Cardio Flashcards

1
Q

Prevalence of PAD

A

4% of people 40 years and older
15-20% of those 65+
Greater in men than women
Greater in black patients

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2
Q

Prognosis for PAD

A

risk of death from cardiovascular causes increases 2.5-6x and their annual mortality rate is 4.3-4.9%
50% 10-year mortality

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3
Q

What percent of people with PAD are asymptomatic

A

50%
15% have classic claudication
33% have atypical leg pain (functionally limited)
1-2% present with critical limb ischemia

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4
Q

Clinical manifestations of PAD

A

intermittent claudication (discomfort, ache, cramping in leg with exercise–resolves with rest), functional impairment (slow walking speed, gait disorder), rest pain (pain or paresthesias in foot or toes, worsened by leg elevation and improved by dependence), ischemic ulceration and gangrene

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5
Q

Associated arterial occlusion sites with the related claudication areas for patients with PAD

A

Aortic/iliac occlusion–gluteal and thigh claudication
Femoral occlusion–calf claudication
Popliteal/tibial occlusion–calf claudication or foot pain

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6
Q

Distinct Syndromes that PAD patients present with

A

Critical Limb Ischemia: ischemic rest pain, non-healing wounds, or gangrene and symptoms for more than 2 weeks

Acute Limb Ischemia: 5Ps defined by the clinical symptoms and signs for less than two weeks (pain, pulselessness, pallor, parasthesias, paralysis)

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7
Q

Differential Diagnoses for exertional leg pain

A

Lumbosacral radiculopathy: may see reduced DTR but normal pedal pulses

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8
Q

Describe pseudoclaudication vs claudication

A

Pseudoclaudication: cramping, tightness, aching, and fatigue with tingling, burning and numbess, location of buttock, hip, thigh, calf, or foot, may or may not be exercise-induced, pain occurs with standing, they sit/lean forward/change position to feel relief, and relief from symptoms occurs in less than 30 minutes

Claudication: cramping, tightness, aching, fatigue in the buttock, hip, thigh, calf, or food, pain is exercise-induced and the distance one must walk for symptoms to begin is consistent, pain does not occur with standing, patients stand or stop walking for symptoms relief, and symptoms improve within 5 minutes

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9
Q

Physical exam for PAD

A

Do complete CV exam with palpation of all pulses and auscultation of accessible arteries for bruits
Pulse abnormalities and bruits increase the likelihood of PAD
Decreased or absent pulse provides insight into the location of arterial stenoses

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10
Q

Physical findings in PAD physical exam

A

Arterial ulcers: pale base with irregular borders, usually involve tips of toes or heel of foot, develop at pressure sites

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11
Q

Diagnostic tests for PAD

A

Ankle- brachial index, PVR, segmental pressures, treadmill test, duplex US, CTA, MRA, angiography

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12
Q

Ankle-brachial index

A

Ankle systolic pressure/brachial systolic pressure

Normal: 1.00-1.40
Borderline: 0.91-0.99
PAD: less than or equal to 0.9
Pain/ulceration: less than or equal to 0.4
Non-compressible: more than or equal to 1.40

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13
Q

Limits to ABI testing

A

Calcified vessels can give falsely elevated pressure

Don’t know where stenotic arteries are
Solution: segmental pressures, waveform analysis

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14
Q

Goals for PAD treatment

A

Reduction in cardiovascular morbidity and mortality (discontinue tobacco use, SUPERVISED walking program, control BP to goal, high-dose statin therapy, antiplatelet therapy)

improve quality of life

maintain limb viability (good foot care, revascularization, cilostazol)

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15
Q

Factors of exercise that gives the best results for PAD patients

A

Duration of more than 30 minutes per session
at least 3 sessions per week for more than 6 months
walking used as the mode of exercise
Reach maximal claudication pain endpoint each session

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16
Q

When is revascularization considered?

A

If the patient has lifestyle-limiting claudication with an inadequate response to GDMT (guideline directed medical therapy)

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17
Q

Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty and stents

A

Peripheral catheter-based interventions are indicated for

  • lifestyle limiting claudication despite trial of exercise rehab or pharm therapy
  • symptomatic patients and clinical evidence of inflow disease as manifested by buttock or thigh claudication and diminished femoral pulses
  • critical limb ischemia whose anatomy is amenable to catheter based therapy
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18
Q

What is the most frequent operation for patients with aortoiliac disease

A

Aorta-bifemoral bypass

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19
Q

What is the operative mortality rate for extra-anatomic bypass procedures

A

2-5%
*reflects in part the serious comorbid conditions and advanced atherosclerosis of many of the patients who undergo these procedures

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20
Q

Compare open and endovascular approaches for aortoiliac occlusive disease

A

Open surgical: excellent long-term patency rate, 85-90% for 5 years, requires general anesthesia, 1-3% mortality rate

Endovascular: high procedural success rates (90%), excellent long-term patency (more than 80-90% at 5 years), less morbidity/mortality

Endovascular procedures are done first in Type A and Type B lesions
Surgery may be considered first in Type D lesions

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21
Q

When do you treat a patient that presents with critical leg ischemia

A

ASAP ASAP ASAP

localize the lesion and then do revascularization as soon as possible to prevent loss of the limb

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22
Q

What is Dressler Syndrome

A

Pericarditis that occurs after an MI

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23
Q

What can occur 5-7 days after an MI

A

Cardiac tamponade (most likely time for the heart to rupture)

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24
Q

cor pulmonale

A

lung problems causing right heart failure

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25
Q

what are heart failure cells

A

alveolar macrophages filled with hemosideran

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26
Q

What body systems does Chagas disease affect?

A

esophagus, colon, heart

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27
Q

Describe Pericardial effusion types

A

Serous (transudate): low protein and no cells
Purulent (exudate): infectious, high protein, many WBCs
Malignant: metastatic disease

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28
Q

What are the causes of hemopericardium

A

Ruptured myocardium (from MI or trauma)

Aortic Dissection (hypertension or Marfan)

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29
Q

What is a severe hemopericardium and what can be the consequence?

A

more than 500 mL of blood

can cause tamponade, leading to sudden death

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30
Q

Causes of pericarditis

A

infectious agents (viruses, pyogenic bacteria, tuberculosis, fungi, parasites), immunological mediated (Rh fever, SLE, scleroderma, postcardiotomy, Dressler syndrome, drug hypersensitivity reaction), miscellaneous (uremia, trauma, radiation, etc)

** viral, TB, fibrinous, and SLE/scleroderma

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31
Q

Acute Serous Pericarditis

A

causes: infectious, usually autoimmune diseases, malignancy
Morphology: volume 50-200mL, scant inflammatory cells

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32
Q

3 causes of fibrinous pericarditis

A

post MI (dressler), uremia, rheumatic fever

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33
Q

causes of hemorrhagic pericarditis

A

malignancy, bacterial infections, following cardiac surgery

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34
Q

Chronic pericarditis

A

disabling because of adhesive scar formation

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35
Q

Adhesive Mediastino pericarditis

A

type of chronic pericarditis
follows suppurative inflammation or TB
sac obliterated and adhered to adjacent structures
increased strain on heart–>hypertrophy and/or dilation

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36
Q

Constrictive pericarditis

A

type of chronic pericarditis
results from suppurative or hemorrhagic pericarditis (staph or TB)
pericardial space obliterated by scar and/or calcification*
severe cardiac dysfunction (tamponade)
heart encased in dense fibrocalcific scar that limits diastolic expansion
HEART SOUNDS ARE DISTANT AND MUFFLED

ONLY TYPE OF PERICARDITIS ASSOCIATED WITH CALCIFICATION

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37
Q

what are telangiectasis

A

dilated capillaries that create small focal red lesions usually in skin and mucous membranes of body
Spider telangiectasis: associated with hyperestrogenism (pregnancy, live cirrhosis)

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38
Q

Hemangiomas

A

benign neoplasm of capillary or cavernous (can be in brain, very problematic if this ruptures)
usually in skin, can occur in liver, spleen, and kidney
usually occur early in life and fade

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39
Q

Glomus tumors

A

Painful, modified smooth muscle cell tumors on distal digits (ex/ under nails)
arises from glomus body
Painful but benign

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40
Q

Hemangiosarcoma

A

malignant atypical endothelial cells

associated with known carcinogens (polyvinyl chloride)

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41
Q

Kaposi Sarcoma

A

Types: classic or European(chronic)–not HIV associated; Immunosuppression or transplant-associated–AIDS-associated

Associated with HHV8–causes proliferation of blood vessels and angiogenesis

can occur in heart, lung, brain, skin, stomach, etc..

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42
Q

Carney syndrome

A
AD
myxomas of skin and hyperpigmentation
cardiac myxomas
endocrinopathies
mutation of some tumor suppressor gene
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43
Q

Myxoma

A

benign tumor of the atria (usually left)–blocks blood flow out of mitral (or tricuspid) valve (ball valve effect)
Dx: Echocardiography

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44
Q

rhabdomyoma

A

associated with tuberous sclerosis (hamartomas in CNS, skin, heart, and kidney)

benign

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45
Q

Angiosarcoma

A

Malignant tumor

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46
Q

where do metastatic tumors of the heart usually originate?

A

breast or lung

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47
Q

Cardiac transplantation complications

A

Rejections: cellular (t cells), or humoral (antibodies)

Infections: CMV, toxoplasmosis

Lymphoproliferative disease post-transplant: EBV mediated

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48
Q

Clinical presentation of acute pericarditis

A

flu-like sx or GI sx (viral prodome is common)
sharp, pleuritic chest pain precipitated by lying flat dt inflammation being placed on posteriorly located nerves, relieved by leaning forward, pain radiates to shoulder
EKG changes (diffuse ST elevations)
Friction rub best heard over left sternal border
pericardial effusion

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49
Q

EKG changes with pericarditis?

A

diffuse ST elevations and PR segment changes

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50
Q

What will a chest xray look like in most cases of acute pericarditis?

A

Normal

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51
Q

Diagnosis of acute pericarditis

A

at least two of the following:

  • Characteristic chest discomfort (persistent, pleuritic, and positional)
  • Suggestive ECG changes (diffuse ST elevation)
  • Pericardial Friction Rub
  • New or worsening pericardial effusion
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52
Q

Treatment of Acute Pericarditis

A

NSAIDs/Salicylates
Colchicine (3 months)
AVOID: glucocorticoids and pericardiectomy

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53
Q

Most cases of pericarditis can be treated outpatient. When is hospitalization (inpatient) required?

A
High fever (>38)
Subacute onset
large pericardial effusion
trauma
evidence of myocarditis
immunosupressed pt
concominant use of anticoags
evidence of cardiac tamponade
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54
Q

Goals of pericarditis treatment

A

symptom relief, decrease inflammation

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55
Q

Pericardial Effusion

A

usually serous effusion
if Hemorrhagic: malignant, surgery/procedure complication, post-pericardiotomy syndrome, complications of MI, idiopathic, aortic dissection, infection (TB)

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56
Q

Biggest risk factor for pericardial tamponade

A

rate of fluid accumulation
*fluid causes compression of all cardiac chambers due to increased pericardial pressure
pericardium has a degree of elasticity but once that limit is reached–>potential for tamponade

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57
Q

Symptoms and PE of cardiac tamponade

A

symptoms: dyspnea, chest discomfort/fullness, peripheral edema, fatigability
PE: sinus tach, JVD, pulsus paradoxus

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58
Q

what is electrical alternans

A

beat-to-beat alteration in QRS appearance (best seen in leads V2 to V4)

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59
Q

What is electical alternans suggestive of

A

Strongly suggestive of pericardial effusion (usually with cardiac tamonade)

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60
Q

the alternating ECG pattern in electrical alternans is related to what?

A

the back-and-forth swinging motion of the heart in the pericardial fluid

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61
Q

Clinical presentation of tamponade

A

hypotension with pulsus paradoxus (more than 10 mmHg fall with inspiration)
elevated venous pressure with blunted or absent y descent
distant heart sounds
clear lung fields

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62
Q

Causes of pulsus paradoxus

A

respiratory: severe bronchial asthma, tension pneumothorax, COPD

Cardiac: cardiac tamponade, constrictive pericarditis, pericardial effusion, restrictive cardiomyopathy

Others: anaphylactic shock, obesity

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63
Q

Treatment for cardiac tamponade

A
URGENT PERICARDIOCENTESIS (only definitive therapy for cardiac tamponade)
usually done percutaneously
IV fluids may improve cardiac output (esp in hypotensive pt)

DO NOT GIVE DIURETICS

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64
Q

Constritive pericarditis

A

thickened, rigid pericardium

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65
Q

Which types of pericarditis are most likely to advance into constrictive pericarditis

A

TB pericarditis and purulent pericarditis

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66
Q

Clinical presentation of constrictive pericarditis

A

symptoms related to fluid overload (peripheral edema to anasarca)
symptoms related to diminished cardiac output in response to exertion (fatigability and dyspnea on extertion)

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67
Q

PE findings with constrictive pericarditis

A

JVP, pulsus paradoxus, Kussmaul’s sign (lack of inspiratory decline in JVP), pericardial knock (accentuated heart sound occurring slightly earlier than S3)

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68
Q

Echo/Doppler results with constrictive pericarditis

A

accentuated respirophasic effects on transvalvular velocities; septal bounce (ventricular interdependence), pericardial thickening

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69
Q

What is the anatomic imaging modality of choice in constrictive pericarditis?

A

CT/MR

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70
Q

tx for constrictive pericarditis

A

diurectics

surgery: results are often limited
* pericardiectomy
* surgical risk factors: age, NYHA class, organ failure, XRT, other cardiac disease

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71
Q

Effusive-Constrictive disease

A

clinical and hemodynamic manifestations of tamponade on presentation
After pericardiocentesis, residual clinical and hemodynamic manifestations of constriction
(High RAP despite reduction of pericardial pressure to as low as 0)

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72
Q

Cardiac arrest

A

the abrupt cessation of heart functiong

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73
Q

Causes of sudden cardiac death?

A

over 35: Coronary artery disease

Under 35: congenital and acquired abnormalities

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74
Q

Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

A

Autosomal Dominant
ECG: QRS waves are very tall
Echo: hypertrophy is in the septum (not symmetrical like in hypertension)
Beta blockers help treat the SYMPTOMS (doesnt prevent SCD)

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75
Q

What is the most common coronary artery anomalous origin in HOCM

A

the origin of the right coronary artery from the left sinus of Valsalva

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76
Q

Marfan’s Syndrome signs

A

Wrist sign and thumb sign
Myopic with lens subluxation
Symmetric pectus excavatus

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77
Q

What is a concerning health risk in Marfan’s Syndrome?

A

Risk of aortic tear or aneurysm

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78
Q

Dysarrythmias that can cause SCD

A

Long QT syndrome (more than 440 mms)
Brugada’s Syndrome
Wolff-Parkinson White

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79
Q

Commotio Cortis

A

Vfib and SCD that is triggered by a blunt, non-penetrating, innocent-appearing blow to the chest during ventricular repolarization without any damage to the chest wall or heart
*most common in male baseball players

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80
Q

Pacemaker vein placement

A

placed in subclavian vein usually (specialists can do axillary or cephalic)

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81
Q

How does a pacemaker work

A

battery generates electricity and insulated wire has an extendable/retractable corkscrew tip (actively penetrates into myocardium) or a tyne tip (causes reaction at endocardial level)
pacing pulses are delivered to myocardium via the lead

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82
Q

What kind of battery does a pacemaker have?

A

lithium iodide battery that lasts about 15 years

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83
Q

What arrhythmia requires just a ventricular lead?

A

Afib

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84
Q

Function of pacemakers

A

Pace and sense the myocardium
Inhibits when pacing not needed
Algorithm to increase heart rate with activity

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85
Q

How is a lead inserted into the left ventricle

A

via the coronary sinus

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86
Q

What is a standard lead

A

goes to atria and right ventricle

corkscrew tip that extends 1.8 mm

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87
Q

How does a HIS bundle lead work?

A

does not directly stimulate the myocardium

gets the electrical activity to travel down the HIS bundle

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88
Q

How can pacemakers increase heart rate with activity?

A

Most use an accelerometer to identify postural changes and body movements related to physical activity (only enabled as needed)

Some use Minute Ventilation sensory to drive the pacing rate–measures resistance between an electrode on cardiac pacing lead and the metal housing of the device (changes with respiratory rate and chest excursion)–more natural heart rate response to exercise

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89
Q

DDD tracking mode

A

pacing and sensing in atrium and ventricle
inhibited by intrinsic P wave and QRS

In DDD mode, the pacemaker can truly adapt to what the heart is doing and mimics normal conduction as closely as possible

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90
Q

what is VOO mode

A

Pacing in ventricle, sensing is off, response to sensing is off

*paces at a programmed rate regardless of intrinsic activity

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91
Q

What is VVI mode

A

Pacing in ventricle, sensing in ventricle, inhibit

Pacemaker is capable of sensing the heart’s intrinsic activity and inhibiting pacing when it is unnecessary

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92
Q

When would you use VOO mode?

A

in surgery that uses cauterization (mimics heart’s electrical activity) or meds that might affect blood pressure

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93
Q

Defibrillation

A

pulseless VT or VF can be converted to sinus rhythm but delivering sudden electrical massive depolariation–>causes all myocardium to depolarize, then after phase 3 the pacemaker signal gets through the AV node depolarizing the ventricles and sinus rhythm is restored

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94
Q

what is an ICD

A

implantable cardiovertor defibrillator

electricity delivered to endocardium

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95
Q

Which device does not have pacing programming?

A

Subcutaneous ICD

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96
Q

How does subq ICD minimize infection risk?

A

Avoids transvenous access

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97
Q

How effective are ICDs

A

97-98% effective

One of the most successful treatments in medicine today

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98
Q

Why is drug therapy still indicated after ICD implantation

A

to suppress ventricular arrhythmias, minimize the frequency of ICD shocks, improve patients’ tolerance, and decrease energy use

*multiple shocks associated with shorter life

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99
Q

Chlorthalidone

A
thiazide diuretic (preferred for black patients with isolated hypertension)
Side Effects: hyperglycemia, hypercalcemia, hypokalemia
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100
Q

What causes ischemic heart disease?

A

due to reduced blood flow due to obstructive atherosclerosis of the coronary arteries (CAD)

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101
Q

Clinical manifestations of ischemic heart disease

A
  • myocardial infarction
  • angina pectoris (ischemia is not severe enough to cause infarction)
  • chronic ischemic heart disease with heart failure
  • sudden cardiac death
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102
Q

what are some causes of ischemic heart disease

A

reduced coronary flow
increased myocardial demand (hypertrophy)
reduced availability of O2 in the blood

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103
Q

What inflammatory marker predicts the risk of coronary heart disease

A

C reactive protein

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104
Q

Pathogenesis of ischemic heart disease

A

Acute plaque change
Inflammation
Thrombosis
vasoconstriction

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105
Q

Describe unstable angina

A

plaque disruption causes thrombosis and vasoconstriction, leads to a severe but transient reduction in blood flow

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106
Q

Describe sudden cardiac death

A

regional myocardial ischemia that leads to a fatal ventricular arrhythmia

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107
Q

Stable angina

A

caused by chronic coronary stenosis of an atheroscleroting coronary artery
pain on exertion

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108
Q

Prinzmetal angina

A

caused by coronary artery spasm

effect is pain at REST

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109
Q

Where is the most common place for ischemic heart disease?

A

anterior septum resulting from occlusion of the LAD (45% of all cases)

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110
Q

Transmural infarction

A

necrosis of full thickness of ventricular wall, perfused by a single coronary artery–>coronary atherosclerosis–>plaque disruption–>thrombus

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111
Q

Subendocardial infarction

A

necrosis of 1/3 to 1/2 of the ventricular wall–>perfused by more than one coronary artery–>shock, hypertension or transient thrombus

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112
Q
What changes are present in the heart after MI?
0-4 hr
4-12 hr
12-24 hr
1-3 days
3-7 days
7-10 days
10-14 days
2-8 weeks
more than 2 months
A

0-4: no changes
4-12: dark mottling, early coag necrosis, edema, hemorrhage
12-24 hr: dark mottling, ongoing coag necrosis, myocyte hypereosinophilia, early neutrophilic infiltrate
1-3 days: mottling with yellow-tan infarct center, coag necrosis, interstitial infiltrate of neutrophils
3-7 days: hyperemic border, central yellow-tan softening, macrophages at infarct border
7-10 days: yellow-tan with depressed red-tan margins, granulation tissue at margins
10-14 days: red-gray depressed infarct borders, well-established granulation tissue with new blood vessels and collagen deposition
2-8 weeks: gray-white scar with increased collagen deposition and decreased cellularity
more than 2 months:dense collagenous scar

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113
Q

What is the earliest histological change seen in acute MI

A

contraction band necrosis
myocardial fibers lose cross striations and the nuclei are not clearly visible
many irregular darker pink wavy contraction bands extending across the fibers

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114
Q

What molecules can be used as biomarkers for acute MI?

A

troponin I (best option, elevates 4-6 hours after MI, lasts 7-10 days)
CK-MB (peaks at 12 hours, back to baseline by 72 hours post-MI)
myoglobin (increased at 2-4 hours, peaks 9-12 hours, back to baseline by 24-36 hours)

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115
Q

Which markers is cardiac specific

A

troponin-i (99.4% specific)

will not show elevation in trauma or other disease states

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116
Q

What troponin range indicates MI

A

anything more than 0.5

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117
Q

When is a rupture of the myocardium most likely to occur?

A

3-5 days post-MI (this is when the myocardium is the softest)

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118
Q

What is chronic ischemic heart disease?

A

(aka ischemic cardiomyopathy) a condition of elderly who develop progressive heart failure as a result of ischemic myocardial
predisposing factors: post-infarction, severe atherosclerosis without infarction but myocardial dysfunction is present

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119
Q

What can cause sudden cardiac death

A

acute MI, congenital anomalies, aortic stenosis, mitral prolapse, myocarditis, myopathies, hypertensive heart, cocaine

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120
Q

What are common infectious causes of myocarditis?

A

coxsackie, lyme, chagas

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121
Q

Common immune-mediated reactions that cause myocarditis

A

poststreptococcal (rheumatic fever), transplant rejection

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122
Q

Clinical presentation of myocarditis

A

asymptomatic
fever, malaise, pericardial pain
sudden onset of acute heart failure

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123
Q

Gross findings in myocarditis

A

dilated ventricles, flabby heart, minute hemorrhages, mural thrombi may be present

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124
Q

What chemotherapeutic agent can cause myocardial disease

A

doxorubicin (causes lipid peroxidation in myocytes)–>dilated cardiomyopathy

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125
Q

What other drugs can cause myocardial disease

A

anthracyclin, lithium, chloroquine

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126
Q

Describe the morphology of myocarditis with drug toxicity

A

myofibers swelling, cytoplasmic vacuolization, fatty change

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127
Q

Name some causes of myocarditis

A

drug toxicity, amyloidosis (transthyretin), hemochromatosis, hyper/hypothyroidism

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128
Q

Congestive Heart Failure

A

mechanical failure of the heart to maintain systemic perfusion commensurate with the requirements of metabolizing tissues

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129
Q

what is forward heart failure?

A

decreased cardiac output

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130
Q

what is backward heart failure

A

damming back of blood in the venous system

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131
Q

Left-sided heart failure causes

A

ischemic heart diseases, hypertension, aortic/mitral valve diseases, myocardial diseases

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132
Q

Clinical presentation of left sided heart failure

A

dyspnea, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

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133
Q

What are heart failure cells and when are they found?

A

alveolar nuclei with hemosideran inside of them

found in LEFT sided heart failure

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134
Q

What happens to the kidneys in left sided heart failure? the brain?

A

decreased renal perfusion (activation of RAAS–>retention of salt and water–>increased blood volume)
Brain: hypoxic encephalopathy

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135
Q

what can systolic heart failure cause?

A

ischemic diseases, valvular diseases

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136
Q

what can diastolic heart failure cause?

A

defective filling causes amyloidosis, fibrosis, severe hypertrophy

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137
Q

What is the most common cause of right-sided heart failure

A

left sided heart failure

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138
Q

Signs of right sided heart failure

A
liver congestion (may cause cardiac cirrhosis)(elevated LDH5, necrosis of hepatocytes around the central vein)
congestive splenomegaly
pleural effusion
ascites
peripheral edema
brain congestion and edema
JVD
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139
Q

What does elevated BNP indicate

A

values more than 100 indicate congestive heart failure

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140
Q

Where does ANP come from? BNP?

A

ANP comes from the atria
BNP comes from the ventricles
both increase in response to stretching of atria/ventricles

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141
Q

How are cardiomyopathies diagnosed

A

cardiac biopsy

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142
Q

Causes of dilated cardiomyopathy

A

alcohol (may be direct toxicity or thiamine deficiency), peripartum, genetic (dystrophin gene mutation, other sarcomere mutations), myocarditis (coxsackie virus), adriamycin toxicity

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143
Q

What mutations are associated with genetic hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

Cardiac troponin T
Myosin binding protein C
beta myosin heavy chain

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144
Q

what is disproportionately thickened in HCM

A

the septum

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145
Q

Is dilated cardiomyopathy systolic or diastolic dysfunction?

A

systolic

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146
Q

Is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy systolic or diastolic dysfunction?

A

diastolic

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147
Q

Describe the microscopic appearance of HCM

A

hypertrophy, disarray, fibrosis

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148
Q

What kind of murmur is associated with HCM

A

harsh systolic ejection murmur

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149
Q

Causes of restrictive/infiltrative CMP?

A

amyloidosis, hemochromatosis, hyper/hypothyroidism

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150
Q

what protein is associated with cardiac amyloidosis

A

transerythin

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151
Q

What is cor pulmonale

A

right ventricular enlargement resulting from structural or functional lung disorders (ex/ PE,, COPD)

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152
Q

explain the pathogenesis of hypertrophy in long-standing hypertension

A

increase BP–>accelerated aortic stenosis–>decreased large vessel compliance–>thickening of small arteries and arterioles–>increased peripheral resistance–>hypertrophy–>increased O2 demand and decreased heart compliance

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153
Q

What is the goal during adaption to insult to the heart?

A

maintain perfusion

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154
Q

Wall stress

A

Frank-Starling (initially helpful)
Hypertrophy (eventually maladaptive)
Molecular, cellular, structural changes=ventricular remodeling (maladaptive)
Activation of neuro-hormonal systems

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155
Q

What is the problem hypertrophy?

A

increases metabolic demands of the heart, but no increase in capillary volume–>supply and demand mismatch that increases the risk of ischemia

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156
Q

What happens in ventricular remodeling

A

shift of gene expression to upregulation of early response and fetal genes (in absence of DNA synthesis)

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157
Q

what does a non compressible vein indicate

A

DVT

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158
Q

Afib EKG findings

A

absent P waves and irregularly irregular RR interval

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159
Q

what drug is most effective for lowering triglycerides?

A

Fibrates

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160
Q

How do fibrates work?

A

activate PPAR-alpha and increase lipoprotein lipase activity–>lowers LDL and SIGNIFICANTLY lowers triglycerides, increases HDL

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161
Q

Side effect of fibrates

A

increased risk of cholesterol gallstones bc they inhibit CYP450; also hepatotoxicity and myopathy

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162
Q

What murmur is heard in mitral stenosis

A

diastolic murmur best heard at apex
opening snap after S2
**shorter interval between S2 and opening snap indicates more severe disease

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163
Q

What valve defect is often seen in Marfan syndrome?

A

Mitral valve prolapse

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164
Q

Describe mitral valve prolapse murmur

A

late systolic crescendo murmur with a midsystolic click

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165
Q

What is Beck Triad

A

Muffled heart sounds, distended neck veins, hypotension

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166
Q

describe electrical alternans

A

low voltage QRS complex with fluctuating R wave amplitude

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167
Q

what happens to the stroke volume is diastolic heart failure

A

narrow stroke volume

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168
Q

What happens to aortic stenosis murmur with maneuvers that increase the afterload (Ex/ handgrip)

A

decrease intensity of the murmur

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169
Q

test of choice for diagnosing DVT

A

compression ultrasonography

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170
Q

which holosystolic murmur increases with inspiration

A

tricuspid regurgitation

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171
Q

what is amplodipine

A

dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker
causes vasodilation and decreases BP
Common side effects: peripheral edema, headaches, dizziness, flushing, reflex tachycardia

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172
Q

Antidote for norepinephrine extravasation

A

phentolamine

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173
Q

Most common congenital cardiac anomaly in down syndrome

A

Atrioventricular septal defects (aka endocardial cushion defects)

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174
Q

Prinzmetal angina

A

symptoms occur at rest
triggers include stress, smoking, alcohol, drugs, triptan use
anterior ST elevations

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175
Q

What is the effect of PDGF from platelets and macrophages in atherosclerotic plaques?

A

intimal migration of smooth muscle cells, which mediates the transformation of fibroblasts into myofibroblasts (necessary for fibrous cap formation)

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176
Q

Infants born to diabetic mothers are at increased risk for which congenital heart defect?

A

transposition of the great vessels

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177
Q

What medication inhibits cholesterol absorption in the intestines and what is a side effect of this medication

A

Ezetimibe, elevated liver function tests (hepatotoxicity)

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178
Q

Pressure and volume overload occurs when frank-starling mechanisms fail…this leads to what?

A

concentric hypertrophy in response to pressure overload
eccentric hypertrophy in response to volume overload
overall, increase in size and mass of the heart

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179
Q

What happens to myocardial metabolism in heart failure?

A

begins to use glucose (like is a fetal heart) with downregulation of FA metabolism machinery

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180
Q

What causes interstitial fibrosis in heart failure

A

oxidative stress of cardiac fibroblasts (decrease collagen synthesis and activate fibroblast degradation) and NOX2 (activates fibroblast degradation)

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181
Q

Which adrenergic receptor does NE selectively bind?

A

beta 1 (more than beta 2 or alpha 1)

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182
Q

What happens in response to decreased cardiac output?

A

increased RAAS
Increased ADH
Increased SNS activity (increase contractility and HR)

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183
Q

Harmful effects of adrenergic receptors in human heart

A

cardiac myocyte growth, fibroblast hyperplasia, myocyte damage/myopathy, fetal gene induction, myocyte apoptosis, proarrhythmia, vasoconstriction

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184
Q

Compare the beta receptors in normal hearts and hearts in heart failure

A

Normal: 70-80% are beta1 agonist receptors

Heart failure: downregulation of beta1 so beta1:beta2 ratio is 60% to 40%

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185
Q

What drug can be used in heart failure

A

beta blockers
block effects of NE beta1 stimulation to re-establish normal autonomic nervous system homeostasis, also upregulates beta1 receptors slightly (improve exercise tolerance)

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186
Q

What is the effect of natriuretic peptides

A

vasodilation (also natriuresis and diuresis, antihypertrophy, antifibrosis, inhibition of SNS)

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187
Q

What secretes CNP

A

vascular endothelial cells, in response to inflammatory mediators

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188
Q

What is sacubitril (entresto)

A

inhibits neprilysin (normally cleaves ANP, BNP, CNP)

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189
Q

Factors associated with lower than expected BNP or NT-proBNP

A

obesity, flash pulmonary edema, heart failure causes upstream from left ventricle, cardiac tamponade, pericardial constriction

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190
Q

Factors associated with elevated BNP

A

left ventricular dysfunction, previous heart failure, arrhythmia, acute coronary syndromes, cardiotoxic drugs, significant pulmonary disease, advanced age, renal dysfunction, anemia, critical illness, high output states (sepsis, cirrhosis, hyperthyroidism)

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191
Q

what type of dysfunction is seen in HFrEF

A

Systolic dysfunction

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192
Q

what type of dysfunction is seen in HFpEF

A

diastolic dysfunction (abnormal relaxation)

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193
Q

List some causes of systolic dysfunction

A

coronary artery disease (MI), chronic volume overload (mitral or aortic regurg), dilated cardiomyopathies, advanced aortic stenosis, uncontrolled severe hypertension

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194
Q

List some causes of diastolic dysfunction

A

left ventricular hypertrophy, restrictive cardiomyopathy, myocardial fibrosis, transient MI, pericardial constriction or tamponade

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195
Q

describe the PV loop in HFpEF

A

LV pressure will be higher for any given volume

ESV will be lower due to stiffness

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196
Q

What worses diastolic dysfunction

A

exercise

Use exercise echo to evaluate diastolic dysfunction

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197
Q

Causes of acute HF

A

nonadherence with medication regimen, recent addition of negative inotropic drugs, initiation of drugs that increase salt retention, excessive alcohol or illicit drug use, endocrine abnormalities, concurrent infections

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198
Q

When do you administer ACEI/ARB or HF beta blockers to patients who were not previously on these drugs?

A

wait until after the IV heart failure meds (diuretics and vasopressors) are given

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199
Q

Describe the dose of IV loop diuretics given for acute HF. What if the patient does not respond?

A

usually about 2X the home dose, either bolus or infusion

no response=increase loop diuretic dose or add metolazone

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200
Q

What are some signs of low perfusion

A

cool extremities, low urine output, altered mental status, inadequate response to IV diuretic, prerenal azotemia

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201
Q

What are some signs of congestion

A

increase JVD, peripheral edema, S3, DOE/SOA, orthopnea/PND, rales, recent weight gain

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202
Q

treatments for patients with HFrEF that are
wet and warm
dry and cold
wet and cold

A

WW: watch for decreased perfusion, BP, mental status changes, decreased urine/kidney function with diuretics
DC: give inotropes to improve perfusion
WC: diuretics and inotropes

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203
Q

what increases risk for in-hospital mortality in acute HF presentation?

A

Hypotension (SBP less 115 mmHg)
BUN>43
Creatinine >2.75 mg/dL

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204
Q

What treatment is given for HFrEF patient with decreased perfusion

A

inotropes (beta 1 agonists)

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205
Q

What is milrinone

A

a PDE3 inhibitor that increases cAMP to cause vasodilation

can be used in acute decompensated HF

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206
Q

What is a common medication used in chronic HFrEF

A

digoxin (usually oral)

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207
Q

What drug is added for patient with HFrEF if beta blocker therapy is not sufficient

A

ivabradine (inhibits funny current in SA node)–>reduced persistently elevated HR and does not affect contractility

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208
Q

What are treatment options for ventricular arrhythmias in stage C HFrEF

A

muscle scar is arrhythmogenic for ventricular arrhythmias
tx=amidarone or sotalol
*mexilitine if they are resistant to the others

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209
Q

What happens to the SVR in cardiogenic shock

A

SVR is increased to compensate for loss of CO

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210
Q

Describe changes in preload, afterload, and cardiac output in different types of shock

A

Distributive: preload decreased, afterload decreased, CO increased

Hypovolemic: preload decreased, afterload increased, CO decreased

Cardiogenic: preload increased, afterload increased, CO decreased

Obstructive pulmonary: preload increased in RV and decreased in LV, afterload increased, CO decreased

Obstructive mechanical: preload decreased, afterload increased, CO decreased

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211
Q

Treatment for cardiogenic shock?

A

IV positive inotropes (dobutamine)

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212
Q

what is the number one cause of SCD in athletes

A

HYPERTROPHIC CARDIOMYOPATHY

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213
Q

Mutations coding for what can be the cause of genetic heart disease?

A

sarcomeres (more than 1400 mutations have been identified)

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214
Q

Common sequelae of HCM

A

LV outflow tract obstruction, diastolic dysfunction, myocardial ischemia, mitral regurg, systolic dysfunction

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215
Q

what are the 3 broad symtom categories of HCM

A

heart failure, chest pain, arrhythmias

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216
Q

what percentage of px with HCM present with a murmur

A

53%

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217
Q

What is the most common symptom of HCM in px less than 1 year old

A

murmur

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218
Q

mortality is high for infants with HCM, what is the cause of death

A

heart failure (as opposed to arrhythmia)

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219
Q

What causes LV outflow tract obstruction

A

combo of septal hypertrophy and systolic anterior motion of mitral valve–>this causes a murmur

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220
Q

Describe the murmur in HCM

A

loudest at apex/LLSB, may radiate to axilla, murmur increases with valsalva and standing (decreased preload), murmur decreases with handgrip and squatting (increased afterload)

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221
Q

Name some causes of restrictive cardiomyopathy

A

hemochromatosis, sarcoidosis, amyloidosis

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222
Q

What kind of heart failure does restrictive cardiomyopathy cause?

A

diastolic heart failure (HFpEF)

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223
Q

Causes of dilated cardiomyopathy

A

selenium deficiency, viral myocarditis, alcoholic cardiomyopathy, doxorubicin therapy

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224
Q

Formula for ejection fraction

A

stroke volume/end diastolic volume

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225
Q

mutations in titin protein will cause what?

A

dilated cardiomyopathy

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226
Q

describe the pathophysiology of ACS

A

vulnerable vessel–>acute plaque rupture or erosion–>vascular spasm and in situ thrombosis–>luminal compromise

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227
Q

Signs and symptoms of NSTEMI

A

chest pain/other ischemic symptoms with abnormal EKG changes (ST depression or T-wave inversions) and elevated troponin levels

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228
Q

How is the unstable angina clinically differentiated from NSTEMI

A

troponin is negative in unstable angina

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229
Q

Why is ST depression seen in NSTEMI

A

subendocardial ischemia causes ST vector to be directed toward the inner layer of the affected ventricle and ventricular cavity so the overlying leads record this as ST depression bc the electrical current is traveling away from the leads

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230
Q

Why is ST elevation seen in STEMI

A

with transmural or epicardial injury, the ST vector is directed outward and toward the overlying leads, so these leads record it as ST elevation (can get reciprocal ST depression in contralateral leads)

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231
Q

How long does it take after an MI to have complete necrosis of the cardiac muscle?

A

24 hours (wavefront phenomenon)

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232
Q

What biomarker is the gold standard for an MI/ACS

A

troponin (released from cardiomyocytes when these cells die)

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233
Q

What often causes cardiac arrest in a STEMI

A

Ventricular fibrillation

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234
Q

Describe treatment for a STEMI

A

aspirin 325 mg X 1 STAT
Heparin 5000 U bolus
activate STEMI team to fix occluded artery within 90 minutes
Emergency percutaneous coronary intervention
Dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus P2Y12 antagonist)

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235
Q

NSTEMI initial treatment

A

aspirin and heparin drip, statin and beta blocker, nitroglycerin to receive chest pain, cardiac cath within 2-48 hours, DAPT

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236
Q

Describe EKG changes in an untreated STEMI

A

Acute: ST elevation
Hours: ST elevation, decreased R wave, Q wave begins
Days 1-2: T wave inversion, Q wave deeper
Days later: ST normalizes, T wave is inverted
Weeks later: ST and T normal, Q wave persists

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237
Q

differentiation between ischemia and infarction

A

Ischemia: reduced coronary perfusion resulting in myocardium with inadequate oxygen delivery
Infarction: death of cardiomyocytes, usually due to acute coronary syndromes

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238
Q

What is the underlying substrate of ACS

A

large lipid plaques

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239
Q

list the 3 main platelet activation pathways and the drugs associated with them

A

COX/thromboxane: aspirin
P2Y12 receptor agonists (ADP agonist): clopidogrel, ticagrelor, prasugrel
GPIIb/IIIa inhibitors: tirofiban, eptifibatide, abciximab

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240
Q

How does heparin work

A

catalyst for anti-thrombin III–>inhibits thrombin=anticoagulation

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241
Q

When is an ACEI used in ACS patients?

A

EF less than 40%, Diabetes mellitus, HTN

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242
Q

When are aldosterone blockers used for patients post MI? when are they contraindicated?

A

if ejection fraction is less than 40%

significant renal disease or hyperkalemia

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243
Q

describe use of anticoag/antiplatelet therapy in ACS

A

anticoagulation with unfractionated heparin from ER presentation until cardiac cath
STOP anticoag therapy after PCI
DAPT are continued after PCI

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244
Q

Biomarker for acute pulmonary embolism

A

D-dimer (if positive, then CTA chest PE protocol and V/Q scan)

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245
Q

Treament for PE (esp is patient is not a candidate for t-PA)

A

surgical embolectomy!

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246
Q

Describe the pain is acute pericarditis

A

pleuritic chest pain: sharp, worse with deep inspiration

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247
Q

EKG changes seen in acute pericarditis

A

Diffuse ST elevations, PR segment depression in lead II, PR segment elevation in lead aVR

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248
Q

How is acute pericarditis treated?

A

NSAIDs or colchicine

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249
Q

common cause of acute pericarditis?

A

viral

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250
Q

Typical medication treatment for STEMI after PCI

A

aspirin 81 mg daily, P2Y12 antagonist (clopidogrel or ticagrelor), atorvastatin/rosuvastatin, metoprolol, lisinopril, smoking cessation and therapy, medical therapy for HTN and diabetes as needed

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251
Q

Risk factors for CAD

A

age, HTN, hyperlipidemia, cigarette smoking, diabetes

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252
Q

What is the major site of resting resistance in the coronary circulation

A

arterioles

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253
Q

What substance causes max vasodilation of the arterioles which leads to hyperemic blood flow

A

Adenosine

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254
Q

At what percentage of stenosis do patients experience a drop in coronary flow during exercise (angina symptoms)? at rest?

A

70% stenosis is when symptoms appear during exertion, 90% stenosis causes symptoms at rest

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255
Q

What is normal resting coronary blood flow?

A

225 ml/min

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256
Q

When does the coronary blood flow occur?

A

during diastole (d/t compression during systole)

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257
Q

what should be the effect of exercise on coronary blood flow normally?

A

about a 4 fold increase in coronary blood flow to match the demand for oxygen

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258
Q

Stable angina

A

chest pain or tightness + possible dyspnea on exertion and fatigure/exercise intolerance, relieved with rest

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259
Q

Describe primary prevention

A

prevention of a disease or disease event in a person with no known evidence of this disease

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260
Q

Describe secondary prevention

A

Prevention of a disease/disease event in a person who has been diagnosed with a disease and/or had a symptomatic event due to disease

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261
Q

What is coronary CTA. what is a requirement to be a candidate for coronary CTA

A

newer alternative to stress testing to assess patients with chest pain. MUST have creatinine less than 1.5 so they can safely receive IV contrast

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262
Q

Stable angina therapy has two main goals. What are they and what medicines are used to achieve them?

A

reduce risk of MI and death: aspirin 81 mg daily, high intensity statin therapy
Reduce symptom burden: beta-blockers, long acting nitrates, calcium channel blocker, ranolazine

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263
Q

What are the two methods of revascularization

A

PCI (stent) and CABG

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264
Q

What are the three options for bypass conduit in CABG

A

saphenous vein graft, radial artery, or LIMA

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265
Q

Simplistic breakdown of which patients receive which revascularization

A

Severe, symptomatic CAD with triple vessel CAD or left main disease are treated with CABG; severe, symptomatic CAD with all other CAD anatomy (single vessel, double vessel) are typically treated with PCI

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266
Q

What is the most common method for assessing severity of coronary artery stenosis

A

visual estimation on coronary angiogram (can have inter-observer variability, over/under estimation of true severity)

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267
Q

What is FFR/intracoronary physiology.

Formula?

A

a method to determine severity of coronary artery stenosis.

FFR=distal coronary pressure/proximal coronary pressure *measured during maximum hyperemia

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268
Q

what is the FFR cutpoint for significant ischemia

A

FFR less than or equal to 0.8

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269
Q

what is iFR (instantaneous wave free ratio)

A

similar to FFR but does not require hyperemia–it is a resting physiologic index

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270
Q

Cutpoint for iFR

A

less than or equal to 0.89

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271
Q

optimal medical therapy for CAD

A

antiplatelet therapy (aspirin)
high intensity statin
beta blocker
second anti-anginal med (ex/ nitrate, ranolazine, CCB)

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272
Q

Which medication indicated for CAD is associated with a reduction in the risk for mortality?

A

Atorvastatin (and aspirin)

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273
Q

What can cause dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

idiopathic, familial (sarcomere mutations), inflammatory causes (infectious or peripartum) toxic (alcohol, cocaine, chemo), thyrotoxicosis, hypothyroidism, chronic hypocalcemia, tachycardia (afib), myotonic dystrophy

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274
Q

common mutations that cause DCM?

A

desmin, dystrophin, myosin binding protein C, titin, beta-myosin heavy chain, troponin, lamin A/C (many of these proteins are also mutated in HCM)

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275
Q

pathophysiology of DCM

A

decreased contractility, decreased stroke volume–>increased ventricular filling pressures (pulmonary and systemic congestion results), LV dilation leads to mitral regurg, decreased foward cardiac output (manifests as fatigue and weakness)

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276
Q

what heart sound is heard with DCM

A

S3 (also a mitral regurg murmur due to left ventrical dilation)

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277
Q

What happens to the PMI in dilated cardiomyopathy

A

lateral displacement (bc cardiomegaly)

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278
Q

How do you treat peripartum DCM

A

during pregnany: avoid nonselective beta blockers, use b1 selective (metoprolol succinate at low doses), NO acei, use hydralazine/nitrate combo

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279
Q

If LVEF is less than 25% or LV dysfunction persists for more than 6 months post partum, what are your recommendations

A
no subsequent pregnancies
anticoagulation therapy (high incidence of LV thrombus if LVEF is less than 35%)
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280
Q

Does heparin cross the placenta

A

no

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281
Q

Other names for stress cardiomyopathy

A

broken heart syndrome, apical ballooning syndrome

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282
Q

What is stress cardiomyopathy

A

transient regional systolic dysfunction of LV apex with sparing of the base, presents like an acute MI, cardiac cath shows normal coronaries

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283
Q

Who gets stress cardiomyopathy

A

females more than males, common in japan, postmenopausal is common, often preceded by a stressor

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284
Q

Pathophysiology of stress cardiomyopathy

A

excess catecholamines, microvascular disease (NOT classic epicardial CAD)

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285
Q

Stress cardiomyopathy ECG and cardiac biomarkers

A

ECG: ST elevation in about 45% of patients, ST depression in 7%, QT prolongation is common
Cardiac biomarkers: troponin is positive in most patients, BNP is positive

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286
Q

Treatment for stress cardiomyopathy

A

Beta-blockers, ACEI/ARB, diuretics

Prognosis is great (most recover in months), recurrences are possible

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287
Q

describe restrictive cardiomyopathy

A
impaired diastole (active process) due to loss of compliance, fibrosis or scaring of endomyocardial tissue, infiltration of a noncontractile complex/material into myocardium
normal ejection fraction until end stage
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288
Q

Examples of restrictive cardiomyopathy

A

scleroderma, amyloidosis, sarcoidosis, hemochromatosis, glycogen storage diseases (fabry, pompe), hypereosinophilic syndrome (Loefflers), metastatic tumors, radiation therapy

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289
Q

Pathophysiology in restrictive cardiomyopathies

A

reduced LV filling, normal ejection fraction, reduced cardiac output, increased diastolic pressures, smaller ventricular chambers (decreased cardiac output and higher heart rates)

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290
Q

Symptoms of restrictive cardiomyopathy

A

DOE, venous congestion, usual heart failure signs and symptoms, exercise intolerance

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291
Q

Increased diastolic ventricular pressure in restrictive cardiomyopathy can cause what?

A

atrial fibrillation

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292
Q

Physical exam findings for restrictive cardiomyopathy

A

tachycardia, JVD, Kussmaul sign (inspiratory increase in JVP as stiff RV cannot accommodate more volumes), pulm congestion with rales, irregularly irregular rhythm if Afib is present, TR murmur, ascites, peripheral edema

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293
Q

ECG findings in restrictive cardiomyopathy

A

nonspecific ST and T wave changes (can be afib rhythm), amyloid heart has low voltage and Q waves, sarcoid has conduction blocks

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294
Q

Echo findings with restrictive cardiomyopathy

A

dilated atria, left ventricles have normal to small chamber size, left ventricle EF is normal (until end stage), in infiltrative types there is a speckled appearance of LV

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295
Q

How do you differentiate between restrictive CM versus constrictive pericarditis

A

echo, invasive heart cath (hemodynamic study), CT chest or MRI (thick pericardium), EM biopsy can be helpful too (normal in constriction)

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296
Q

What kind of medical management is appropriate for restrictive cardiomyopathy

A

overall poor prognosis
Hemochromatosis: iron chelation plus phlebotomy
Primary amyloid AL: chemo plus stem cell transplant
TTR Amyloid: new treatments available

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297
Q

Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia

A

Genetic disorder with incomplete penetrance and incomplete expressivity
Genes that code for desmosomes (loss of intercalated discs) replacement of mainly RV free wall by fibrofatty tissues

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298
Q

diagnosis of ARVC

A

ECG: epsilon waves, RV arrhythmias
Echo is not very helpful, neither is cardiac biopsy (too many false positives)
Cardiac MRI
Genetic testing when a family member is diagnosed

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299
Q

Signs and symptoms of ARVC

A

family history positive for syncope or SCD, RV arrhythmias (palpitations, syncope, SCD)

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300
Q

Treatment for ARVC

A

ICD to prevent SCD

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301
Q

Left ventricular noncompaction

A

prominent trabeculae, deep recesses, contraction abnormalities and relaxation abnormalities that lead to heart failure, conduction abnormality leads to arrhythmias, thrombotic risk

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302
Q

inheritance of left ventricular noncompaction

A

AD, AR, or X-linked recessive, sarcomere mutation

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303
Q

Treatment for left ventricular noncompaction

A

anticoagulation and ICD

ultimately transplant is needed

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304
Q

Why is mitral regurg present in HCM

A

due to abnormal mitral valve, abnormal chordae tendinae, poor coaptation

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305
Q

Other cardiac findings in HCM

A

S3 or S4, paradoxic splitting of S2 (with severe LVOTO), brisk and bifid arterial pulses, diffuse LV apical impulse on palpation, parasternal lift, signs of CHF

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306
Q

Describe the murmur in HCM

A

harsh ejection murmur loudest at apex/LLSB due to combo of septal hypertrophy and systolic anterior motion of mitral valve
May radiate to axilla and base (rarely to the neck)

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307
Q

When would you use a cardiac MRI for HCM

A

if echo diagnosis is undetermined, to evaluate for fibrosis

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308
Q

ECG for HCM

A

most sensitive but not specific (5% had a normal ECG)
prominent Q waves in inferior and lateral leads, enlarged P waves in lead II suggesting atrial enlargement (byproduct of diastolic dysfunction), left axis deviation, inverted T-waves in lateral leads

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309
Q

Echo is HCM

A

can determine LV hypertrophy, systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve, and LVOT obstruction

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310
Q

what is considered gray zone for LV thickness?

A

13-15 mm–hard to distinguish between HCM and athletes heart

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311
Q

Why do we care about thickness of LV in HCM

A

increasing risk of SCD with increasing wall thickness

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312
Q

Conditions associated with HCM

A

Fabry disease, noonan syndrome (male version of Turner syndrome), pompe disease, fatty acid oxidation deficiency, mitochondrial

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313
Q

Who should be screened for HCM

A

all 1st degree relatives of a HCM patient with genetic mutation–should be screened every 12-18 months by eacho and every 5 years after 21

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314
Q

Which arrhythmias are seen in HCM

A

atrial and ventricular arrhythmias; nonsustained VT associated with significant increase risk of SCD; SVT observed in up to 40% of patients

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315
Q

which type of arrhythmia is rare except for patients with fabry disease

A

bradyarrhythmias

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316
Q

What is the goal of pharmacologic treatment in HCM

A

symptoms and improve functional capacity, slow disease progression (NOT prevention of arrhythmias)

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317
Q

What are some factors that are proposed to lead to arrhythmias

A

myocardiac hypertrophy, disarray, fibrosis, ischemia, and autonomic disturbance

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318
Q

How is myocardial fibrosis detected

A

late gadolinium enhancement on cardiac MRI

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319
Q

Risk factors for SCD in HCM patients

A

family history of SCD, unexplained syncope, NSVT (more than 3 beats at a rate of 120), massive left ventricular hypertrophy (more than 33 mm), abnormal blood pressure response to exercise (failure to increase SBP by at least 20 mmHg or fall more than 20 mmHg from peak exercise BP to ongoing exercise)

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320
Q

how many high-risk factors must a HCM patient have to have a drastically increased risk of SCD

A

at least 3 high-risk factors

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321
Q

Cause of death in young (5-15 years old) HCM patients compared to older HCM patients

A

younger patients usually die from SCD, older patients have increased chance of dying from heart failure (or stroke)

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322
Q

When is an ICD used in HCM patients

A

two or more high risk factors (may consider for 1 high risk factor), sudden cardiac arrest, end stage HCM (LVEF less than 50%), or LV apical aneurysm

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323
Q

Side effects of ICD in HCM

A

25% experience inappropriate ICD discharge, some have lead complications, 4-5% with device infection, 2-3% experience bleeding or thrombosis

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324
Q

What is the goal of treatment for HCM

A

treat symptoms (if a patient is asymptomatic, treatment is unnecessary)

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325
Q

Common medications given in HCM

A

beta blockers (reduce LVOTO), calcium channel blockers (usually verapamil), disopyramide, ranolazine, careful use of diuretics (because HCM patients are extremely preload dependent)

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326
Q

How do beta blockers reduce angina symptoms

A

decrease myocardial oxygen demand

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327
Q

How do CCB reduce angina symptoms

A

improve microvascular function

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328
Q

Nonpharmacologic treatment of left ventricular outflow tract obstruction

A

used in pharm fails (heart failure symptoms persist despite max medical therapy or LVOT gradient more than 50 mmHg)

Options include surgical myectomy or alcohol ablation

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329
Q

What is a septal myectomy

A

direct removal of septal muscle (may also address abnormal mitral valve leaflets at the same time)

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330
Q

Complications associated with septal myectomy

A

excess septal tissue removed causing a ventricular septal defect; LBBB; CHB

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331
Q

What is alcohol ablation? what is one drawback?

A

creates localized infarction in basal septum (performed through coronary artery. Alcohol ablation does not offer the ability to address mitral valve issues

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332
Q

Compare septal myectomy and alcohol ablations

A

no difference in long term mortality or rates of aborted sudden cardiac death
Need for pacemaker is much higher in alcohol ablation

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333
Q

Compare sports restrictions in europe and america

A

Europe allows recreational activities (no competitive sports), American does not allow any sports

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334
Q

Name two drugs that we learned in cardio that result in tachyphylaxis (rapid diminished response to a drug due to depletion of endogenous receptors)

A

nitroglycerine, phenylephrine

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335
Q

describe the effects of calcium channel blockers (verapamil)

A

negative inotropic, negative dromotropic, negative chronotropic, vasodilation

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336
Q

what is the underlying mechanism for mitral valve prolapse?

A

myxomatous degeneration

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337
Q

what is a prominent side effect of amiodarone?

A

pulmonary fibrosis (may see blue-grey skin discoloration too but this isnt dangerous)

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338
Q

An increase in which metabolites can lead to local vasodilation in exercising muscle

A

adenosine, lactate, H+, K+, CO2

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339
Q

Indications for cardiac stress testing

A

diagnosis of coronary artery disease, prognosis of coronary artery disease, efficacy of treatment of CAD; chest pain; angina in CAD pt; post MI; exercise prescription for cardiac rehab; pre op eval for noncardiac surg; new cardiomyopathy

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340
Q

Contraindications of stress testing

A

acute MI; 100% pacing or patient with chronotropic incompetence with a pacemaker; unstable angina; uncontrolled cardiac arrhythmias causing sx or hemodynamic compromise; symptomatic severe aortic stenosis; uncontrolled symptomatic heart failure; acute PE or pulm infection; acute myocarditis or pericarditis; acute aortic dissection

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341
Q

Relative contraindications to stress testing

A

left main coronary stenosis, moderate stenotic valvular heart disease, electrolyte abnormalities, severe arterial hypertension, tachy or bradyarrhythmias, HCM/outflow tract obstruction, mental or physical impairment leading to inability to exercise, high-degree AV block, LVH with repolarization changes

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342
Q

Compare development of CAD in men and women

A

women are delayed in developing CAD by about 1 decade compared to men

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343
Q

ECG treadmill stress test goals

A

HR=(220-age)*0.85

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344
Q

BRUCE protocol

A

treadmill starts flat x 3min
Q3 min treadmill increases speed and angle
Naughton slower and lower treadmill angle for CHF px and modified BRUCE for less conditioned patients

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345
Q

ECG criteria for positive stress test

A

measure ST depression 80ms from the J point

  • 2mm horizontal or downsloping ST depression in anterior or lateral leads=ischemia
  • 1mm horizontal or downsloping ST depression in inferior leads=ischemia
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346
Q

What is myocardial perfusion imaging

A

images of tissue perfusion of isotope after exercise compared to rest images (imaging can occur up to 4-6 hours after injection)

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347
Q

How do we do stress testing in patients unable to do treadmill

A

nuclear/echo/PET imaging ONLY (ecg not helpful bc there is no target heart rate)

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348
Q

How is regadenosine used in nuclear stress testing

A

it is a coronary vasodilator–>blocked artery wont be able to vasodilate to caliber of normal artery and will not change with readenosine administration (already max vasodilated due to endogenous vasodilators)–>evaluate for lack of tissue perfusion to identify ischemic areas

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349
Q

Dosage of regadenosine is stress testing

A

LOW DOSE (bc higher doses can also block the AV node)

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350
Q

what can you do if patient is unable to reach target HR with treadmill test

A

add regadenosine dose to treatmill test patient and then do usual post stress imaging

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351
Q

Why do we add echo to stress tests?

A

to determine wall motion abnormalities and determine culprit coronary artery

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352
Q

what is the advantage to using echo over MPI

A

evaluates for CAD and/or valve function, pulmonary pressures, and LV outflow tract obstruction during exercise

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353
Q

when is dobutamine stress echo indicated

A

nonCAD dyspnea, diastolic dysfunction, mitral valve disease, aortic valve disease, prosthetic valve eval

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354
Q

Dobutamine protocol

A

start infusion at 2.5 micrograms/kg/min and increase at 3 minute intervals

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355
Q

What does a biphasic response (improvement then worsening) in a dobutamine stress test indicate?

A

ischemia

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356
Q

What patient population is likely to receive a dobutamine stress test?

A

severe COPD patients

*cannot walk on treadmill and cannot tolerate regadenosine

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357
Q

Indications for Holter monitor

A

symptoms occur daily (monitor duration is 24-72 hours)

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358
Q

indications for event recorder

A

symptoms occur less than daily, more than 1-2 events per month, Afib burden (monitor duration 2 weeks to 4 weeks)

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359
Q

indications for internal loop recorder

A

symptoms less than monthly, cryptogenic stroke, AF burden (monitor duration is 3 years)

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360
Q

Chest radiography findings in congestive heart failure

A

cephalization of vessels, interstitial edema, alveolar edema, pleural effusions

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361
Q

Chest radiography findings in pulmonic valve stenosis

A

poststenotic dilation of pulmonary artery

362
Q

Chest radiography findings in aortic valve stenosis

A

poststenotic dilation of ascending aorta

363
Q

Chest radiography findings in aortic regurg

A

left ventricular dilation, dilated aorta

364
Q

Chest radiography findings in mitral stenosis

A

left atrial dilation, signs of pulm venous congestion

365
Q

Chest radiography findings in mitral regurg

A

left atrial dilation, left ventricular dilation, signs of pulm venous congestion in acute MR

366
Q

special indications for echo

A

masses, tumors, myxomas, embolic source for stroke or TIA, endocarditis, congenital heart disease, cardiac device eval, screening of first degree relative for inherited cardiomyopathy

367
Q

formula for the pressure gradient across a valve

A

4v^2

v=velocity

368
Q

Continuity equation in closed flow system

A

A1V1=A2V2

369
Q

Indications for TEE

A

further assess valves (esp mitral valve), embolic source for cause of stroke or TIA (rule out LAA thrombus prior to cardioversion in Afib), further assess PFO, ASD, VSD, endocarditis, prior to Afib ablation procedure

370
Q

What is considered high risk stress testing that should be referred to a cardiologist

A

chronotropic incompetence, exercise induced arrhythmias or syncope, prior to AAD, positive CTA with high burden Ca or high Ca score, new cardiomyopathy (LV ejection fraction about 40%), non cardiac transplant eval

371
Q

Ankle-brachial index results and their meanings

A
  1. 99-130: normal vessels of LE
  2. 91-0.99: borderline for PAD, may have claudication
  3. 41-0.90: signficant PAD, may cause claudication
  4. 00-0.41: severe PAD, claudication
372
Q

Why should you be cautious using an ABI in a patient with diabetes mellitus

A

their vessels are calcified and uncompressible

373
Q

What are the two groups of infective endocarditis?

A

native valve endocarditis and prosthetic valve endocarditis

374
Q

Four steps required for IE

A

Injury to endocardial surface–>platelet-fibrin-thrombus formation at the site of injury–>bacteremia–>bacterial adherence to the platelet-fibrin-thrombus complex with bacterial growth and host response

375
Q

What can cause disruption of the endocardial surface

A

turbulent blood flow or direct injury to the surface or inflammation

376
Q

If normal tooth brushing released bacteria into the bloodstream, why do most people not get infective endocarditis?

A

because the normal cardiac endothelium is highly resistant to bacterial adhesion

377
Q

What is the one bacteria that can easily infect uninjured endocardial tissue

A

staph aureus (because extra cellular dextran makes them stickier)

378
Q

Why are gram positive organisms more likely to cause endocarditis

A

they are resistant to complement killing

379
Q

How can bacteria enter the bloodstream?

A
direct inoculation (tooth brushing, catheter placement into a vein like PWID, hemodialysis, IV line)
Indirect entery (bacteria breach local defenses and anatomic barriers like in cellulitis with bacteremia)
380
Q

75% of IE cases are seen in patients with known structural heart disease…what is the exception?

A

50% of cases with S. aureus occur in absence of heart disease, especially in PWID

381
Q

Why are macrophages not able to kill the bacteria in the bacteria/platelet/fibrin interaction?

A

fibrin matrix inhibits macrophages killing bacteria

382
Q

describe how the Venturi effect is relevant in IE

A

IE lesions are seen on the low pressure side of the valve

383
Q

Risk factors for IE

A

age over 60 yo (due to decrease in rheumatic heart disease and increase in age associated valvular degeneration), Male, PWID, dialysis, poor dentition, structural heart disease, prosthetic valve/implanted material

384
Q

What are HACEK organisms

A

organisms previously associated with culture negative endocarditis (fastidious gram negative rods)
Haemophilus aphrophilus, actinobaccilus actinomycetemcomitans, cardiobacterium hominis, Eikenella corrodens, Kingella kingae

385
Q

Where is a common place to see IE in PWID

A

tricuspid valve–this is because they inject directly into a vein, which is returned to the right side of the heart

386
Q

What causes IE in PWID

A

usually S. aureus (may also be drug contaminants like pseudomonas, fungi, oral flora)

387
Q

What is the most common bacteria seen in early prosthetic valve endocarditis

A

S. aureus and coag neg staph

  • usually less than 2 months post-op and due to IO contaminant or hematogenous spread in post op period
  • 2-12 months post-op coag neg staph is most common
388
Q

What is the most common bacteria seen in late prosthetic valve endocarditis

A

more than 12 months post-op, microbiology and pathophys is usually similar to native valve endocarditis

389
Q

what is an immunologic phenomenon of IE

A

immune complex deposition in kidneys (glomerulonephritix)

390
Q

What are the most common murmurs for IE? (not including PWID)

A

aortic or mitral regurg (tricuspid regurg in PWID)

391
Q

What is a Roth spot?

A

total embolic occlusion of retinal artery that can lead to blindness. Seen with IE

392
Q

What is one of the most important things to remember when trying to make a diagnosis of IE?

A

take blood cultures BEFORE giving antibiotics

393
Q

how is diagnosis of IE definitively made?

A

3 sets of blood cultures drawn from separate venipuncture sites in patients who have not received antibiotics (consistent, persistent bacteremia is the hallmark of IE)

394
Q

What imaging is done for all suspected IE cases?

A

transthoracic echocardiogram (higher sensitivity for abscess around the valve ring, smaller lesions, leaflet perforations

395
Q

what type of antibiotics must be used in IE (general)

A

Bacteriocidal–must kill the bacteria

396
Q

what can infection at the site of surgical attachment of valve to heart tissue lead to?

A

ring abscess–usually requires surgery for treatment

397
Q

Is IE usually monomicrobic or polymicrobic?

A

mono—polymicrobic IE is very rare

398
Q

What is usually necessary for fungal IE

A

valve replacement

399
Q

What are the major Jones criteria?

A

pancarditis, arthritis, sydenham’s chorea, E. marginatum, S. nodules (on the extensor tendons of hands and feet)

400
Q

What are the minor Jones criteria

A

fever, arthralgia, increased ESR, increased PR, leukocytosis

401
Q

How many major and minor symptoms are needed to make an RF diagnosis

A

2 major or 1major/2minor

402
Q

Where is the erythema marginatum rash seen?

A

usually over the trunk..NEVER on the face

403
Q

describe the erythema marginatum rash

A

pink evanescent rash with clear center and red margins on trunk, nonpruritic, migratory, nonindurated, and blanches on pressure

404
Q

What is the best standardized test for diagnosing RF

A

Antistreptolysin O test
single titer
250 Todd units in adult and 333 Todd units in children is considered elevated
*20% of patients with RF have low titer

405
Q

Pathognomonic lesion in RF

A
Aschoff bodies (giant cells with owl-eye nucleus)
3 phases found in heart
*Early (necrosis)
*Intermediate (proliferative)
*late (healed)
406
Q

What are anitschkow cells

A

cells with a caterpillar nucleus seen in RF

407
Q

What diseases will have fibrinous pericarditis?

A

rheumatic fever, uremia, post-MI

408
Q

What kind of endocarditis is seen in rheumatic fever?

A

verrucous (warty) at the closure of valves on the side of blood flow (atrial surface for AV valves and ventricular surface for semilunar valves)

409
Q

How is the mitral valve appearance described in RF

A

fish mouth mitral valve

410
Q

What is a McCallum patch

A

Map-like thickening of left atrial endocardium

411
Q

what percentage of RF cases are recovered by 6 weeks? 12 weeks?

A

75% by 6 weeks and 90% by 12 weeks

5% persist past 6 months

412
Q

what percentage RF cases have carditis

A

70% (frequency of recurrence depends on the frequency and severity of strept infection)

413
Q

Describe acute IE

A

usually occurs on normal valve, highly virulent microbes, destructive and rapidly progressive course, death within days to weeks in spite of aggressive therapy

414
Q

Describe subacute IE

A

usually occurs on abnormal valves, less virulent organisms, indolent course (over weeks to months), full recovery with treatment

415
Q

What will you see microscopically in IE?

A

fibrin, inflammatory cells, bacteria, and granulation tissue (in the subacute)

416
Q

What are some manifestations of microemboli in IE

A

petechiae, splinter hemorrhages, janeway lesions, subcutaenous osler nodes, roth spots

417
Q

Non-infective endocarditis (marantic endocarditis)

A

STERILE thrombus along the lines of closure of the valves, usually occurs in people with a hypercoagulable state (Trousseau’s syndrome) or very ill patients (ex/ Alzheimers)

418
Q

Libman-Sacks Endocarditis

A

SLE endocarditis, SMALL VEGETATIONS ON BOTH SIDES OF VALVES, fibrinoid necrosis and hematoxylin bodies

419
Q

Carcinoid Heart Disease

A

thick plaques on the right side of the heart–>acid mucopolysaccharides with matrix

420
Q

What is the trio of symptoms seen with carcinoid syndrome

A

flushing, diarrhea, bronchoconstriction (due to increased serotonin)

421
Q

Mitral valve prolapse (myxomatous degeneration) murmur

A

mid systolic click

422
Q

Mitral regurgitation murmur

A

holosystolic murmur that increases with squatting

423
Q

Why can mitral regurg happen after an MI

A

rupture of papillary muscles

424
Q

Murmur of mitral stenosis

A

opening snap followed by diastolic rumble

425
Q

Murmur of aortic stenosis

A

late systolic ejection murmur with weakened and delayed upstroke of carotid artery pulsations

426
Q

When will the aortic valve calcify

A

bicuspid aortic valve (calcification seen in younger px)

Aging

427
Q

What is a common complication of aortic stenosis

A

concentric left ventricular hypertrophy–>CHF

microangiopathic hemolytic anemia

428
Q

What can lead to aortic regurg

A

syphilis (aortic aneurysm) or infective endocarditis

429
Q

Murmur of aortic regurg?

A

early blowing diastolic murmur

430
Q

What happens to pulse pressure in aortic regurg

A

increases with aortic regurgitation (diastolic pressure decreases due to regurg and systolic pressure increases due to increased stroke volume)

431
Q

What are some signs of aortic regurg

A

bounding water hammer pulse, pulsating nail bed (Quincke pulse), head bobbing

432
Q

common side effect of amiodarone (a very lipophilic antiarrhythmic)

A

hyper/hypothyroidism

433
Q

What is the most common cause of mitral stenosis

A

rheumatic heart disease

434
Q

Peripheral blood flow is under dual regulations

A

CNS and local

435
Q

Which organs have strong autoregulation? weak autoregulation? little or none?

A

Strong: kidney, brain, coronary
Weak: skeletal muscle, splanchnic circulation
Little or none: cutaneous

436
Q

What is active hyperemia?

A

increased metabolic tissue activity (skeletal muscle, heart during contraction, neuronal, GI tract)–mediated by SNS control

437
Q

What is reactive hyperemia

A

increased flow in response to prior decrease–due to metabolite control

438
Q

What are some natural vasodilators

A

NO, CO2, H+, K, lactic acid (via pH effect), ANP/BNP, prostacyclin-1

439
Q

Natural vasoconstrictors

A

angiotensin II, vasopressin, endothelin-1

440
Q

What are the high pressure baroreceptors

A
arterial
Aortic sinus (vagus nerve) and carotid sinus (glossopharyngeal nerve)
441
Q

What are the low pressure baroreceptors

A

in right atria/ventricle –>ANP/BNP

pulmonary artery/vein–>vagus nerve

442
Q

What are the chemoreceptors

A

Aortic body and carotid body–>sense O2, CO2, pH

Central (medulla oblongata)–>CO2, pH

443
Q

Hypoventilation or diffusional problems lower pO2 and raise pCO2 causing?

A

reflex vasoconstriction and bradycardia

444
Q

What is the bainbridge reflex

A

intravenous infusion–>increased right atrial pressure–>atrial receptors stimulated–>increases heart rate

445
Q

When does the bainbridge reflex predominate over baroreceptor reflex

A

when blood volume rises

446
Q

when does baroreceptor reflex prevail over bainbridge reflex

A

when blood volume diminishes

447
Q

What receptor does the SNS act on to cause vasoconstriction? vasodilation?

A

constriction: alpha-1 receptors (norepi)
dilation: beta-2 receptors (epi)

448
Q

What is the true long term regulator of arterial pressure

A

Extracellular fluid

449
Q

What happens to contractility, TPR, and CO during intense physical exercise?

A

increased cardiac contractility, reduced TPR, increased CO

450
Q

What happens to contractility and CO during heart failure?

A

cardiac contractility is decreased, CO is decreased

end up getting Na retention to increase blood volume–>higher right atrial pressure

451
Q

What is the Cushing triad

A

presence of hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular respirations
*Helps save brain tissues during periods of poor perfusion

452
Q

Formula for cerebral perfusion pressure

A

MAP-intracranial pressure

normally 5-15 mmHg

453
Q

What does hypoxia-induced stimulation of aortic bodies cause?

A

tachycardia and vasoconstriction

454
Q

Reduced arterial oxygen directly relaxes vascular smooth muscle in all circulations except…?

A

the lung

455
Q

Integrated response to hypoxia

A

increased heart rate, cardiac output, and systolic BP while mean and diastolic arterial pressures remain constant or fall slightly

456
Q

What is primary (essential) hypertension

A

hypertension without an identifiable cause–most common disease in US medical practice

457
Q

What percentage of HTN cases are primary?

A

90% (more than 75 million americans affected)

458
Q

What is secondary hypertension

A

specific cause of HTN is identified

459
Q

White coat hypertension

A

BP measured in office is high but BP measured at home or other settings is normal

460
Q

Define normal, elevated, stage 1 HTN, and stage 2 HTN

A

normal: less than 120 mmHg and less than 80 mmHg
Elevated: 120-129 mmHg and less than 80 mmHg
Stage 1 HTN: 130-139 mmHg or 80-89 mmHg
Stage 2 HTN: more than 140 mmHg or more than 90 mmHg

461
Q

Elevations in what 3 things can cause increased BP?

A

heart rate, increased stroke volume, increased SVR

462
Q

Where does renin come from

A

juxtaglomerular cells in kidney
SNS nerve fibers in aortic arch relax with low BP to stimulate JGC, also JGC act as baroreceptors, and chemoreceptors in macula densa cells sense NaCl in loop and released prostaglandins to stimulate renin

463
Q

Effects of angiotensin II

A

increase BP, vasoconstriction of afferent and efferent arterioles in kidney, stimulates thirst centers in hypothalamus, increases ADH to increase H2O absorption in kidney, causes adrenal gland to release aldosterone

464
Q

Best nonpharm interventions for prevention and treatment of hypertension

A

Weight loss, healthy diet (DASH diet), reduced intake of dietary sodium, enahnced intake of dietary potassium,, increase physical activity, moderation in alcohol intake

465
Q

Recommended BP goal for patients with hypertension

A

130/80

466
Q

Causes of secondary HTN

A

obstructive sleep apnea, renal artery stenosis, pheochromocytoma, CKD, meds/drugs, hyperaldosteronism, hypercortisolism, thyroid dysfunction, coarctation of aorta

467
Q

How does obstructive sleep apnea cause HTN

A

pharyngeal muscles collapse during sleep–>hypoxia and hypercapnia–>stimulates SNS to vasoconstrict–>increased BP
tx=CPAP

468
Q

How does renal artery stenosis cause HTN

A

decreases blood flow to kidneys causing renin secretion and activation of RAAS
*may have a renal bruit
*dx with ultrasound, MRA, or captopril nuclear medicine scan
tx with renal angioplasty with stent

469
Q

What can happen if ACE inhibitors are given and RAS is bilateral

A

can cause increased Cr due to decreased filtration of kidneys (GFR)

470
Q

Meds/drugs that cause secondary hypertension

A

oral contraceptives, NSAIDs, pseudoephedrine, corticosteroids, antidepressants, amphetamines, cocaine

471
Q

how does pheochromocytoma cause HTN

A

adrenal tumor that secretes catecholamines–>vasoconstriction

  • sweating, tachycardia, anxiety, headaches with high BP
  • tx=surgical removal
472
Q

how does hyperaldosteronism cause HTN

A

aldosterone producing adrenal adenoma or idiopathic bilateral adrenal hyperplasia–>sodium reabsorption and water reabsorption and potassium secretion in urine

  • symptoms are usually related to low potassium (muscle cramps, weakness, arrhythmias)
  • tx=surgical or medical
473
Q

how does hypercortisolism cause HTN

A
Cushing syndrome (exogenous steroids, adrenal tumor, adrenal hyperplasia, or Cushing's disease)-->increased BP by increasing Na+ retention and stimulating angiotensin II receptors to vasoconstrict, and produce NO
*signs: moon face, stria, buffalo hump
474
Q

how does thyroid dysfunction cause HTN

A

hypo or hyper thyroidism
hyper: increased T3 stimulates beta-2 receptors of vascular smooth muscle–>decreases vascular resistance and overstimulates the heart increasing cardiac output

475
Q

How does chronic kidney disease cause HTN

A

causes salt and water retention and dysregulation of RAAS

  • dx by increased creatinine levels or protein in urine
  • tx is to treat condition causing CKD along with BP management
476
Q

Who to test/screen for secondary hypertension

A

severe or resistant HTN (HTN despite adequate doses of 3 antiHTN meds), an acute rise in BP in previously stable pt, age less than 30 years in nonobese and nonblack pt with negative fam history and no other risk factors, malignant or accelerated HTN, proven age of onset before puberty

477
Q

Complications of HTN

A

left ventricular hypertrophy, thickening of arteries and arterioles leading to fibrosis and sclerosis in kidney, narrowing of cerebral arteries that can lead to stroke and other vascular conditions, vessels in eyes become brittle and weak and can hemorrhage into eye causing retinopathy

478
Q

What is hypertensive urgency

A

BP is very high but not assocaited with end organ damage, not symptomatic, treatment is outpatient

479
Q

What is hypertensive emergency

A

BP high enough to cause immediate complication (BP more than 180 or 120), usually symptomatic and treated in hospital

480
Q

what are the three classes of drugs commonly used for initial hypertension therapy

A

thiazide-type diurectis, ACEI/ARBs, calcium channel blockers

481
Q

MOA of thiazide diuretics (hydrochlorothiazide, chlorthalidone)

A

not the strongest diuretic, long acting and first-line treatment
selectively inhibits the Na+/Cl- co transporter on luminal side of DCT, also has mild vasodilatory effects

482
Q

Side effects of thiazide diuretics

A

increased blood sugar and cholesterol/LDL, hypercalcemia and hyperuricemia (gout), K+ wasting (requires monitoring for hypokalemia)

483
Q

MOA of loop diuretics (furosemide)

A

inhibit luminal Na+/K+/2Cl-transporter in thick ascending loop of Henle, induces synthesis of renal prostaglandins that inhibit salt transport in the TAL

484
Q

Side effects of loop diuretics

A

increased loss of Ca2+, Mg+, H+ in urine, hyperuricemia, allergic reactions (sulfonamide structure), ototoxicity (reversible, dose related)

485
Q

K+ sparing diuretics/aldosterone antagonists (spironolactone, eplerenone) MOA

A

steroid derivatives that are antagonists at aldosterone receptors in collecting tubule, reduce expression of ENaC sodium channels and ATP-dependent K+ pumps

486
Q

Side effects of K+ sparing diuretics/aldosterone antagonists

A

hyperkalemia, gynecomastia and antiandrogenic effects (spironolactone only)

487
Q

What is the main use of K+ sparing diuretics in HTN

A

weak diuretic effect so its usually added to other diuretics to reduce K+ wasting

488
Q

What is the net effect of RAAS activation

A

increasing blood volume and systemic vascular resistance, which increase CO and arterial pressure

489
Q

MOA of ACE inhibitors (lisinopril, enalapril)

A

prodrugs–require metabolism to be active

inhibit ACE to prevent production of ATII and increases levels of bradykinin

490
Q

Side effects of ACEI

A

initial hypotension, acute renal failure (RARE), hyperkalemia, dry cough and angioedema, teratogenic effects

491
Q

MOA of ARBs (angiotensin II receptor blockers)–end in -sartan

A

selective angiotensin II receptor antagonist

492
Q

Side effects of ARBs

A

initial hypotension, hyperkalemia, teratogenesis, NO COUGH/ANGIOEDEMA

493
Q

MOA of direct renin inhibitors (aliskerin)

A

renin antagonist (binds at renin’s active site)

494
Q

Side effects of direct renin inhibitors

A

generally mild headache and diarrhea, contraindicated in pregnancy (not teratogenic in animal models but similar MOA to ACEI/ARBs so best to avoid)

495
Q

MOA of dihydropyridine CCBs (nifedipine, amlodipine)

A

block L-type calcium channels, more selective for arterial vascular smooth muscle
*reduce systemic vascular resistance and arterial pressure

496
Q

Side effects of dihydropyridine CCB

A

flushing, headache, excessive hypotension, edema, and reflex tachycardia, gingival hyperplasia

497
Q

MOA of non-dihydropyridine CCB (verapamil, diltiazem)

A

bind non-selectively to L-type calcium channels on vascular smooth muscle, cardiac myocytes, and cardiac nodal tissues (more cardioselective than DHP CCBs)
*arterial effects predominate

498
Q

Side effects of NDHP CCB

A

excessive bradycardia, impaired electrical conduction (AV node block), and depressed contractility, constipation, hyperprolactinemia

499
Q

Which CCB is the most cardioselective?

A

verapamil (better antiarrhythmic)

diltiazem is less cardioselective (better antihypertensive)

500
Q

MOA of nitrate vasodilators (nitroglycerin, sodium nitroprusside)

A

exogenous source of NO–>activate guanylyl cyclase–>increase cGMP–>activate protein kinase G–>activates myosin light chain phosphatase–>dephosphorylates myosin light chain–>vasodilation

NO also activates K+ channels–>hyperpolarization, relaxation

501
Q

Side effects of nitrates

A

headache, flushing, reflex tachycardia, cyanide toxicity (nitroprusside only)

502
Q

Which nitrate works more on arterials? which works better on veins?

A

arterioles: nitroprusside
veins: nitroglycerin

503
Q

Examples of other vasodilatorys

A

hydralazine, minoxidil, fenoldopam

504
Q

Hydralazine MOA

A

releases NO, dilates arterioles

505
Q

Minoxidil MOA

A

opens K+ channels in smooth muscle, polarizing effect reduces likelihood of contraction, dilates arterioles

*treats HTN and hair loss

506
Q

Fenoldopam MOA

A

D1 agonist, short-term use in severe hypertension

507
Q

main effect of alpha-1 block?

A

orthostatic hypotension

508
Q

main uses of alpha-1 selective blockers

A

BPH and HTN

509
Q

treatment for HTN with angina

A

beta blockers, CCBs

510
Q

treatment for HTN with Afib/Aflutter

A

Beta blockers. non-DHP CCBs

511
Q

treatment for HTN with HF/postMI

A

ACEI/ARBs, beta blockers, non-DHP CCBs

512
Q

What can you not give to px with HTN with asthma/COPD

A

DO NOT give beta blockers or ACEI

513
Q

What can you give for HTN in pregnancy? what can you not give?

A

give labetalol, nifedipine, hydralazine, methyldopa

DO NOT give ACEI/ARBs/DRIs

514
Q

HTN with black patients

A

give CCBs, thiazide diuretics

do not give beta blockers, ACEI

515
Q

HTN with diabetic px

A

gives ACEI/ARBs

do not give beta blockers (can mask hypoglycemia)

516
Q

How should antihypertensive meds be given to px in hypertensive emergency

A

IV formulation–>dont need to wait for absorption into blood

517
Q

What is a side effect of hydralazine, minoxidil, fenoldopam? what can be treat this side effect?

A

Reflex tachycardia

treat with beta blockers

518
Q

What is a side effect of vasodilators and SNS-targeted drugs? what can treat this?

A

fluid retention

treat with diuretics or ACEI

519
Q

what kind of dysfunction is seen in HCM

A

diastolic dysfunction

520
Q

what kind of dysfunction is seen in dilated CM

A

systolic dysfunction

521
Q

what heart sound is seen in HCM

A

s4

522
Q

diseases associated with HCM

A

Fabry, noonans, pompe, fatty acid ox definiciency, mitochondrial disease

523
Q

Levine sign

A

leaning forward relieves the pain of pericarditis

524
Q

Concern with myocarditis?

A

arrhythmias–>ventricular tachycardia

525
Q

myocarditis clinical manifestations

A

chest pain, resp distress, GI sx, hepatomegaly, gallop rhythm, poor perfusion/diminished pulses, tachypneic, viral prodome, decreased voltages on ECG

526
Q

Holosystolic murmurs

A

at tricuspid area: tricuspid regurg, VSD

at mitral area: mitral regurg

527
Q

Most common congenital heart disease. (most common sympomatic)

A

VSD

528
Q

Acyanotic congenital heart disease

A

VSD, ASD, AVSD, PDA, COA, valve issues

529
Q

Congential heart defects with too much pulmonary flow

A

ASD, VSD, PDA

530
Q

What. is used to treat pulmonary vascular congestion (like in VSD)

A

furosemide! (loop diuretic)

531
Q

What is a consequence of long-standing unrepaired VSD

A

eisenmenger syndrome

532
Q

When do you stop hearing a VSD murmur

A

when right ventricular pressure equalizes with left ventricular pressure

533
Q

CATCH-22 with digeoge

A

22q11

cardiac abnormality, abnormal facies, thymic aplasia, cleft palate, hypercalcemia

534
Q

ASD exam

A

systolic ejection murmur, fixed split S2 (very loud shunts may cause a diastolic murmur, may heard an S4)

535
Q

What does ASD lead to

A

right atrial and right ventricular enlargement

536
Q

AVSD association

A

endocardial cushion defect, Down Syndrome

cyanosis

537
Q

What keeps a PDA open

A

PGE2 (prostaglandin)

538
Q

What do you give to close a PDA

A

indomethacin

539
Q

PDA signs

A

continuous machine like murmur and bounding pulses (Due to wide pulse pressure)

540
Q

What causing bounding pulses

A

aortic regurg, AV fistula, aortic dissection, LV-aorta tunnel

541
Q

What causes a narrow pulse pressure

A

coarctation of aorta

542
Q

Coarctation of Aorta

A

Associated with turner syndrome and berry aneurysms
associated with 3 sign and rib notching on x ray
heavily associated with bicuspid aortic valve (50%)
preductal is worse than postductal
MUST KEEP PDA OPEN

543
Q

What is the most common congenital heart disease in the world

A

bicuspid aortic valve

544
Q

Pulm stenosis

A

SEM at LUSB, hepatosplenomegaly, associated with ToF

545
Q

Tricuspid regurg

A

S1 coincident murmur at LLSB, seen with ebsteins anomaly (due to mom taking lithium during pregnancy) or possible IE from IV drug use

546
Q

murmur associated with RF

A

mitral regurg (holosystolic murmur at apex)

547
Q

Where do you see electric alternans

A

cardiac tamponade and pericarditis

548
Q

Kussmauls sign

A

lack of inspiratory decline in JVP

549
Q

Pericardial knock

A

accentuated heart sound occurring slightly earlier than S3 (in constrictive pericarditis)

550
Q

WPW

A

short PR interval, wide QRS complex (bc ventricular depolarization does not start at bundle of HIS), slurred upstroke of QRS complex

551
Q

What kills WPW px

A

atrial fibrillation

552
Q

pulm stenosis murmur (associated with ToF)

A

SEM at LUSB

553
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot

A

overriding aorta, pulm stenosis, RVH, VSD

554
Q

truncus arteriosis

A

single s2

555
Q

transposition of great vessels

A

diabetic mother, loud S2

556
Q

TAPVR

A

figure 8/snowman on chest xray

557
Q

3rd degree heart block

A

very low heart rate, regular escape rhythm, cocaine use?

558
Q

How does dopamine affect the heart

A

increases contractility (positive inotrope)

559
Q

skin side effect of amiodarone

A

greyish skin appearance

560
Q

tests to run for amiodarone toxicity

A

LFT, TFT, PFT

561
Q

milranone

A

PDEIII inhibitor, preventing inactivation of of ccAMP and cGMP

562
Q

tx for Kawasaki disease

A

IVIG and aspirin

563
Q

what can Kawasaki disease cause

A

coronary aneurysms

564
Q

Why do lipids need lipoproteins

A

lipids are hydrophobic and have low solubility so lipoproteins help transport lipids in the blood

565
Q

General structure of plasma lipoproteins

A

surface layer of amphipathic lipids (phospholipids and cholesterol), core of nonpolar lipids (TAG and cholesterol ester), apolipoprotein

566
Q

what determines the density of plasma lipoprotein

A

lipid/protein ratio

567
Q

What are the functions are apolipoproteins

A

part of structure of lipoprotein, co-factors/activators for enzymes, inhibitors for enzymes, ligands for lipoprotein receptors

568
Q

Apoprotein for chylomicrons?

A

ApoB48

569
Q

Function of chylomicrones

A

deliver dietary triacylglycerol from intestine to adipose tissue (and liver and other tissues), deliver dietary cholesterol from intestine to liver

570
Q

Very low density lipoproteins (VLDL) function

A

deliver hepatic triacylglycerol to adipose and other tissues, precursor of LDL

571
Q

Low density lipoproteins (LDL) function

A

deliver cholesterol from liver to peripheral tissues

572
Q

High density lipoproteins (HDL) function

A

deliver cholesterol from peripheral tissues to liver

573
Q

How does HDL contribute to the metabolism of chylomicrons

A

Apo C-II and apoE are transferred from HDL to the nascent chylomicron

574
Q

What is familial lipoprotein lipase deficiency

A

rare AR disorder, absence of LPL activity and massive accumulation of chylomicrons in plasma and a corresponding increase of plasma triglyceride concentration

575
Q

What makes up HDL

A

AI, AII, E, Cs, cholesteryl ester

576
Q

What makes up LDL

A

B100, cholesteryl ester

577
Q

What makes up VLDL

A

B100, Cs, E, triacylglycerol

578
Q

what makes up chylomicrons

A

B45, Cs, E, AI, AII, triacylglycerol

579
Q

rank the major lipoproteins from largest to smallest

A

chylomicron>VLDL>LDL>HDL

580
Q

How are ApoB100 and ApoB48 related

A

come from same premRNA

ApoB100 (VLDL and LDL) is the full mRNA transcript while ApoB48 (chylomicrons) is a truncated version due to RNA editing

581
Q

What is the important apolipoprotein in HDL

A

AI because it plays a major role in cholesterol transport

582
Q

What catalyzes esterification of cholesterol

A

LCAT

583
Q

what transfers cholestol ester to serum albumin

A

lysolecithin

584
Q

Major functions of HDL

A

reverse cholesterol transport, transfer ApoCs and ApoE to chlomicrons and VLDL in plasma

585
Q

What form of cholesterol is used for storage and transport in the interior of lipoproteins

A

cholesterol ester (makes them much more hydrophobic)

586
Q

Functions of cholesterol

A

important component of cell membranes, precursor for synthesis of steroid hormones, precursor for synthesis of bile acids, biosynthetic pathways contains branch points that lead to other important isoprene products

587
Q

What is the main regulatory step for cholesterol synthesis

A

HMG-CoA reductase rxn (3-HMG CoA–>mevalonate)

588
Q

what is SREBP

A

steroid response element binding protein: SREBP activates genes with sterol response elements (like LDL receptor, HMG-CoA reductase)

SREBP increases production of LDL receptors and HMG-CoA reductase in response to increased intracellular cholesterol levels

589
Q

What does the cholesterol released from degraded LDL do

A

inhibits synthesis of cholesterol and LDL-R

590
Q

What happens to most bile acids

A

reabsorbed in ileum and reutilized (5% eliminated in feces)

591
Q

Major pathways for elimination of cholesterol

A

excretion of bile acids

592
Q

PCSK9 mutatuion

A

lower LDL-C–>reduced risk of cardiovascular disease

593
Q

Serum lipid levels in metabolic syndrome

A

decreased HDL-C, increased TG, elevated small dense LDL

594
Q

Best evidence of lipid hypothesis

A

statin decrease cholesterol, LDL-C, and cardiovascular disease

595
Q

Why does reducing cholesterol help decrease LDL

A

reduced cholesterol increases LDL-receptor synthesis so more LDL-D is cleared from circulation

596
Q

What is the therapeutic effect of statins

A

reducing number of LDL particles (not reducing the cholesterol itself)

597
Q

What is familial hypercholesterolemia (heterozygous or homozygous)

A

deficit in LDL receptors, causes very high levels of LDL in blood

598
Q

Friedewald formula

A

LDL-C=total cholesterol-HDL-C-(TG/5)

599
Q

Conditions for lipid panel blood draw

A

fast for 12-14 hours prior to blood draw

600
Q

When is the friedewald calculation of LDL-C not valid

A

if triglycerides are over 400 mg/dl

601
Q

What is considered high for LDL-C, total cholesterol, and HDL-C

A

LDL-C: over 190 is very high
Total: over 240 is high
HDL-C: over 60 is high

602
Q

What cholesterol measurement best predicts coronary disease?

A

triglycerides/HDL-C (LDL-C levels have little effect on risk)

603
Q

What is the major cholesterol target fo reducing CVD risk

A

LDL-C

604
Q

What ratio could be a marker for metabolic syndrome/type II diabetes

A

high TG/HDL-C

605
Q

What is associated with markedly elevated levels (more than 500 mg/dL) of triglycerides

A

pancreatitis

606
Q

Describe the exogenous pathway of lipid metabolism

A

chylomicrones are formed within the intestine from dietary fat and are rich in triglycerides–>these particles undergo hydrolysis by lipoprotein lipase in the muscle and adipose tissue to form chylomicron remnants–>liver then clears chylomicron remnants using the LDL receptor

607
Q

What are the three apolipoproteins that chylomicrons have

A

ApoB48, ApoC, ApoE

608
Q

Why are apoC and apoE important for chylomicron metabolism

A

ApoC is a required cofactor for metabolism by lipoprotein lipase and ApoE is a ligand for the LDL receptor

609
Q

Describe the endogenous pathway of lipid metabolism

A

VLDL produced by the liver and is also triglyceride rich–>undergo hydrolysis by lipoprotein lipase in the muscle and adipose tissue to form IDL–>IDL undergoes further metabolism to form LDL particles

610
Q

What apolipoprotein is needed for the assembly and secretion of VLDL, IDL, and LDL

A

ApoB100

611
Q

Which lipoprotein accounts for 70% of the total plasma cholesterol

A

LDL

612
Q

Major mechanisms for LDL removal

A

uptake by LDL receptor on hepatocytes

613
Q

Where is HDL secreted from and what takes up HDL?

A

HDL secreted by liver and intestine and accepts cholesterol from macrophages and other peripheral cells..then taken up by liver

614
Q

Which particles contain ApoB100

A

LDL, IDL, VLDL

615
Q

Hyperlipoproteinemias type I and V

A

genetic defects in lipoprotein lipase–>accumulation of unhydrolyzed chylomicrons and VLDL–>severely elevated triglyceride levels

616
Q

Hyperlipoporteinemias Type IIa and IIb

A

genetic defects in LDL receptor (IIb also associated with increased VLDL secretion)–>severely elevated LDL and VLDL
*can be heterozygous or homozygous

617
Q

Hyperproteinemia type III

A

defective or nonfunction apoE protein–>chylomicron remnant accumulation and IDL (cant be taken up by hepatocytes)–>elevations in triglycerides ONLY

618
Q

Hyperproteinemia type IV

A

increase in VLDL production–>elevated circulating levels of VLDL and elevated triglycerides

619
Q

What is used to diagnose dyslipidemias

A

fasting lipid profile (indicated in all px more than 35 years old or those 20 years or older with CAD risk factors and repeated every 5 years, or earlier if levels are elevated)

620
Q

Symptomatic presentation of dyslipidemia is rare but what are some possible clinical findings

A

severe hypertriglyceridemia: acute pancreatitis

hypercholesterolemia: cutaneous manifestation (Xanthoma and xanthelasma, corneal arcus)

621
Q

What is a common manifestation of type V dyslipidemia

A

pancreatitis

622
Q

What is the most common site for tendon xanthomata

A

achilles tendons or dorsum of hands (present in type IIA dyslipidemia)
Palmar dyslipidemias are painful and on the palms (usually in type III dyslipidemia)

623
Q

What is first line recommendation for dyslipidemia

A

lifestyle changes (smoking cessation, healthy diet, weight loss, regular exercise)

624
Q

MOA of statins

A

HMG-CoA reductase competitive inhibitors–>increases numbers of LDL receptors on liver–>more LDL is taken up by liver and this lowers serum LDL levels, also decreased VLDL synthesis in liver

625
Q

who gets high-intensity statin? who gets medium or low intensity statin?

A

High CAD risk gets high intensity

px with intermediate to low risk for CAD are given medium or low intensity statins

626
Q

What is considered high intensity statin

A

atorvastatin 40-80mg daily or Rosuvastatin 20-40 mg daily

627
Q

Side effect of statins

A

myopathy (in 10-20% of patients), rarely leads to rhabdomylosis
may also see asymptomatic elevation in liver function tests

628
Q

When are non-statin therapies used

A

those who do not tolerate statin or when risk reduction or LDL-C reduction is not adequate on statin therapy

629
Q

PCSK9 inhibitor MOA (evolocumab, alirocumab)

A

monoclonal Ab that inhibits PCSK9 (which normally targets LDL receptors for degradation)–>more LDL receptors–>more LDL clearance and less LDL in serum

630
Q

How much is LDL decreased with PCSK9 inhibitors

A

50-60%

631
Q

MOA of ezetimibe

A

cholesterol absorption inhibitor at small intestine (competitively inhibits Niemann-Pick-like 1 protein)–>reduced chylomicrone production and less cholesterol delivery to liver–>increased in liver LDL receptors–>increased clearance of LDL particles

632
Q

Most common side effect of ezetimibe

A

diarrhea

633
Q

MOA of bile acid binding resins (cholestyramine, colestipol, colesevelam)

A

bind bile acids in intestine and prevent normal reabsorption to liver thru enterohepatic circulation–>hepatic cholesterol converted into newly produced bile acids–>increased production of LDL receptors–>decreased LDL-C, also greater VLDL production and increased TG levels

634
Q

MOA of fibrates/niacin. what are they used for? (gemfibrozil and fenofibrate)

A

used to reduced TG levels (if TG levels are over 500 mg/dL) to lower risk of pancreatitis
MOA: activate LPL

635
Q

Side effects of fibrates

A

cholesterol gallstones

gemfibrozil: increase in myopathy when combined with statin therapy

636
Q

outcomes of fibrate?

A

reduce cardiovascular events in patients with hypercholesterolemia but NOT mortality rate

637
Q

When do we use icosapent ethyl (EPA)

A

highly purified omega-3 fatty acid. indicated for secondary prevention in patients with TG>150 mg/dL (on max tolerated statin) and also for primary prevention in patients with multiple risk factors

638
Q

Normal artery make up

A

endothelial cells, smooth muscle cells, extracellular matrix (elastin, collagen, and GAGs)

639
Q

What is the vascular wall response to injury?

A

intimal thickening

640
Q

What marker is associated with risk of MI, stroke, sudden cardiac death

A

high sensitivity CRP

641
Q

What percentage of cardiovascular event occurs without risk factors (hypertension, smoking, hyperlipidemia, diabetes)

A

20%

642
Q

what is present in all stages of atherosclerosis

A

inflammation (assessment of systemic inflammation has become an important factor in risk stratification)

643
Q

What does CRP do after it is secreted from cells within the intima

A

activates local endothelial cells, induces a prothrombotic state, increases adhesiveness of endothelium to leukocytes

644
Q

Hyperhomocystinemia

A

elevated homocystein (caused by low folate or B12 or genetics)

645
Q

What is metabolic syndrome

A

obesity, diabetes, hypertension, hyperlipidemia

646
Q

What is lipoprotein A

A

altered form of LDL; increased levels of lipoprotein a is associated with increased risk of coronary artery diseases and CVD

647
Q

How does diabetes lead to atherosclerosis

A

induces hypercholesterolemia

648
Q

Endothelium injury leads to

A

increased adhesion molecule VCAM1–>monocytes adhere and migrate to intima and then transform into macrophages and foam cells

649
Q

Formation of foam cells leads to what?

A

smooth muscle recruitment from media or circulating precursors–>smooth muscle proliferation and ECM production

650
Q

Transformation of monocytes to macrophages in atherosclerosis

A

initially protective via phagocytosis–>generate chemokines (monocyte chemotactic protein)–>produce growth factor to lead to smooth muscle proliferation–>produces toxic oxygen species leading to oxidation of LDL in the lesions

651
Q

What is the basic lesion in atherosclerosis

A

atheroma/fibrofatty plaque in intima that consists of macrophages, core of cholesterol, and fibrous cap of ECM like collagen and elastic fibers

652
Q

What does smooth muscle do to fatty streaks? what initiates this process?

A

after migrating from media to intima, smooth muscle proliferates and deposits ECM components to convert fatty streaks to mature fibrofatty atheromas (initiated by PDGF released from platelets taht adhered to EC)

653
Q

Evoluation of atheromas

A

early intimal plaque foam cells of macrophages and SMC origin–>advaned atheroma modified by SMCs synthesized collagen producing a fibrous cap–>disruption of fibrous cap with superimposed thrombus–>serious clinical events

654
Q

What is the foundation of atherosclerosis

A

inflammation

655
Q

What is the initial lesion in atherosclerosis

A

foam cells (then fatty streak, then fibrous cap)

656
Q

What is a fibroatheroma

A

atheroma with fibrotic core and calcification (mechanism: accelerated smooth muscle and collagen increase)

657
Q

Brief description of each antiarrhythmic class

A
class I: membrane stabilizers
Class II: beta blockers
class III: K+ channel modifiers (prolongs AP)
Class IV: Ca2+ channel blockers
658
Q

what can caused a delayed after depolarization

A

digoxin toxicity, myocardial ischemia or adrenergic stress, or heart failure
*ca2+ overload

659
Q

what can cause early after depolarization

A

interruption of phase 3 repolarization

*slow heart rate, hypokalemia, drugs prolonging QT interval (quinidine, sotalol, procainamide)

660
Q

Torsades de points

A

due to marked prolongation of APD

661
Q

What causes most tachyarrhythmias

A

re-entry

662
Q

Class 1A antiarrhythmics MOA and examples

A

slows conduction velocity and prolongs AP

ex/ disopyramide, procainamide, quinidine

663
Q

Class IB antiarrhythmics MOA and examples

A

No effect on conduction velocity, may shorten APD

ex/ lidocaine, mexiletine, phenytoin

664
Q

Class IC antiarrhythmics MOA and examples

A

slow conduction and may prolong APD

ex/ flecainide, propafenone

665
Q

What happens when Na channel is blocked

A

decreased conduction velocity (dromotropy), manifests as widening of QRS duration; increased AP threshold (decreased automaticity/pacing threshold), slight decrease in AP duration (QT interval), negative inotropy (less contractility bc less Na+ in cell so more Na/Ca exchange)

666
Q

rank Ia, Ib, and Ic antiarrhythmics on ability to block Na+ channels, ERP duration, and QT prolongation

A

na+ blockade: Ic>Ia>Ib
ERP duration: Ia>Ic>Ib
prolong QT: only Ia

667
Q

Which class I antiarrhythmic is good for treating ischemic/depolarized tissue

A

class Ib (lidocain, mexiletine)

668
Q

Side effects of class Ia drugs

A

Proarrhythmics (TdP), negative inotropic, cinchonism (HA, tinnitus, blurry vision), procainamide can cause SLE-like syndrome, disopyramide has anticholinergic side effects (hypotension, dry eyes, dry mouth, urinary retention)

669
Q

Side effects of Ib

A

seizures with lidocaine, GI upset with mexilitine

670
Q

Side effects with Ic

A

pro-arrhythmic, propafenone causes metallic taste in mouth

671
Q

MOA of beta blockers as antiarrhythmic

A

decrease SA node automaticity and prolong refractoriness of AV node, block adrenergic activation of Ca channels to decrease force of contraction

672
Q

Which currents do beta blockers work on

A

funny current and inward calcium current

673
Q

Drug of choice in exercise-induced arrhythmias and in patients with long QT syndrome

A

beta blockers

674
Q

how do beta blockers affect heart rate, force of contraction, and oxygen demand

A

decrease HR, decrease force of contraction, decrease oxygen demand

675
Q

Uses for beta-blockers has antiarrhythmics

A

afib/aflutter, atrial tachycardia, PACs/PVCs, recent MI, adjunct to NSVT and VT

676
Q

Side effects of bet blockers

A

sinus bradycardia and SA node pauses, AV node blocks or pauses, heart failure, fatigue, sedation, sleep disturbance, sexual dysfunction, dyspnea and bronchospasm (only beta 2 receptors), hypoglycemia unawareness (blocks symptoms of low BG)

677
Q

When are beta blockers contraindicated

A

pheochromocytoma and cocaine toxicity (due to unopposed alpha receptor stimulation–severe hypertension, aortic dissection, coronary spasm, MI)
nonselective beta blockers are contraindicated in asthma/COPD

678
Q

Antidote for beta blocker OD

A

fluid, atropine, glucagon (increases Ca2+, increases chronotropy and inotropy)

679
Q

How do class III antiarrhythmics work

A

block K+ channel to increase APD and prolong refractory period–>longer QT

680
Q

What kind of effect do many K+ch blockers have

A

reverse use dependent effects (binds to resting channels)–>AP prolongation is greater at slower rather than faster rates, this leads to an increased risk of triggered activity and therefore proarrhythmias

681
Q

What drugs are mixed class III? which are pure class III?

A

mixed: amiodarone, dronedarone, sotalol
Pure: ibutilide, dofetilide

682
Q

How does amiodarone work

A
mixed class III
prolongs AP duration in both atrial and ventricular myocytes and prolongs the refractory period of AP of atrial and ventricular myocytes
*noncompetitive inhibition of alpha and beta adrengergic receptor
*reduced automaticity of automatic cells
683
Q

ECG changes and hemodynamic changes seen with amiodarone

A

ECG: reduction of sinus rate by 15-20%, increased PR and QT duration, U waves and nonspecific T wave changes
Hemodynamics: vascular smooth muscle relaxation

684
Q

When is amiodarone used?

A

atrial flutter and afib, ventricular arrhthmias

685
Q

Treatment for stable vtach

A

IV amiodarone, cardioversion, post ECG, expert consult

686
Q

side effects of amiodarone

A

acute pulmonary toxicity (hypersensitivity pneumonitis), long term toxicity (interstitial/alveolar pneumonitis), abnormal thyroid function tests to thyrotoxicosis (bc amiodarone has iodine in its structure)
abnormal liver function tests to hepatitis, optic neuritis or corneal microdeposits, photosensitivity (blue/gray discoloration of sun exposed skin), avoid grapefruit juice, caution with digoxin

687
Q

Loading dose of amiodarone? Ventricular arrhythmia maintenance dose?

A

Loading (about 10grams over 2-3 weeks)

V. arrhythmia maintenance dose=400mg daily

688
Q

MOA of class IV antiarrhythmics

A

Calcium channel blockers
(cause a use-dependent selective depression of calcium current in tissues that requires the participation of L-type calcium channels
decrease AV conduction velocity and effective refractory period is increased, PR interval is increased

689
Q

Effects of CCB

A

inhibit SA and AV nodes and tissues with abnormal automaticity dependent on Ca2+ channels

  • generally little effect on APD
  • stops triggered activity (EAD, DAD)
  • slows heart rate, decreases contractility
690
Q

What causes EADs and DADs

A

EAD: due to oscillatory depolarization due to waves of Ca2+ channel reactivation
DAD: results from ca2+ overload of cell

691
Q

Uses for CCB

A

SVT, afib, certain ventricular arrhythmias

692
Q

Side effects of CCB

A

AV block, heart failure

693
Q

Adenosine MOA

A

IV rapid and short acting drug, blocks Ca2+ entry and K+ channels at AV node (hyperpolarizes cells)

  • used in SVTs
  • can diagnose atrial arrhythmias
  • side effects: flushing, hypotension, dyspnea, chest pain
694
Q

Digoxin MOA

A

Parasympathetic vagal nerve effects

  • decrease HR at SA and AV nodes
  • increase contractility
695
Q

Digoxin toxicity

A

NARROW THERAPEUTIC WINDOW
toxicity: atrial tachy with AV node block, bidirectional VT
Antidote: digibind, magnesium

696
Q

What is the resting membrane potential in cardiac myocytes

A

-90 mV

697
Q

What is the bundle that goes from the right atrium to the left atrium

A

Bachmann’s bundle

698
Q

What improves AV node conduction? what worsens it?

A

Exercise, catcholamines, and atropine improve AV node conduction
Carotid massage worsens AV node conduction

699
Q

Bundle of HIS is silent on surface ECG…Where can it be seen? what does bundle of HIS do?

A

on intracardiac ECG (catheter tip with electrode)

bundle of HIS conducts impulses to bundle branches

700
Q

Blood supply of SA node, AV node, HIS bundle, left and right bundle braches, and posterior and anterior fascicle

A

SA: 60% RCA, 40% LCX
AV: 90% RCA, 10% LCX
HIS: mostly RCA, some contribution from septal branches of LAD
LBB: LAD
RBB: septal branches of LAD, collateral from RCA/LCX depending on which one is dominant
Posterior fascicle: RCA and sometimes LAD septal branches
Anterior fascicle: Septal branches of LAD, very sensitive to ischemia

701
Q

Directions of ventricular depolarization

A

left to right across septum, inferiorly to apex, superiorly thru ventricles

702
Q

In what direction is repolarization directed?

A

epicardium to endocardium (epicardial cells repolarize first)

703
Q

Why is T wave longer than the QRS complex

A

Repolarization of the ventricles takes longer than depolarization

704
Q

axes on ECG

A

y-axis: voltage

X-axis: time

705
Q

on ECG what is positive and what is negative?

A

depolarization is positive, repolarization is negative

706
Q

What is wilson’s central terminal?

A

negative pole for the 6 precordial leads

the average measurement from the electrodes placed on RA, LA, and LL indicating the average potential across the body

707
Q

How long should a normal QRS be?

A

0.8-.12 sec duration

708
Q

How much voltage is a small box on y axis?

how much time is a small box on x axis?

A

small box on y axis= 1 mV

small box on x axis=40 msec (5 big boxes=1 second)

709
Q

where should a sinus P wave appear + and where should it appear -

A

+ in lead I, II

- in lead V1

710
Q

How does adenosine affect AV node

A

temporarily stops AV conduction

711
Q

how does atropine and exercise affect AV node

A

increases AVN conduction and prolongs subAVN conduction

712
Q

How does vagal maneuver (carotid massage) affect AV node

A

prolongs AVN conduction and increases subAVN conduction

713
Q

Describe 3rd degree heart block. how can you determine where the escape rhythm is?

A

more Ps than QRSs, AV dissociation
QRS less than 120 ms: escape in HIS bundle
QRS 120-150ms: escape is in fascicles below HIS
QRS more than 150 ms: escape can be anywhere beyond purkinje fibers

714
Q

what is supraventricular tachycardia

A

circuit within the AV node or a circuit involving the node and an abnormal connection between the atria and ventircle (bypass tract)

715
Q

Normal axis

A

-30 to +90 degrees

716
Q

Name the leads to correspond to a certain area: anterior, septal, high left lateral, inferior, right ventricle

A

anterior: V2, V3, V4
septal: V1 and V2
High (left) lateral: I, aVL, V5, V6
Inferior: II, III, aVF
Right ventricle: aVR

717
Q

What does ST elevation indicate

A

severe coronary artery occlusion (supply &laquo_space;demand)
Loss of Na+/K+ ATPase pump that normally keeps cell hyperpolarized–>K+ ATP channels open with more loss IC K+–>depolarization

718
Q

Can ST elevation be arrhythmogenic

A

yes

719
Q

what is QTc

A

allows comparison of QT interval at any HR (tells you what the QT interval would be at 60 bpm)
QTc=QT/square root of RR

720
Q

What axis deviation is associated with Left Anterior Fascicular Block? Left Posterior Fascicular block?

A

Left axis deviation with LAFB

Right axis deviation with LPFB

721
Q

What are some times you may see a RBBB

A

damage to RBBB, chronic hypertension, MI, cardiomyopathy, congenital heart disease, pulmonary embolism, cor pulmonale, Lev’s disease

722
Q

When will you see LAFB

A

chronic HTN, dilated cardiomyopathy, aging, degenerative fibrotic disease, aortic stenosis, aortic root dilation, acute MI, electrical conduction abnormality, lung disease

723
Q

When will you see LBBB

A

chronic HTN, ischemic heart disease, anterior MI (new or old), dilated cardiomyopathy, fibrosis of LBB, hyperkalemia, digoxin toxicity, aortic stenosis

724
Q

what is ST depression associated with?

A

subendocardial ischemia

725
Q

What does T wave inversion indicate

A

lack of oxygen relative to demands and subendocardial is the most susceptible to ischemia where myocardium cant sustain normal activation/depolarization so repolarization occurs earlier in this section and force is opposite to ischemia area

726
Q

what is happening in phase 4 of cardiomyocyte action potential

A

resting phase (electrical diastole), at -90mV, K+ inward rectifier channels allow outward leak of K+

727
Q

what is happening in phase 0 of cardiomyocyte action potential

A

depolarization
AP from atrial fibers or purkinje fibers and fast Na+ channel open and Na+ leaks into cell until TMP rises to -70mV (threshold), then a large Na+ current into cell and rapid rise of TMP to 0mV or above, then fast Na+ channels close

728
Q

what is happening in phase 1 of cardiomyocyte AP

A

TMP just above 0 mV, transient K+ channels open and K+ efflux out of cell so TMP reaches 0mV

729
Q

what is happening in phase 2 of cardiomyocyte AP

A

L-type calcium channel remain open and Ca2+ influx, (needed for contraction of cellular myofibrils)
K+ delayed rectifier channel open and K+ efflux
electrical balance causes a plateau in TMP

730
Q

What is happening in phase 3 of cardiomyocyte AP

A

Ca2+ channel begin to close but delayed rectifier K+ channel remain open, allows more K+ efflux and TMP re-approaches -90 mV
Na+ ATPase and Ca2+ ATPase carry Na+ and Ca2+ out of cell and SR Na+Ca2+ exchanger carries Ca2+ into SR (relaxation)

731
Q

What kind of cell junctions are seen in cardiac myocytes

A

gap junctions (electrical path from cell to cell)

732
Q

Why are long refractory periods needed in cardiac myocytes

A

to allow refilling of chambers

Degree of refractoriness=the number of fast Na+ channels to a resting state

733
Q

Do atria or ventricles have shorter refractory periods

A

atria (therefore atria are more sensitive to parasympathetic stimulation than ventricles)

734
Q

What is the negative voltage max in pacemaker cells

A

-60 mV

735
Q

describe phase 4 of pacemaker AP

A

diastolic phase between depolarization
channels for funny current are open at -60 mV and allow Na+ influx–causes slow depolarization and activate voltage gated T-type ca2+ channels
phase 4 is slowly upward until it reaches -40 mV then depolarization occurs
this phase is due to automaticity

736
Q

describe phase 0 in pacemaker AP

A

slow long-lasting Ca2+ influx

737
Q

Describe phase 3 in pacemaker AP

A

Ca2+ channels are inactivated and K+ channels are activated so there is K+ efflux and therefore repolarization

738
Q

What part of the heart is most sensitive to parasympathetic stimulation

A

AV and SA nodes

739
Q

Describe conduction through the AV node

A

small diameter fibers conduct slowly and cause a delay–allows for atrial contraction emptying completely before ventricles depolarize and contraction–>excitation contraction coupling

740
Q

How is ca2+ involved in muscle contraction

A

Ca2+ attaches to troponin and tropomyosin-troponin complex configuration changes so cross bridges can attach to actin

741
Q

What connects cardiac muscle cells end to end

A

intercalated discs

742
Q

Is ATP needed for relaxation or contraction?

A

both (ATP binding needed for relaxation, ATP hydrolysis needed for active complex of actin-myosin formation)

743
Q

How is calcium provided for muscle contraction

A

influx of ca2+ from interstitial fluid during excitation–>binds ryanodine receptos and allows Ca2+ release from SR–>free cytosolic ca2+ activates contraction of myofilaments (systole), diastole occurs as result of uptake of Ca2+ by SR by extrusion of intracellular ca2+ by the 3Na+1Ca2+ antiporter and by Ca2+ATPase pump

744
Q

How long is cardiac myocyte refractory period

A

250 ms

745
Q

What molecule couples excitation and contraction

A

Ca2+

746
Q

What channel actively removes Ca2+ into SR during diastole

A

SERCA

747
Q

How does SNS activation affect cardiac contraction

A

increases intracellular calcium via opening of L-type Ca2+ channels and therefore released more Ca2+ from SR, phosphorylation of PLB increases Ca2+ uptake and stimulates relaxation, PKA-dependent troponin I phosphorylation reduced myofilament sensitivity for Ca and therefore hastens relaxation and diastolic filling

748
Q

What drugs are effective against early afterdepolarization? how about delayed afterdepolarization?

A

EAD: treated with lidocaine (decreases AP duration)

DAD (due to increased cytosolic Ca2+ released after repolarization like in digoxin toxicity): treated with ?

749
Q

Is the heart ever on the descending limb of the LT curve

A

no, not even in heart failure

750
Q

What term quantifies affinity of a drug for its receptor?

A

Kd-dissociation constant (higher affinity=low Kd)

751
Q

Phenylephrine

A

alpha 1 agonist
treats rhinitis, eye redness and irritation, dialates eyes, can treat hypotension resulting from vasodilation associated with septic shock or anesthesia

752
Q

Midodrine

A

alpha 1 agonist
treats orthostatic hypotension
SE: urine retention, goose bumps, bradycardia

753
Q

Why do alpha 1 agonist cause bradycardia

A

reflex bradycardia due to baroreceptor response from vasoconstriction

754
Q

clonidine

A

alpha 2 agonist
adjunct treatment for hypertension, can be epidural, or tx for ADHD, tic disorders
rapid discontinuation causes rebound hypertension
SE: dry mouth, sedation

755
Q

Tizanidine

A

alpha 2 agonist
muscle relaxant
SE: sedation, hypotension, dry mouth

756
Q

Dobutamine

A

beta 1 agonist (some beta 2)
inotropic support in decompensated CHF, stress echo in px that cant exercise
*minimal beta 2 effects allow increase in cardiac output with less reflex tachycardia
administered via continuous IV infusion due to short half life

757
Q

Albuterol

A

beta 2 agonist

treats acute bronchospasm in asthma or copd

758
Q

Salmeterol

A

beta 2 agonist

prophylaxis against bronchospasm

759
Q

Terbutaline

A

treats asthma
tocolytic in premature labor
*SE: tremor, tachycardia, metabolic effects, arrhythmias

760
Q

Where are D1 receptors found

A

in periphery (D2 found in brain)

761
Q

Functions of D1 receptor (Gs)

A

dilation of vascular smooth muscle, increases renal blood flow

762
Q

Fenoldopam

A

D1 agonist
treats severe hypertension
SE: dose related tachycardia (baroreceptor reflex), hypokalemia, increased IOP in glaucoma

763
Q

Bromocriptine

A

D2 agonist
treats parkinsons’ disease with levodopa (works on nigrostriatal path) or treats hyperprolactinemia (tuberoinfundibular path), tx for T2D

764
Q

What enzyme metabolizes catecholamines

A

COMT

765
Q

Metabolic effects of endogenous catecholamines

A

put glucose into circulation, regulates hormone secretion (insulin, renin), CNS effects at very high doses, potent CV effects so very useful in treatment of shock and heart failure

766
Q

Epinephrine

A

treatment for anaphylactic shock and IgE mediated reactions, hypotension in shock, mydriatic for intraocular surgery, prolongs effect and reduces toxicity of local anesthetics (via vasoconstriction in skin to reduce diffusion of anesthetics)
*relieves bronchospasm (b2), mucous membrane congestion (a1), and hypotension (a and b1)

767
Q

How dose dosage of epi change its effects

A

low dose works more on beta 2 receptors, high doses work more on alpha receptors

768
Q

Low dose epi effects

A

increase in pulse rate and systolic pressure, decrease in diastolic pressure, unchanges MAP, small decrease in TPR, increased CO

769
Q

Norepi

A

increases contractility and heart rate, vasoconstricts, increases BP and coronary blood flow
*alpha effects are greater than beta effects
Used in cardiogenic and septic shock
SE: bradycardia, arrhythmia, anxiety, headache
If extravastion occurs at IV site, treat with phentolamine to dilate vessels and restore blood supply

770
Q

CV effects of norepi

A

decreased pulse rate (compensatory baroreceptor bradycardia), increases MAP (systolic and diastolic increase), increased TPR

771
Q

Describe how dosage of dopamine determines its effects

A

low: D1 activation (increasd cAMP mediates vasodilation. inrenal, splanchnic, coronary, cerebral vessels, promotes natriuresis and increases urine output_
Med: beta 1 receptor activity also activated (peripheral resistance may decrease)
High: alpha receptors activated (vasoconstriction, increased BP)

772
Q

What may result from abrupt discontinuation of dopamine

A

hypotension

773
Q

What are some reuptake inhibitors

A

Cocaine (da reuptake inhibitor), atomoxetine (NE and Da reuptake inhibitor), duloxetine (SNRI)

774
Q

Selegiline

A

inhibits MAO-B (tx for parkinsons and depression)

775
Q

Entacapone

A

COMT inhibitors (treats parkinson)

776
Q

Amphetamines

A

inhibit VMAT and competitively inhibit reuptake of DA, NE, and serotonin), causes uptake transporters to reverse direction (used in ADHD, narcolepsy, obesity)

777
Q

Ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, phenylephrine

A

enter neurons via NET and displace stored NE, alpha and beta agonist (except phenylephrine is only alpha), enters CNS
SE: vasoconstriction, reflex bradycardia, cardiac stimulation, inhibiton of urination, bronchodilation, CNS stimulation
OD: agitation, HTN, cardiac arrhythmias

778
Q

What does alpha 2 activation do?

A

opposes SNS effects (BC its a Gi receptor)

779
Q

What is the role of CNS DA antagonist?

A

antipsychotics

780
Q

CV effects of alpha 1 blockade

A

vasodilation (reduced PVR and MAP, headaches, nasal congestion), orthostatic hypotension, reflex tachycardia

781
Q

CV effects of alpha 2 blockade

A

more reflex SNS release of NE, further stimulating beta 1 receptors (increases tachycardia)

782
Q

Phentolamine

A

nonselective alpha blocker
used to be used to test for PCC, reverses accidental extravasation with vasopressor infusions, revereses local anesthetic effects

783
Q

phentolamine and phenoxybenzamine

A

nonselective alpha blockers
phenoxybenzamine is more alpha 1 blockers
tx for hypertension in preoperative PCC
phenoxybenzamine is preferred for PCC bc it is an irreversible blockade!!–>this cannot be overcome by the large amounts of catecholamines coming from the tumor

Antidotes for hypertensive crisis (like with MAOI+aged cheese)

784
Q

prazosin

A

alpha 1 blocker
treats hypertension and PTSD related insomnia
*first dose hypotension
*less reflex tachy than nonselective alpha blockers bc of little a2 blockade

785
Q

terazosin

A

alpha 1 blockers
treats hypertension and BPH sx
*first dose hypotension
*less reflex tachy than nonselective alpha blockers bc of little a2 blockade

786
Q

tamsulosin

A
alpha1A blocker (alpha 1A found mainly in prostate)
tx for BPH with minimal BP effects (less risk of hypotension)
787
Q

cardioselective beta blockers

A

atenolol, metoprolol, esmolol, acebutolol, bisoprolol, nevbivolol

788
Q

Effects of beta 1 blockade

A

decreased HR and contractility and decreased renin release

789
Q

Effects of beta 2 blockade

A

reduced dilation of blood vessels in skeletal muscle–>rise in peripheral resistance

bronchoconstriction ,decreased aqueous humor production, decreased glycogenolysis in liver

790
Q

Effects of beta blockers on peripheral resistance

A

acutely beta blockers increase peripheral resistance (baroreceptor response) but with chronic administration they reduce peripheral resistance

791
Q

When are partial beta agonists useful

A

for patients who develop symptomatic bradycardia or bronchoconstriction with pure beta blockers

792
Q

beta blockers may have membrane stabilizing ability..when should we avoid these?

A

in topical applications to the eye bc they can interact with Na+ channels

793
Q

clinical uses for beta blockers

A

chronic stable angina, after acute MI, supraventrtricular and ventricular arrhythmia, hypertension, heart failure, glaucoma, hyperthyroidism, migraine, tremor

794
Q

treatments for open angle glaucoma

A

prostaglandins are first tier but beta blockers are also common

795
Q

what ans drugs may exacerbate glaucoma

A

beta agonist, alpha antagonists, anticholinergics

796
Q

Propranolol

A

nonselective beta blocker (crosses BBB)
tx for migraine, thyroid storm, reducing tremor, anxiety, angina, HTN, arrhythmias, MI
SE: bradycardia, worsened astma, fatigue, vivid dreams, cold hands
*black box warning: cardiac ischemia after abrupt discontinuation

797
Q

Stalol

A

nonsel beta blocker
used only in arrhythmia (also acts as ion channel blocker)
*black box: life threatening VTach associated with QT prolongation

798
Q

timolol

A

nonsel betablocker

tx for open angle glaucoma, systemically used for HTN, migraine prophylaxis, MCI

799
Q

Nadolol

A

nonselective beta blocker

long duration of acts, spectrum of action similar to timolol

800
Q

Pindolol

A

partial beta agonist activity, nonselective beta blocker
HTN, adjunct for depression tx
*less likely to cause bradycardia and altered plasma lipids

801
Q

Atenolol, metoprolol, bisprolol

A

beta 1 selective beta blockers

HTN, Arrhythmias, MI

802
Q

Nevbivolol

A

beta 1 selective beta blocker
HTN only
SE: vasodilates via NO production in endothelial cells

803
Q

which beta blockers may be better for patients with diabetes or PVD

A

beta 1 selective drugs

804
Q

Esmolol

A

beta 1 selective

very short duration of action so its used in acutely ill patients in HTN emergency, thyroid storm, ventricular tach

805
Q

Acebutolol

A

partial beta agonist activity, beta 1 selective blocker
local anesthetic effects
less likely to cause bradycardia and altered plasma lipids
effects for hypertension, agina, and thyrotoxicosis

806
Q

Labetalol

A

alpha 1 blocker and beta blocker
Used in acute aortic dissection (decreases aortic pressure and shear stress), BP management in acute ischemic stroke, acute severe HTN, HTN emergency, eclampsia, subarachnoid hemorrhage
Produces hypotension but less tachycardia than phentolamine and other alpha blockers

807
Q

carvedilol

A

blocks alpha1 and beta receptors (more potent beta blocker than labetalol)
Prevent LDL oxidation bc of antioxidant effects
CYP2D6 related interactions (poor metabolizer have 10X high blood concentrations)

808
Q

Adverse effects of beta blockers

A

bradycardia and hypotension, fatigue, sexual dysfunction
Black box warnings regarding precipitation or worsening of CHF and significant negative chronotropy
Abrupt withdrawal can exacerbate ischemic sx so must taper the dose (chronic beta blockers use increases receptor density…abrupt stopping of beta blockers causes transient supersensitivity to catecholamines–more likely with shorter acting drugs like propranolol that wear off before receptors can down-regulate back to normal)
Avoid in asthma or COPD
can exacerbate peripheral artery disease
can mask hypoglycemia in diabetic px

809
Q

stages of cardiogenesis

A

bilateral heart primordia–>primitive heart tube–>heart looping–>artrial and ventricular septation–>outflow tract septation

810
Q

When is heart most vulnerable to teratogens

A

weeks 3-6ish (heart is developing up until week 8)

811
Q

cells from ? give rise to the precardiogenic mesoderm (becomes heart)

A

anterior lateral plate mesoderm

812
Q

splanchnic mesoderm

A

the heart is derived from splanchnic mesoderm as bilateral tubular primordia located ventrolateral to the early pharynx

813
Q

cardiogenic plate

A

area of splanchnic mesoderm anterior to the head process of early mammalian embryo that subsequently gives rise to heart

814
Q

what is cardiac jelly

A

acellular gelatinous matrix secreted by myocardium which separates it from the endocardium in early heart development
*permits shape changes needed for twisting and folding
cardiac jelly will dimish as heart tube matures so that myocardium is adjacent to endocardium

815
Q

What does the bulbus cordis become

A

smooth part of right and left venticles

816
Q

what does the primitive ventricles become

A

expand to becom ethe left ventricle

817
Q

what does the primitive atria become

A

fuses together to form the common atrium (trabeculated part of right and left atria)

818
Q

what does the sinus venosus become

A

right horn: smooth part of right atrium

left horn: coronary sinus

819
Q

what does the common cardinal vein and right anterior cardinal vein become

A

superior vena cava

820
Q

what do the posterior, subcardinal, and supracardinal veins become

A

IVC

821
Q

what does the primitive pulmonary vein become

A

smooth part of left atrium

822
Q

what does the truncus arteriosis become

A

ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk

823
Q

Looping o the heart begins and ends at

A

looping of heart begins at 23 days and ends at 35 days

824
Q

splanchnic mesoderm proliferates to form the

A

myocardial primordium

825
Q

cardiac jelly layer gives rise to..

A

subendocardial tissue

826
Q

Early partitioning of the heart

A

formation of AV canal, formation of endocardial cushions, separation of atrium from ventricles

827
Q

Late partitioing of the heart

A

partitioning of the atria, repositioning of the sinus venosus, partitioning of the ventricles, partitioning of the outflow tract

828
Q

Cushion cells and tissue in the outflow tract (conotruncal region) are formed from

A

endothelial-derived cells and neural crest cells

829
Q

each horn of the sinus venosus receives venous blood from which 3 vessels

A

vitelline vein, umbilical vein, common cardinal vein

830
Q

Where does the interventricular septum first emerge from

A

the floor of the ventricle near the apex

831
Q

Role of neural crest cells in cardiac development

A

begin to produce elastic fibers in the outflow tract before and during the partitioning process which provides the resiliency required of the aorta and pulm vessels

832
Q

what happens to the conducting system in very early heart development

A

location of pacemaker shifts from caudalmost end of the left tube of the unfused heart to the sinus venosus where it is then incorporated into the right atrium, the pacemaker (SA node), then becomes situated high in the right atrium

833
Q

what causes closure of the ductus arteriosis

A

low O2 and decreased prostaglandings (can give indomethacin to close)

834
Q

vasculogenesis

A

fusion of locally formed endothelial vesicles

835
Q

angiogensis

A

Outgrowth or branching of preformed vessels

836
Q

anterior cardinal veins(superior)

A

bring blood from head region via the left and right common cardinal vein

837
Q

Posterior cardinal veins (inferor)

A

drain blood from lower half of body into two common cardinal veins

838
Q

umbilical veins

A

bring nutrient and O2 rich blood from placental villi via the umbilical cord to the embryo
umbilical veins become included in developing liver

839
Q

Vitelline veins (omphalomesentertic system)

A

closely associated with development of duodenum, liver, and drain the blood of the umbilical vesicle

840
Q

Pumonary veins

A

not assigned to any of the three systems–they develop independetly

841
Q

derivatives of first aortic arch

A

regress and form part of maxillary a.

842
Q

derivatives of second aortic arch

A

regress and form part of stapedial artery

843
Q

derivatives of third aortic arch

A

common and internal carotid arteries

844
Q

derivatives of fourth aortic arch

A

right: proximal right subclavian a.
left: arch of aorta

845
Q

derivatives of sixth aortic arch

A

right: part of right pulm a.
left: part of left pulm a. and ductus arteriosus

846
Q

Right 7th segmental A

A

part of the right subclavian

847
Q

left 7th segmental artery

A

entire left subclavian a

848
Q

right dorsal aorta

A

regress and middle of the right subclavian artery

849
Q

left dorsal aorta

A

descending throacic aorta

850
Q

aortic sac

A

ascending aorta and brachiocephalic artery

851
Q

recurrent laryngela nerve

A

wraps around aortic arch on left side and wraps around subclavian a on right side

852
Q

Right aortic arch

A

developmental obliteration of left fourth branchial arch artery and regression of the left dorsal aorta
aortic arch is constructed from equivalent vessels on the right side and ductus arteriosus traverses midline (may produce constriction of esophagus)

853
Q

double aortic arch

A

anomaly of the arch resuting in two arches that surround the esophagus and trachea in the superior mediastinum to form a vascular ring–>dysphagia and respiratory distress
failure of regression of the section of the right dorsal aorta between the 7th intersegmental artery and junction with the left dorsal aorta

854
Q

interrupted aortic arch

A

cause by obliteration of left fourth branchial arch artery
proximal part of aortic arch artery divides to form the brachiocephalic trunk and left common carotid arteries but no continuity of the arch beyond these branches
ductus arteriosus is patent and greatly dilated to support life

855
Q

Right subclavian artery anomaly

A

right subclavian artery arises from aortic arch distal to the left subclavian artery (passes behind the esophagus and trachea to reach right side
results from regresion of the right fourth branchial arch artery

856
Q

Abbott classification groups of congenital heart defects

A

acyanotic, cynaotic, cyanose tardive

857
Q

Shunt classification

A

initial left to right, right to left shunt, no shunt

858
Q

Types of VSDs

A

membranous (most common)

muscular (less common)

859
Q

ASD

A

caused by excessive resorption around the foramen secundum or hypoplastic growth of septum secundum

860
Q

most common site of ASD

A

midportion of the interatrial septum in region of the fossa ovale (ostium secundum ASD)

861
Q

what infection is PDA associated with

A

maternal rubella infection during early pregnancy

862
Q

Coarctation of Aorta

A

pathologic narrowing of aortic lumen (pre or post ductal)

863
Q

Preductal coarctation

A

intracardiac anomaly during fetal life decreased blood flow thru the left side of the heart and aortic isthmus resulting in hypoplastic development of aorta
*CHF shortly after birth
Differential cyanosis if the ductus arteriosus remains open (upper half of the body is perfused but lower half is cyanotic–>hypertension in upper extremities and pressure reduced in lower extremities)

864
Q

Postductal coarctation

A

develops postnatally, usually the result of muscular ductal tissue extending into the aorta during fetal life
when ductal tissue constricts following birth, the ectopic tissue within the aorta also constricts and creates a napkin ring-like obstruction
usually obstruction is not severe and kid is ok
if severe, newborn can develop CHF
first weeks of life, infant presents with tachypnea, dyspnea, tachycardia, hepatomegaly

865
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot

A

abnormal anterosuperior and rightward displacement of infundibular septum–>unequal division of the bulbus cordis into pulmonary and aortic outflow tracts
*VSD, subvalvular pulm stenosis, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy
systolic murmur heard best at left upper sternal border

866
Q

Transposition of great arteries

A

aorta originates from right ventricles and pulmonary artery originates from left ventricle
failure of spiraling in development or abnormal growth and absorption of the subpulm and subaortic infundibuli during division of truncus arteriosus

867
Q

persistant truncus arteriosus

A

result of absent or incomplete partitioning of the truncus arteriosus by the spiral septum (neural crest cell failure)
type 1 is most common variant–>single trunk that gives rise to a common pulm artery and ascending aorta

868
Q

does SNS or PNS display predominant tone in most organs

A

PNS is dominant tone in most organs (sweat glands and blood vessels have predominant SNS)

869
Q

how do M agonists treat glaucoma

A

close iris (miosis)to icnrease fluid drainage

870
Q

M2 receptor activation effect on heart rate?

A

decreases rate of AP generation in SA node and rate of AP transmission in AV node to decrease the heart rate

871
Q

does the PSNS directly innervate cardiomyocytes

A

NO

872
Q

Does PSNS directly innervate vascular smooth muscle cells

A

no but M3 activation on endothelial cells releases nitric oxide, which can lead to vasodilation

873
Q

what receptor in kidney cells leads to renin release

A

beta 1

874
Q

what kind of receptor are nicotinic receptors

A

ion channels

875
Q

cholingeric side effects

A

miosis, decreased HR, bronchial constriction and increased secretions, increased motility in GI tract and relaxation of sphincters, relaxation of sphincters and bladder wall contraction, increased secretions from glands

876
Q

Choline esters have what kind of amine group

A

quaternary, hydrophilic, cant penetrate CNS

877
Q

are tertiary or quaternary amines better absorbed into CNS

A

tertiary because they are uncharged and lipophilic

878
Q

how are cholinomimetic alkaloids excreted

A

renally

879
Q

bathanechol

A

choline ester that activates M1-3 receptors in all peripheral tissues
treats ileus and urinary retention by increasing bowel and bladder tone

880
Q

Carbachol

A

choline ester, nonselective M and N agonist, treats open angle claucoma by increasing fluid outflow

881
Q

pilocarpine

A

tertiary amine alkaloid, M3 agonist, treats glaucoma by increasing fluid outflow and treats xerostomia in sjogren syndrome

882
Q

Varenicline

A

partial agonist at specific N subtype and blocks nicotine activation of CNS reward paths–>smoking cessation aid

883
Q

Edrophonium

A

alcohol, increases ACh concentrations

was used to diagnose myasthenia gravis

884
Q

Pyridostigmine

A

quat carbamate, increses ACh concentrations
treats MG
cholinergic side effects can be dose limiting and treated with antimuscarinics

885
Q

Neostigmine

A

quat carbamate, increases ACh concentrations, treats MG, ileus, and urinary retention, reversal of NMJ blockade post-op

886
Q

Physostigmine

A

tertiary carbamate, crosses BBB

antidote for anticholinergic toxicity

887
Q

Rivastigmine

A

tertiary carbamate, increases ACh concentrations by inhibiting AChE and BuChE isoforms in memory regions of brain
treats alzheimers

888
Q

Carbaryl, parathion, malathion, and sarin, and VX

A

irreversible AChE inhibitors–organophosphates

889
Q

Anticholinesterase poisoning

A

too much muscarinic activity–>DUMBBELSS

Antidotes: atropine (crosses BBB), 2-PAM (reverses N and M effects, does not cross BBB)

890
Q

What do you give someone with OP poisoning

A

atropine

891
Q

what plant has antimuscarinic effects

A

deadly nightshade (atropa belladonna)

892
Q

Anticholinergic poisoning

A

hot as a hare, dry as a bone, red as a beet, mad as a hatter, full as a flask, blind as a bat, fast as a …

893
Q

scopolamine

A

antimuscarinic used to treat motion sickness

894
Q

benztropine

A

antimuscarinic used to relieve acute dystonia in parkinsons

895
Q

tropicamide

A

antimuscarinic used to produce mydriasis and cycloplegia for eye exams or surgery

896
Q

dicyclomine

A

antimuscarinic used for irritable bowel syndrome

897
Q

oxybutyinin

A

antimuscarinic used for bladder spasm and overactive bladder

898
Q

ipratropium

A

antimuscarinic used to treat asthma and COPD (they bronchodilate)

899
Q

glycopyrrolate

A

antimuscarinic that reduces glandular secretions for axillary hyperhidrosis and focal hyperhidrosis
*antidoite for AChE inhibitor OD

900
Q

Antidotes for AChE inhibitor OD

A

glycopyrrolate, atropine, pralidoxeme