Cardio EM part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

atrial fibrillation is characterized by about how many atrial depolarizations per minute? what ventricular rate is typically seen?

A

400-600 depolarization/minute

ventricular rate 120-180

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2
Q

if your patient with atrial fibrillation is not hemodynamically stable, what should your first priority be?

A

DC cardioversion

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3
Q

what are three major consequences of prolonged atrial fibrillation

A

1) thromboembolism
2) hypotension and decreased organ perfusion (decreased EF)
3) pulmonary congestion

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4
Q

untreated atrial fibrillation that lasts for 48-72 hours puts you at risk for what?

A

thromboembolism

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5
Q

if hemodynamically stable, what is the initial goal? how do we treat?

A

rate control

IV diltiazem effective for rapid control (slows AV node)
alternative: IV beta blocker (esmolol)

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6
Q

if atrial fibrillation is present for over 48-72 hours, how will you manage your patient? (3 steps)

A

1) fully anticoagulate for 3 weeks (coumadin)
2) cardioversion 3 weeks after initiation of coumadin
3) continue anticoagulation for one month

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7
Q

your patient has had atrial fibrillation for 72 hours. you perform a TEE and rule out the presence of a thrombus. what should you do next?

A

you can skip the anticoagulation phase

jump straight to DC cardioversion

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8
Q

if your patient does not wish to undergo DC cardioversion or take oral medications to control their a-fib, what is the alternative?

A

ablation (both acceptable)

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9
Q

what is the IV medication that has been approved for rapid conversion of recent onset atrial fibrillation and flutter? how effective is it?

A

ibutilide, 45-50 percent effective

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10
Q

what is the main difference in treatment of a hypertensive urgency vs. hypertensive emergency?

A

hypertensive urgency = warrant BP lowering over a few hours

hypertensive emergency = warrant BP lowering within 1 hour

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11
Q

what are some examples of hypertensive urgencies vs. hypertensive emergencies?

A

hypertensive urgencies = high BP over 200/100 with optic disc edema, progressive target organ (kidney, heart) complications, perioperative HTN

hypertensive emergencies = hypertensive encephalopathy, hypertensive nephropathy

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12
Q

HA, irritability, confusion, altered mental status in your hypertensive patient characterize what emergency?

A

hypertensive encephalopathy

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13
Q

hematuria, proteinuria, progressive kidney dysfunction and necrosis may be signs of what?

A

hypertensive nephropathy

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14
Q

when is the only circumstance that you would consider lowering BP in your patient who is having an acute ischemic stroke?

A

if the BP is over 200/110

brain will auto-regulate perfusion

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15
Q

when lowering blood pressure, you should lower it no more than ___ percent within 2 hours, then more gradual lowering over _____ hours to a goal of ______

A

no more than 25 percent within 2 hours

gradual lowering over 2-6 hours to BP of 160/110

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16
Q

what can excessive lowering of BP lead to?

A

coronary, cerebral, renal ischemia

17
Q

what is the one exception that does require aggressive lowering of BP?

A

acute aortic dissection

18
Q

what are two calcium channel blockers used to lower BP during a hypertensive urgency/emergency?

A

nicardipine, clevipine

19
Q

the pathologic dilatation of a segment of blood vessel is also known as what?

A

aortic aneurysm

20
Q

what is the most common cause of aortic aneurysm?

A

atherosclerosis

21
Q

what percentage of patients die from acute rupture of aortic aneurysm?

A

50 percent

22
Q

75 percent of abdominal aneurysms are below which arteries?

A

renal arteries

23
Q

what will you note on PE of a patient with an abdominal aortic aneurysm?

A

pulsatile, non-tender mass

24
Q

you should screen male _____ over the age of __ with at least one of which 3 risk factors for aortic aneurysm?

A

male smokers over 60 years old with risk factors:

1) FH off AAA
2) presence of PAD/atherosclerosis
3) presence of peripheral artery aneurysms

25
patients with an aortic aneurysm less than 5 cm have a ___ percent risk of rupture over 5 years
1-2 percent chance of rupture
26
patients with an aortic aneurysm greater than 5 cm have a ___ percent risk of rupture over 5 years
20-40 percent chance
27
what does surgical treatment of an aortic aneurysm consist of?
operative excision with graft replacement
28
when will you always do surgery for an aortic aneurysm, no matter if the patient is symptomatic or not?
6.5 cm probable surgery if over 5 cm