen in Marfan or Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
  • incidental mid-systolic clikc followed by regurg murmur
  • usually asymptomatic
  • click and murmur become softer with squatting (increased systemic resistance decreases left ventricular emptying)
  • complications (rare): infectious endocarditis, arrhythmia, severe mitral regurgitation
  • treatment: valve replacement
72
Q

Mitral Regurgitation

A
  • reflux of blood from LV to LA during systole
  • arises as a complication of MV prolapse
  • also caused by LV dilatation (e.g. left-sided HF), infective endocarditis, acute rheumatic heart disease, and papillary muscle rupture after a MI
  • holosystolic “blowing” murmur; louder with squatting (increased systemic resistance decreases LV emptying) and expiration (increased return to left atrium)
  • results in volume overload and left-sided HF
73
Q

Mitral Stenosis

A
  • narrowing of the mitral valve orifice
  • usually due to chronic rheumatic valve disease
  • opening snap followed by diastolic rumble
  • volume overload leads to dilatation of the LA
  • pulmonary congestion
  • pulmonary HTN and eventual right-sided HF
  • atrial fibrillation with associated risk for mural thrombi
74
Q

Endocarditis

A
  • inflamm. of endocardium that lines the surface of cardiac valves (usually bacterial infection)
  • strep viridans most common overall (low virulence that infects previously damaged valves); results in small vegetations that do not destroy the valve (subacute endocarditis)
  • damanged endocardial surface develops thrombotic vegetations
  • transient bacteremia leads to trapping of bacteria in the vegetations
  • Staph aureus most common in IVDA (high virulence; most commonly tricuspid); large vegetations that destroy valve
  • Staph epidermidis: prosthetic valves
  • Strep bovis: endocarditis with underlying colorectal carcinoma
  • HACEK (haemophilus, actinobacillus, cardiobacterium, eikenella, kingella)
  • fever (due to bacteremia)
  • murmur
  • Janeway lesions (erythematous non-tender lesions on palms and soles)
  • Osler nodes (tender lesions on fingers or toes)
  • splinter hemorrhages
  • Roth spots
  • anemia of chronic disease (due to chronic inflamm.)
75
Q

Nonbacterial Thrombotic Endocarditis

A
  • due to sterile vegetations that arise in association with hypercoagulable state or underlying adenocarcinoma
  • vegetations arise on the mitral valve along lines of closure and result in mitral regurgitation
76
Q

Libman-Sacks Endocarditis

A
  • due to sterile vegetations that arise in association with SLE
  • vegetations are present on the surface and under-surface of the mitral valve and result in mitral regurgitation
77
Q

Dilated Cardiomyopathy

A
  • dilation of all 4 chambers of the heart
  • most common form of cardiomyopathy
  • systolic dysfunction, leading to biventricular CHF
  • complications: mitral and tricuspid valve regurgitation and arrhythmia
  • most commonly idiopathic
  • other causes: genetic mutation, myocarditis (usually coxsackie A or B) lymphocytic infiltrate the myocardium, alcohol abuse, drugs (doxorubicin), pregnancy (late pregnancy or soon (weeks to months) after childbirth), hemochromatosis
  • treatment: heart transplant
78
Q

Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy

A
  • massive hypertrophy of the LV
  • usually due to genetic mutations (AD) in sacromere proteins
  • decreased cardiac output (LV dysfunction leads to diastolic dysfunction (ventricle cannot fill))
  • sudden death due to ventricular arrhythmias (common cause of sudden death in young athletes)
  • syncope with exercise (subaortic hypertrophy of the ventricular septum results in functional aortic stenosis)
  • biopsy shows myofiber hypertrophy with disarray
79
Q

Restrictive Cardiomyopathy

A
  • decreased compliance of ventricular endocardium
  • restriction of filling during diastole
  • amyloidosis, sarcoidosis, endocardial fibroelastosis (children), and Loeffler syndrome (endomyocardial fibrosis with an eosinophilic infiltrate and eosinophilia)
  • presents with CHF
  • low voltage ECG with diminished QRS amplitude
80
Q

Myxoma

A
  • benign mesenchymal tumor with a gelatinous appearance and abudant ground substance on histology
  • most common primary cardiac tumor in adults
  • usually forms a pedunculated mass in the LA that causes syncope due to obstruction of the mitral valve
81
Q

Rhabdomyoma

A
  • benign hamartoma of cardiac muscle
  • most common primary cardiac tumor in children; associated with tuberous sclerosis
  • usually arises in the ventricle
82
Q

Metastasis (cardiac tumor)

A
  • metastatic tumors are more common in the heart than primary tumors
  • common metastases to the heart include breast and lung carcinoma, melanoma, and lymphoma
  • most commonly involve the pericardium, resulting in a pericardial effusion