Cardio 9.5 Flashcards

1
Q

Deeply inverted or biphasic T waves in V2-V3 with chest pain?

A

Wellen’s syndrome

  • critical LAD stenosis
  • anterior wall MI
  • at risk of imminent occlusion so should be admitted for coronary angiography & intervention
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

WPW syndrome is a congenital accessory pathway leading to a AV re-entry tachycardia
- as the accessory pathway doesn’t slow conduction, AF can degenerate rapidly to VF
Associations?
Rx?

A
  • HOCM
  • mitral valve prolapse
  • Ebstein’s anomaly
  • thyrotoxicosis
  • secundum ASD
  • definitive Rx = radiofrequency ablation of accessory pathway
  • medical = amiodarone, flecainide or sotalol (avoid if AF as prolonging refractory period may increase rate of transmission through accessory pathway -> VF)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

LQTS
LQT1/2/3?
Rx?

A

LQT1 - exertional syncope, e.g. swimming
LQT2 - syncope following emotional stress, exercise or auditory stimuli
LQT3 - often at night/rest

Avoid drugs/precipitants

  • beta-blockers (not sotalol)
  • ICD if high risk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Drugs that precipitate LQTS?

A
  • amiodarone, sotalol, class 1a anti-arrhythmias
  • TCAs, SSRIs esp citalopram
  • methadone
  • chloroquine
  • erythromycin
  • haloperidol
  • ondansetron
  • terfenadine (non-sedating antihistamine)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

AIVR = accelerated idioventricular rhythm is benign ectopic ventricular rhythm that usually occurs after repercussion of an ischaemic myocardium, has a rate of 50-110 which helps differentiate from ventricular brady/tachy
Pathphys?

Causes?
ECG?
Rx?

A
  • repercussion of ischaemic tissue, electrolyte abnormalities or drug toxicity -> increased depolarisation rate of ventricular myocytes
  • when this depolarisation rate is faster than the rate produced by the SAN -> overriding rhythm (therefore sinus brady by vagal excess or reduced sympathetic activity can precipitate AIVR)
  • haemodynamically stable usually
  • reperfusion post-MI is commonest
  • beta-sympathomimetics eg adrenaline
  • drug toxicity: digoxin/cocaine
  • electrolyte imbalance
  • cardiomyopathy, congenital heart disease, myocarditis

ECG: gradual onset & termination so may be ventricular fusion beats, AV dissociation, wide QRS >120ms, rate 50-110

  • self-limiting - but atropine can be used to overcome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

2ry causes of HTN:

  • endocrine?
  • renal?
  • drugs?
  • others?
A
  • Conns = commonest
  • Cushings, Liddles, phaeochromocytoma, CAH (11-beta hydroxylase deficiency), Acromegaly
  • renal disease e.g. ADPKD, GN, pyelonephritis, renal artery stenosis
  • steroids, MAO-Is, COCP, NSAIDs, leflunomide
  • pregnancy, coarctation of aorta
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

For pts in whom stable angina cannot be excluded by clinical assessment alone, what Ix are recommended by NICE? (e.g. Sx consistent with a/typical angina or ECG changes)

A

1st line CT coronary angio
2nd line non-invasive functional imaging (to look for reversible myocardial ischaemia)
3rd line invasive coronary angiography

Examples of non-invasive functional imaging:

  • MPS with SPECT
  • stress echo
  • 1st pass contrast-enhanced MT perfusion
  • MR imaging for stress-induced wall motion abnormalities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Signs of tricuspid regurg?

Causes?

A
  • PSM, prominent v waves in JVP, pulsatile hepatomegaly, left parasternal heave
  • RV infarct, pulm HTN, rheumatic heart disease, Epstein’s anomaly, carcinoid syndrome, IE (esp IVDU as it is the 1st valve reached by venous blood)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which anti diabetic drug may be of benefit in heart failure?

A

SGLT2 inhibitors eg Empagliflozin - promotes sodium excretion with a thiazide-like effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

NICE guidelines angina?

A

1st ACE-i + beta-blocker
2nd AA, A2TB or hydralazine+nitrate
3rd if Sx persist then consider cardiac resynchronisation Rx or Digoxin. Or Ivabradine if on ACE-I, beta-blocker, AA, HR>75, LVEF <35%
- diuretics for fluid overload
- Sacubitril-valsartan is considered in heart failure with reduced EF who are Sx on ACE-I or ARBs

  • Nb ACE-I & beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in HFPEF
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Fatigue, dizziness & hypotension after pacemaker insertion?

A

Pacemaker syndrome - ass with a VVI pacemaker that results in simultaneous atria & ventricle conduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

DAPT for ACS for 12 months?

A

Aspirin 75 OD + Ticagrelor 90 BD
- Ticagrelor C/I if high risk bleed, Hx of intracranial bleed or severe hepatic dysfunction; caution in asthma/copd as higher rates of dyspnoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Antiplatelet Rx for people with ACS undergoing PCI?

A

Aspirin + Prasugrel/Ticagrelor/Clopidogrel for 12 months

Nb PPIs reduce the effect of clopidogrel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Features of constrictive pericarditis?
(causes inc anything that causes pericarditis esp TB)
Rx?

A
  • dyspnoea
  • right heart failure: raised JVP, ascites, oedema, hepatomegaly
  • prominent x & y descent of JVP
  • loud S3 - pericardial knock
  • Kussmaul’s sign +ve
  • CXR: pericardial calcification

Rx = pericardiectomy
(diuretics if not suitable)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Turner’s syndrome 45X or 45XO

Features?

A
  • short stature, shield chest, widely spaced nipples, webbed neck
  • bicuspid aortic valve 15% coarctation 5-10%
  • 1ry amenorrhoea
  • cystic hygroma
  • high-arched palate
  • short 4th metacarpal
  • multiple pigmented naevi
  • lymphoedema in neonates esp feet
  • gonadotrophin levels elevated
  • hypothyroidism
  • increased incidence of autoimmune esp thyroiditis
  • can get a severe haemophilia (because of just 1 X)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When is IE prophylaxis indicated?

A
  • prosthetic heart valve or material used for cardiac valve repair
  • previous IE
  • cardiac Tx with subsequent development of cardiac valvulopathy
  • congenital heart disease under specific circumstances e.g. unrepaired cyanotic defects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

High risk of IE?

A
  • prev IE
  • previously normal valves
  • rheumatic valve disease
  • prosthetic valves
  • congenital heart defects
  • IVDUs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Culture negative causes of IE?

A
  • prior Abx Rx
  • HACEK: haemophilus actinobacillus cardiobacterium eikenella kingella
  • Brucella
  • Bartonella
  • Coxiella burnetii
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Causes of IE:

  • commonest?
  • commonest in IVDUs?
  • commonest in first 2 months after prosthetic valve surgery?
  • linked with poor dental hygiene or post dental procedure?
  • bowel cancer?
  • non-infective?
A
  • staph aureus
  • staph aureus
  • staph epidermidis
  • strep viridans eg strep mitis/sanguinis
  • strep bovis/gallolyticus
  • SLE: Libman-Sacks, malignancy: marantic endocarditis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Rheumatic fever = immunological reaction to recent strep pyogenes 2-6wks ago
Pathogenesis?
Dx?

A
  • strep pyogenes infection -> activation of innate immune system -> Ag presentation to T cells
  • B & T cells produce IgG & IgM Ab and CD4+ T cells activated
  • type II hypersens X-reactive response mediated my molecular mimicry
  • cell wall inc M protein, a virulence factor that is highly antigenic - Ab against M protein X-react with myosin & smooth muscle of arteries
  • leading to clinical features of rheumatic fever
  • Aschoff bodies describe granulomatous nodules found in rheumatic heart fever
21
Q

Rheumatic fever Dx = evidence of recent strep infection +
2 major or
1 major + 2 minor criteria which are -

A

Evidence of recent strep:

  • raised/rising strep Ab
  • +ve throat swab
  • +ve rapid group A strep Ag test

Major:

  • Polyarthritis
  • carditis/valvulitis
  • SC nodules
  • erythema marginatum
  • Sydenham’s chorea (late)

Minor:

  • fever
  • raised ESR/CRP
  • arthralgia
  • prolonged PR interval
22
Q

Bradycardia:

  • identify adverse signs - Rx?
  • identify risk of asystole
A

Adverse:

  • shock
  • syncope
  • myocardial ischaemia
  • heart failure
  • > IV Atropine 500mcg up to max 3mg
  • > transcutaneous pacing
  • > isoprenaline/adrenaline infusion titrated to response
  • > if above fail, transvenous pacing

Risk of asystole:

  • complete heart block with broad QRS
  • recent systole
  • Mobitz type II
  • ventricular pause >3seconds
23
Q

Beta-blocker OD Rx?

A

Atropine

Glucagon

24
Q

Rate-control AF Rx?

A

Beta-blocker
Calcium channel blocker rate-limiting e.g. Diltiazem
Digoxin

25
Q

Poor prognostic factors in IE?

A
  • staph aureus mortality 30%
  • prosthetic valve esp if early post-op
  • culture negative endocarditis
  • low complement levels
26
Q

Indications for surgery in IE?

A
  • severe valvular incompetence
  • aortic abscess (prolonged PR)
  • infections resistant to Abx/fungal infections, MDR organisms, flase aneurysm etc
  • cardiac failure refractory to standard medical Rx
  • recurrent emboli after Abx Rx
27
Q

Initial blind rx for IE if:

  • native valve?
  • pen allergic/mrsa/severe sepsis
  • if prosthetic valve
A
  • Amox +/- low dose-Gent
  • Vanc + low-dose Gent
  • Vanc + Rifampicin + low-dose Gent
28
Q

Rx for native valve endocarditis caused by staphylococci?

- if pen allergic/mrsa?

A
  • Fluclox

- Vanc + Rifampicin

29
Q

Rx for PROSTHETIC valve endocarditis caused by staph?

- if pen allergic/mrsa?

A
  • Fluclox + Rifampicin + low-dose Gent

- Vanc + Rifampicin + low-dose Gent

30
Q

Rx for endocarditis caused by fully-sensitive strep e.g. viridian’s?
if pen allergic?

A
  • Benylpenicillin

- Vanc + low-dose Gent

31
Q

Rx for endocarditis caused by less sensitive streptococci?

if pen allergic?

A
  • Benzylpenicillin + low-dose Gent

- Vanc + low-dose Gent

32
Q

Resynchronisation of the ventricles with cardiac resynchronisation therapy with a paced device (CRT-P) involves simultaneous stimulation of both ventricles to reduce dyssynchrony & therefore increase cardiac output
- in whom can it be used?

A
  • NYHA class 3/4 Sx
  • in normal sinus OR
  • QRS 150+ on ecg
  • QRS 120-149 on ECG & mechanical dyssynchrony confirmed by echo
  • LVEF <35%
  • receiving optimal pharm Rx
  • improves Sx by a reduction of 1 NYHA classification, reduce hospitalisations & mortality
  • can be fitted with an ICD e.g. CRT-D has defib or CRT-P has pacing

i.e. for pts with heart failure & wide QRS, biventricular pacing

33
Q

Aortic stenosis

  • causes?
  • features if severe?
  • Rx ?
A
  • degenerative calcification
  • bicuspid valve
  • WIlliam’s syndrome supravalvular
  • post-rheumatic disease
  • subvalvular: HOCM
  • slow-rising pulse, narrow pulse pressure, delayed ESM, soft/absent S2, S4, thrill, duration of murmur, LVH or failure

Rx:

  • aSx -> observe
  • Sx -> valve replacement
  • valvular gradient >40 & LV systolic dysfunction then consider surgery
  • coronary angiogram prior to replacement
  • balloon valvuloplasty to pts with critical stenosis not fit for replacement
34
Q

Anaphylaxis adrenaline dose in adults?

Rx following stabilisation?

A

IM 500mcg = 0.5ml 1 in 1000 every 5mins if necessary

  • observe 6-12h from onset as biphasic reactions can occur in upto 20%
  • take serum tryptase immediately and repeat within 1-2hours (peak)
35
Q

Causes & features of mitral stenosis?
If severe?
CXR?
Echo?

A
  • rheumatic fever (also mucopolysaccharidoses, carcinoid & endocardial fibroelastosis)
  • mid-late diastolic murmur best heard in expiration, loud S1 opening snap, low volume pulse, malaria flush, AF
  • Severe: increase in length of murmur, opening snap becomes closer to S2
  • CXR: left atrial enlargement
  • Echo: tight MS X-section <1cm (normal 4-6)
36
Q

Features of ASD?

A
  • 50% mortality at 50yrs
  • ESM, fixed splitting of S2
  • embolism may pass from venous system to left side of heart causing a stroke
37
Q

Ostium secundum ASD features?

A

70% of ASDs

  • ass with Holt-Oram syndrome: tri-phalangeal thumbs
  • ECG: RBBB with RAD
38
Q

Ostium primum ASD features?

A

less common and present earlier than secundum

  • lower down in the septum
  • ass with abnormal AV valves
  • ECG: RBBB with LAD, prolonged PR interval
39
Q

Indications for PPM insertion?

A
  • persistent Sx bradycardia e.g. sick sinus
  • complete heart block
  • Mobitz type II
  • persistent AV block after MI
40
Q

Indications of beta-blockers?
Side-effects?
C/I?

A
  • angina, post-MI, heart failure, arrhythmias, HTN, thyrotoxicosis, migraine prophylaxis, anxiety
  • Nb propranolol is lipid soluble so it crosses the BBB
  • bronchospasm, cold peripheries, fatigue, sleep disturbances inc nightmares, erectile dysfunction
  • uncontrolled heart failure, asthma, sick sinus, concurrent verapamil
41
Q

Brugada syndrome = inherited CVD, autosomal dom, more common in Asians, a number of variants
- 20-40% caused by a mutation in SCN5A gene which encodes the myocardial sodium ion channel protein
ECG?

A

Convex ST elevation >2mm in >1 of V1-3 followed by a negative T wave
partial RBBB
changes may be more apparent following Flecainide
Rx = ICD

42
Q

Exertional chest pain & CT calcium score >400 - next step?

A

Coronary angiography
score >400 means estimated likelihood of CAD is 61-90%
(if CAD 30-60% then offer functional imaging)

43
Q

Causes of LBBB?

A
IHD
HTN
aortic stenosis
cardiomyopathy
rarely: IPF, digoxin toxicity, hyperkalaemia
44
Q

Takotsubo cardiomyopathy = non-ischaemic cardiomyopathy associated with transient, apical ballooning of myocardium
Features?

A

chest pain, St elevation, features of heart failure

normal coronary angiogram

45
Q

Non-invasive nuclear cardiac imaging examples inc:

  • thallium
  • technetium used in MIBI or cardiac SPECT
  • FDG used in PET

Role of SPECT/PET?
MUGA?

A

SPECT - assesses myocardial perfusion & myocardial viability
- 2 sets of images acquired at rest then during stress, any areas of ischaemia are reversible/fixed

PET - predominately a research tool at the moment

MUGA: radionuclide angiography where technetium is injected IV with the pt under a gamma camera and can be performed as a stress test

  • can accurately measure LVEF
  • used before & after cardiotoxic drugs are used
46
Q

Cardiac CT useful for assessing suspected IHD with which 2 main methods?

A

Calcium score - correlation between amount of atherosclerotic plaque calcium & risk of future ischaemic events
Contrast enhanced CT: allows visualisation of coronary artery lumen

47
Q

Cardiac MRI = gold standard for providing structural images of the heart
- when is it useful?

A
  • assessing congenital heart disease, right & left ventricular mass & differentiating forms of cardiomyopathy
  • myocardial perfusion can be assess with gadolinium
  • but limited data on extent of coronary artery disease
48
Q

What drug enhances the effect of adenosine?
What blocks it?
MoA of adenosine?

A

Dypryridamole enhances
Theophylline block
- causes transient block in the AV node (increases K efflux causing hyper polarisation as it is an A1 receptor agonist in AV node)
- v short half life

S/Es:
- chest pain, bronchospasm, transient flushing, can enhance conduction down accessory pathways