Cardio Flashcards

1
Q

Why are arterioles, and to a lesser extent, arteries called resistance vessels?

A

They act as muscular sphincters to provide vascular resistance and redirect flow as required. This is the main regulator of blood pressure

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2
Q

What is a name for capillaries, venous sinusoids and small vessels?

A

Exchange vessels

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3
Q

What is the distribution of blood normally?

A

65% in peripheral veins
20% in heart and lungs
10% in peripheral arteries
5% capillaries

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4
Q

What can change blood distribution?

A

Exercise, where blood is diverted to skeletal muscle and heart

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5
Q

What is the tunica intima?

A

The innermost layer of vessels.

Endothelium which lines the entire vascular system

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6
Q

What is the tunica media?

A

Middle layer of vessels (absent in capillaries)
Thickest layer in arteries
Comprised of muscle tissue, elastic fibres and collagen

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7
Q

What is the tunica adventitia?

A

Outermost layer

Comprised of connective tissues, nerves, vessel capillaries

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8
Q

What are the three types of capillaries?

A

Continuous - continuous cytoplasm, continuous basal lamina, bidirectional transport via transcytosis - in the brain, thyroid, bone and lung

Fenestrated - discontinuous cytoplasm, fenestrations may have a diaphragm, unidirectional filtration, continuous basal lamina. - villi, kidneys

Discontinuous - discontinuous cytoplasm, bidirectional filtration, discontinuous basal lamina. - spleen

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9
Q

What are the layers of the heart

A

Endocardium - innermost
Myocardium - heart muscle
Visceral later - inner serous layer

Pericardial cavity

Parietal layer - outer serous layer
Fibrous layer

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10
Q

What are the borders of the heart?

A
Upper left 2nd intercostal space
Lower right 2nd intercostal space
6th right  costal cartilage
5th left intercostal space
T4/5  -  T8/9
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11
Q

What is diastole

A

When the ventricles are relaxed. At the end of diastole, both atria contract. The volume of blood in the ventricles after this is the end diastolic volume

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12
Q

What is systole

A

When ventricles contact. Blood is also entering atria

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13
Q

What is isovolumetric contraction? And what happens after?

A

Between the closing of the AV valves and the opening of the aortic and pulmonic valves. Ventricular pressure increases as contraction doesn’t push out any blood

Then comes rapid ejection phase

As ventricular depolarisation occurs (t wave), pressure in ventricles reduce and force of ejection drops. This is reduced ejection phase as blood is pulled out by the movement of blood

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14
Q

What is stroke volume

A

Amount of blood pumped out of each ventricle per beat. Around 75ml but may double in exercise

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15
Q

What is cardiac output?

A

Stroke volume x heart rate

Around 5L at rest but up to 25L during exercise

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16
Q

What can affect cardiac output?

A

Preload - the stretch on the heart muscle due to the end diastolic volume - this increases sarcomere length and therefore an increase in contractile force, increasing stroke volume

Afterload - the load that the ventricles must pump blood against. If peripheral vascular resistance increases, cardiac output will decrease initially but then return to normal as Frank starling law takes place. Increased end diastolic volume due to increased resistance –> greater stretch of sarcomeres –> greater stroke volume increased

Functionality of the heart - encompasses heart rate and contractility which is modulated by the SNS and PSNS

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17
Q

Why is cardiac muscle termed myogenic?

A

Because cells in the sinoatrial node generate their own regular, spontaneous action potentials

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18
Q

Which ions cause the depolarisation in heart cells?

A

Calcium

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19
Q

What are the three phases in the sinoatrial nodal action potentials?

A

At the end of depolarisation, the membrane potential is around -60mv. Ion channels open which allow a slow inward flow of Na called funny currents. This depolarises the cell, and at around -50mv, T-type calcium channels open, causing phase 4

Phase 4 - spontaneous depolarisation that occurs during diastole and triggers the action potential once the membrane potential reaches threshold ~ -40mv
At -40mv L-type calcium channels open

Phase 0 - T-type calcium channels and funny current channels close.

Phase 3 - K channels open and flows outwards, depolarising the cell and L-type calcium channels close. Keep flowing out until the cell is at around -60mv again and the cycle is spontaneously repeated

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20
Q

Explain the action potentials in non-pacemaker cells in the heart

A

Have a true resting membrane potential - phase 4

When rapidly depolarised to threshold of around -70mv there is rapid depolarisation (phase 0) causes by sodium channels

Phase 1 is the initial repolarisation by opening of transient K channels

This repolarisation is delayed by the large inward slow Ca at the same time which is long lasting. This causes a plateau which distinguishes cardiac action potentials from skeletal muscle or nerves

Phase 3 is when calcium channels close and repolarisation happens quickly again

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21
Q

What are cardiomyocytes joined together with?

A

Intercalated discs made of:

  • fascia adherens which are anchoring sites for actin and allow for transmission of force
  • desmosomes which stop separation of myocytes via intermediate filaments
  • gap junctions which allow for the passage of action potentials cell to cell via connexons
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22
Q

What is excitation-contraction coupling?

A

The process where an action potential triggers a myocyte to contract

When the myocyte is depolarised by an action potential, calcium ions enter (phase 2) through L-type channels located on the sarcolemma. This calcium triggers calcium to be released form the sarcoplasmic reticulum through ryanodine receptors. This is called calcium induced calcium release.

This free calcium binds to troponin C. This induced a conformational change which exposes a site on actin that is able to bind to the myosin ATPase on the myosin head. This results in ATP hydrolysis that supplies energy for a conformational change in the actin-myosin complex.
They slide past each other and contract the sarcomere.
At the end of phase 2, calcium concentration decreases leading to troponin 1 once again inhibiting the actin binding site and ATP binds to myosin head. The sarcomere returns to initial length

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23
Q

What is the order in which parts of the heart contract?

A

SAN –> atria –> AVN –> annulus fibrosis –> ventricles (bundle of His and Purkinje fibres)

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24
Q

What is the annulus fibrosis?

A

Non conducting band between atria and ventricles

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25
Q

How long is a large square on the ECG?

A

0.2 seconds and 0.5mV

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26
Q

What are the parts of the ECG

A

P - depolarisation of the atria
Q- left to right depolarisation of the interventricular septum
R- depolarisation of main mass of ventricles
S- depolarisation of last part of ventricles at base
T - repolarisation of ventricles

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27
Q

Why isn’t the repolarisation of the atria and other things seen on the ECG?

A

Too diffuse

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28
Q

Why is the T wave positive?

A

Although it is repolarisation, the wave progresses from the base towards the apex. The change in polarity and direction cancel each other out. In pathological conditions where the action potential is prolonged, or the conduction from apex to base is slow, the T wave may be inverted

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29
Q

Which vessels provide the most resistance?

A

Arterioles as they have the thickest walls in relation to their lumen

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30
Q

What is the role of capillary hydrostatic pressure?

A

To drive fluid out of the capillary into the interstitium

Pressure drops between the arteriole end and the venule end, meaning fluid is reabsorbed at the venule end.

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31
Q

What is the role of capillary oncotic pressure

A

Generates by proteins such as albumin

Fluid to protein ratio decreases towards the venule end which pulls fluid back into the capillary

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32
Q

What is oedema caused by?

A
Increased interstitial oncotic pressure
Increased venule hydrostatic pressure
Increased arteriolar hydrostatic pressure
Decreased plasma oncotic pressure
Lymphatic blockage
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33
Q

What are the body fluid volumes?

A

Intracellular - 25L

Extracellular - 15L total

       - interstitial fluid -12L
       - plasma -                    3L
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34
Q

How is blood pressure calculated

A

Cardiac output x peripheral vascular resistance

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35
Q

How are vessels modulated?

A

Smooth muscle in the medial layer innervated by postganglionic sympathetic neurones

Noradrenaline acts at alpha 1 adrenoreceptors and causes vasoconstriction

Adrenaline acts at beta 2 adrenoreceptors and causes vasodilation

Angiotensin II and vasopressin cause vasoconstriction

Nitric oxide causes vasodilation

Endothelin causes vasoconstriction

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36
Q

Which cells are involved with the RAAS

A

Cells in the macula densa in the renal tubules are sensitive to sodium concentration

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37
Q

What happens if the cells in the macula densa sense low sodium concentrations

A

Send a signal to juxtaglomerular cells in the kidney glomerulus to release renin, which cleaves angiotensinogen into angiotensin I. This is in turn converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) - synthesised in the lung

Angiotensin II has the following effects:

  • arteriolar constrictor - preserves blood pressure
  • aldosterone release - retention of sodium and water in kidney
  • vasopressin secretion - retention of water
  • Thirst
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38
Q

What’s the opposite of the RAAS system?

A

ANP and BNP

Cause excretion of water and sodium and powerful vasodilators when higher blood volume is sensed

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39
Q

What are the major afferent sensors other then the juxtaglomerular apparatus?

A

Baroreceptors in the arch of the aorta (vagus nerve) and corotid sinus (glossopharyngeal nerve)

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40
Q

What causes the release of endothelin I and reduction of Nitric oxide synthesis

A

Endothelial damage

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41
Q

Describe nitric oxide

A

Anti aggregatory vasodilator

Formed from L-arginine by NO synthase in response to stress, blood flow, acetylcholine and bradykinin. It converts GTP into cGMP in target cells causing relaxation.

L-monomethyl arginine is an inhibitor of NO synthase

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42
Q

Describe endothelin 1

A

Released by the endothelium in response to many vasoconstrictors.

It is a a potent vasoconstrictor which stimulates two types of receptor, ETa and ETb

ETa - vasoconstriction, hypertension, endothelial dysfunction, arterial stiffness, atherosclerosis, inflammation, fibrosis, insulin resistance

ETb - natriuresis, vasodilation, ETa clearance

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43
Q

How does the body respond to haemorrhage

A

Decreased:

Intravascular volume
Ventricular filling
Blood pressure
Capillary hydrostatic pressure
Venous return
Cardiac output
Renal perfusion

Afferent receptors are activated:

Carotid baroreceptors and aortic arch baroreceptors sense decrease in pressure

Atrial volume stretch receptors and juxtaglomerular sensors sense decrease in volume

Efferent signals are activated:

Tachycardia and increased contractility stimulated by Beta 1 adrenoreceptors to increase cardiac output and blood pressure

Alpha 1 adrenoreceptors cause vasoconstriction to increase peripheral resistance and sacrifice blood flow to less vital systems e.g. GI and skin - become cold and pale

Venoconstriction by A1 reduce reservoir function, reduce venous return to the heart and increase cardiac output via Frank starling mechanism

Catecholamine release

Renin release to reduce loss of water and salt in kidney

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44
Q

What symptoms does hypovolemic shock produce

A

Sweating
Low urine output
Confusion due to reduced cerebral perfusion

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45
Q

Describe the process of atheroma

A

Tunica intima is damaged by chemicals in the blood, components of cigarette smoke, hypertension or infections

Injured cells release chemotactic agents and begin to transport band modify lipids, particularly LDLs. The built up LDLs are oxidised in the inflammatory environment, damaging nearby cells. This also attracts macrophages. Some of these macrophages become engorged with LDL and become foam cells. Built up foam cells form a fatty streak.

Smooth muscle cells from the media migrate and deposit elastic and collagen fibres, thickening the intima and producing lesions with a core of dead and dying foam cells called atherosclerotic plaques. Initially, vessel walls will expand to accommodate the growing plaque but, eventually, it will start to block parts of the lumen. This is classed as atherosclerosis.

Cells in the centre continue to die and calcium is deposited. Collagen production decreases and the plaque may rupture. - complicated plaque

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46
Q

What is the main function of a lipoprotein

A

Transportation of triacylglycerol and cholesterol

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47
Q

Describe a lipoprotein

A

Triacylglycerol (TAG), cholesterol and cholesteryl esters surrounded by a phospholipid monolayer

Have apolipoproteins which have a key role in movement of the lipoprotein

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48
Q

Describe chylomicrons

A
Biggest
Lowest density
Dietary source
TAG rich
Hydrolysed in adipose and muscle tissue
ApoB receptors

Dietary lipids, bile and cholesterol form chylomicrons in the gut
Transport TAG into the body
Release free fatty acids (FFAs) and form chylomicron remnants which are either recycled in the liver or absorbed by macrophages

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49
Q

Describe VLDL

A
Second biggest
Second least dense
Synthesised in liver
TAG rich
Transportation function
ApoB receptors

Progressively become more dense through release of FFAs due to lipoprotein lipase (LPL), forming IDLs and LDLs. This happens on cell membranes
The resultant LDL is recycled in the liver or absorbed by macrophages

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50
Q

Describe LDL

A
Second smallest
Second densest
Derived from VLDL, with the same function
Cholesterol rich
ApoB receptors
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51
Q

Describe HDL

A
Smallest
Densest
Synthesised from APO-A1 in the liver 
Cholesterol rich
Function of removing cholesterol
"Good" cholesterol
ApoA-1 receptors

APO-A1 is converted to HDL3 at the ABC-A1 receptor in macrophages, catalysed by LCAT

HDL3 is then converted to HDL2 at the SR-B1 receptor on macrophages, catalysed by LCAT

HDL2 exchanges cholesterol esters for cholesterol with LDLs, reducing body cholesterol.

HDL2 is then recycled in the liver at scavenger receptors or recycled to HDL3

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52
Q

What is the treatment for hyperlipidemia?

A

Diet, weight, stop smoking, moderate alcohol

Statins - inhibit HMG-CoA reductase, preventing production of cholesterol

Ezetimibe - inhibits chylomicron absorption

Stanol esters - reduces chylomicron absorption (weak)

Nicotinic acid - increases HDL, decreases triglycerides

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53
Q

What is ehlers-danlos syndrome

A

Genetic connective tissue disorder, autosomal dominant, collagen related

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54
Q

What is Marfan syndrome

A

Genetic connective tissue disorder, autosomal dominant, fibrillin related

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55
Q

What is Virchow’s triad

A

Endothelial injury

  • ulcerated atheromatous plaque
  • left ventricular endocardium after MI
  • abnormal cardiac valves

Abnormal/stasis of blood flow

  • disrupts laminar flow
  • prevents dilution of clotting factors
  • retards inflow of inhibitors to clotting factors
  • promotes endothelial cell activation

Hypercoagulabilty

  • alteration of copying cascade
  • genetic predisposition
  • acquired (e.g. after surgery)
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56
Q

What are mural thrombi?

A

Applied to one wall of underlying structure

Occur in capacious structures such as cardiac cavities and aorta

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57
Q

What are lines of zahn?

A

Alternating bands if fibrin/platelets (white) and erythrocytes (pink)
Occur in thrombi (especially formed near the heart or aorta)
Do not occur in clots formed after death. Can be used to tell if the clot was a cause of death

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58
Q

What is an embolism

A

A detached intravascular solid, liquid or gaseous mass that is carried by the blood to a site that is distant from its point of origin.
Almost always thromboembolism

Can also be:
Amniotic fluid
Gas such as nitrogen in divers or injected
Bone fragments

Large emboli may lodge at the bifurcation of the pulmonary artery and can cause sudden death as they obstruct the entire pulmonary circulation

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59
Q

What are the types of infarct

A

Red (haemorrhagic) - dual circulation e.g. lung or venous occlusion

White - anaemic - arterial occlusion with a single blood supply e.g. heart

Septic - infected infarcts

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60
Q

What are factors which influence development of an infarction

A

Dual or single blood supply

Rate of development - rapid due to embolism or gradual such as atheroma build up

Vulnerability of tissue - heart and kidney susceptible

Oxygen content of blood - hypoxia worsens

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61
Q

Describe the clotting cascade

A

Endothelial damage - platelet attracted to lower prostacyclin levels and exposed collagen. Thromboxane (TXA2) and serotonin are released causing vasoconstriction

Platelets bind to glycoprotein receptors aided by collagen bound von-willebrand factor in microfibrils

This causes confirmation change

Platelets bind to different glycoprotein receptors aided by vWF

Platelets adhere to more glycoprotein receptors aided by fibrinogen

TXA2 causes release of dense granules

Thrombin and tissue factors activate clotting cascade

Intrinsic pathway initiated by collagen exposure - eventually producing factor Xa

Extrinsic pathway initiated by TF and also produces Xa

Xa then converts prothrombin to thrombin which converts fibrinogen to fibrin

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62
Q

What is the fibrinolysis pathway

A

Plasminogen –> plasmin –> fibrin degradation products

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63
Q

What does prothrombin time measure?

A

Extrinsic + common pathway

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64
Q

What does the activated partial thromboplastin time measure?

A

Intrinsic + common pathways

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65
Q

What are examples of hypocoagulation

A

Haemophilia A - sex linked recessive, factor VIII dysfunction/deficiency

Haemophilia B - sex linked recessive, factor IX dysfunction/deficiency

Factor underproduction - commonly due to liver failure resulting in reduced vit K - factors dependent on vit K
are II, VII, IX and X

Von willebrand disease - autosomal dominant, vWF dysfunction/deficiency - carries fVIII - most common heritable bleeding disorder

Thrombocytopenia - decrease in platelets

Scurvy - no collagen strengthening due to lack of vit C

Ehlers-danlos syndrome - connective tissue disorder

Bone marrow failure

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66
Q

What are examples of hypercoagulabilty

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) - widespread overactivation of the clotting cascade

Thrombophilia - increased tendency to clot

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67
Q

What is sinus arrhythmia?

A

A normal phenomenon where the the sinus node fires at variable rates, depending on parasympathetic vagus nerve activity due to inhalation, exhalation.

SAN us programmed to fire at around 100BPM

This is slowed by the normal action of the parasympathetic nervous system which releases acetylcholine from the vagus nerve which decreases cAMP which reduces ion channel activity

68
Q

Atrial flutter

A

Sinus rate of 250-350 beats/min

Normal QRS complex in a 2/3-1 ratio with abnormal complexes. This has a characteristic saw tooth pattern on ECG

69
Q

Atrial fibrillation

A

Uncoordinated atrial depolarisations
This is very common, particularly in the elderly
Typically at 400-600/min however the AVN can only transmit at 200/min
This leads to reduced filling, reduced cardiac output and can lead to thrombus formation. There are no p waves. Known as irregularly irregular

70
Q

Ventricular flutter

A

Very rapid ventricular depolarisations >250/min

Sine wave appearance, leads to fibrillation

71
Q

Ventricular fibrillation

A

Uncoordinated ventricular depolarisations
Leads to death quickly if not converted to a rhythm compatible with life

Most common rhythm seen in cardiac arrest - no longer pumps blood properly - leads to shock, asystole and sudden cardiac death

There is a high recurrence rate

72
Q

Supraventricular tachycardia

A

Usually caused by re-entry currents within the atria or between ventricles and atria producing heart rates of 140-250 beats/min

73
Q

AV nodal block

A

Problems with coordination between atria and ventricles. Ventricles set their own pace. Can be caused by ischaemia

First degree - PR interval > 0.2 secs

Second degree - progressive prolongation of PR interval with dropped beats

Third degree - no association between P and QRS complex

74
Q

Types of cardial infarcts

A

Sub-endocardial infarcts - many infarcts are located just outside the endocardial surface, rather than further away. This is because the branches of the coronary arteries supply the endocardial region last. Therefore it is the last to receive oxygen and the most vulnerable to ischaemia.

Transmural infarct - the whole wall us infarcted m results in pericarditis in response to pericardial necrosis

75
Q

Describe infarct development in the heart.

A

<18h no pathological signs
1-2d pale muscle, oedema, neutrophil infiltration
3-7d yellow centre with haemorrhagic border, necrosis, inflammation, granulation tissue
1-3w pale and thin muscles glanulation tissue progressing to fibrosis
3-6w silvery scar becoming tough and white, dense fibrosis

76
Q

What are the tests for MI

A

Troponin - found in sarcomeres and is highly specific for cardiac tissue

Others include creatine kinase and raised BNP (this is even more specific but is not currently funded by NHS)

77
Q

What are the ECG changes in STEMI

A

Within hours - ST elevation
Days 1-2 - Q depression
Days later - t wave inversion
Weeks later - normal with persisting Q depression

78
Q

What is STEMI

A

Most severe type of MI

Probable transmural necrosis due to complete occlusion

79
Q

What is NSTEMI

A

No ECG changes
Caused by incomplete or temporary occlusion
Biomarkers are present

80
Q

What are the types of heart failure

A

Acute - rapid onset, definable cause

Chronic - slow onset, ischaemic or valvular disease

Acute on chronic - chronic failure exacerbated by acute event

Can be right, left or both (congestive) heart failure

81
Q

Describe LV failure

A

Dominates hypertensive and ischaemic heart failure
Causes pulmonary oedema because left ventricle is unable to pump blood into circulation therefore blood backs up and is forced into pulmonary tissue

This causes hypertension and eventually RV failure

82
Q

Describe RV failure

A

Often secondary to LV failure
Related to intrinsic lung disease

Cor pulmonale - alteration in structure and function of the right ventricle caused by a primary disorder of the resp system

83
Q

What is forward failure

A

Heart not pumping enough blood to satisfy all tissues in the body

84
Q

What is backward failure

A

Not pumping all blood that comes to it

Increased venous pressure
Pulmonary and ankle oedema
Breathlessness from pulmonary oedema

85
Q

What is the vicious cycle of congestive heart failure

A

Decreased cardiac output
This causes vasoconstriction and fluid retention
This increases preload and afterload which puts stress on the heart

86
Q

Describe persistent ductus arteriosus

A

Connection between aorta and pulmonary artery

Recirculation of aortic blood
Resultant L –> R shunting

87
Q

Describe atrial septal defects

A

Flow between atria

L –> R shunting which may eventually switch to R –> L due to RV hypertrophy

E.g. patent foramen ovale

88
Q

Describe atrial septal defects

A

Flow between atria

L –> R shunting which may eventually switch to R –> L due to RV hypertrophy

E.g. patent foramen ovale

89
Q

Describe ventricular septal defects

A

Flow between ventricles

L –> R shunting

90
Q

Describe tetralogy of Fallot

A

Ventricular septal defect

Pulmonary valve stenosis

RV hypertrophy

Resultant R –> L shunting

91
Q

What is coarctation of aorta

A

Narrowing of aorta in the region of the ductus arteriosus

Raised upper body BP, normal rest of body

92
Q

What are the two circulations in the body

A

Systemic and pulmonary

93
Q

Describe primary hypertension

A

90% of cases
Idiopathic
Risk factors include genetic, diet, chronic stress, RAAS abnormalities, obesity, diabetes

94
Q

Describe secondary hypertension

A

Less common

Due to renal disease, endocrine causes or thinks like drugs or coarctation of the aorta

95
Q

What is the difference between benign and malignant hypertension

A

Benign is slow changes with chronic end organ disease

Malignant is rapid changes in vessels with acute end organ dysfunction - BP tends to be higher

96
Q

What can hypertension affect

A

Heart - LV hypertrophy, coronary artery atheroma, ischaemic heart disease, cardiac failure

Kidney - nephrosclerosis - proteinuria, chronic renal failure

Brain - intracerebral haemorrhage due to micro aneurysms, stroke

Vascular disease -
- benign - acceleration of atherosclerosis, proliferation and hyalinisation if arteries and arterioles

  - malignant - fibrinoid necrosis
  - hypertensive retinopathy - haemorrhaging z hard exudates, narrowing of retinal vessels, blindness
97
Q

What is the treatment option for antihypertensives

A

1st line - A (or B) for young/white and C/D for old or black

2nd line - A+C or A+D

3rd line - A+C+D

Younger and white have more renin so A better

98
Q

What are examples of A antihypertensives

A

ACE inhibitors (-pril)

Lisinopril, Enalopril, Ranipril

Inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme which prevents conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II

Used for hypertension, LV failure, CV event prophylaxis and post MI

Dry cough, hypotension, renal impairment, angioedema

OR

Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) (-sartan)

Losartan, Irbesartan, Candesartan

Antagonises action of angiotensin II

Used in hypertension, diabetic neuropathy, heart failure

Renal impairment, cough (rare), hypotension (rare)

99
Q

Describe beta blockers

A

(-olol). Atenolol, Bisoprolol (both B1 specific)

Propranolol (non-specific)

Antagonise B1 receptors in the heart to decrease heart rate and contractility

Hypertension, angina, MI, arrhythmias, heart failure

Contraindications - asthma, heart block

Adverse- bradycardia, heart failure, heart block, vasoconstriction, fatigue, erectile dysfunction

100
Q

Describe calcium channel blockers

A

Amlodipine, Nifedipine

Reduce CA passage into cells to prevent calcium induced calcium release, thus mediating smooth muscle relaxation and vasodilation

Hypertension, angina prophylaxis

Contraindications - heart failure

Flushing, oedema, headache

101
Q

Describe thiazide-like diuretics

A

Bendroflumethiazide, indapamide

Inhibit Na and Cl reabsorption at the distal convoluted tubule, thereby also decreasing water reabsorption and preload

Hypertension and oedema

Contraindications - gout, lithium treatment

Hyponatremia, hypokalemia, impotence

102
Q

Alpha-1 blockers

A

(-zosin)

Doxazosin, Terazosin, Prazosin

Antagonise alpha 1 receptors to cause vasodilation and decrease vascular resistance

Hypertension, Raynaud’s disease

Contraindications - heart failure, breast feeding

Postural hypotension, dizziness

103
Q

What are some other antihypertensives

A

K channel openers - minoxidil

Loop diuretics - fusemide

Mineralocorticoid agonists - spironolactone

104
Q

What are antiplatelets

A

Decrease platelet aggregation

COX inhibitors - block cyclooxygenase which is essential for the production of thromboxane A2 which is a promotor of platelet aggregation

Irreversible - aspirin
Reversible - NSAIDs

Thienopyridines- irreversible platelet ADP receptor inhibitors
Most common is clopidogrel. Prevent ADP from activating GP IIb/IIIa receptor upregulation and therefore platelet adhesion

GP IIb/IIIa antagonist - direct receptor antagonists. Most common are abciximab and tirofiban

Dipyridamole - this drug inhibits the ADP response and upregulates cAMP

105
Q

What is the standard therapeutic strategy for anticoagulants

A

Rapid initial anticoagulation

Heparin OR
Low molecular weight heparin OR
New oral anticoagulant (dabigitran, rivaroxivan, apixaban)
to reduce risk of thrombus extension or fatal PE

Then extended therapy

Oral vit K antagonist (warfarin) - start immediately and stop heparin once INR 2.0 for two days OR
New oral anticoagulant at lower dose
to prevent recurrance or chronic complications

106
Q

Describe the two types of heparin

A

Unfractionated - used if risk of bleeding is high as reversible with protamine
Unpredictable due to binding to plasma proteins
Continuous infusion or twice daily administration

Low molecular weight - no need to monitor and 100% bioavailability but irreversible
Once daily dosing
Produced by enzymatic or chemical depolymerization
more predictable
dose dependent renal clearance

Rapid anticoagulation
Binds to antithrombin and increases action
Increased inhibitory action towards factor 10a and thrombin

Use in: DVT, MI, thromboprophylaxis before surgery, PE, coronary artery disease

Contraindications - liver and kidney disease and pregnancy + lactation

Adverse effects- haemorrhage, hyperkalemia (inhibits aldosterone secretion), thrombocytopenia (low platelets)

Osteoporosis can be caused by LMW heparin

107
Q

Describe new oral anticoagulants

A

Ideal due to lack of monitoring

Apixaban and Rivaroxiban directly inhibit 10a

Dabigitran directly inhibits 2a

Use in DVT, PE, MI, AF to reduce stroke risk

Contraindications - bleeding disorders

Haemorrhage, GI upset

108
Q

Describe warfarin

A

Cumarin

Constant monitoring as narrow therapeutic window (aim for INR of 2)

Vit K antagonist
Prevents formation of factors 2, 7, 9 and 10

takes around 5 days to establish maintenance dosing
loading regimens assist early dosing
individual dose for each patient
dietary vit K intake affects dose
many drug interactions

DVT, PE, AF, prosthetic valves

Haemorrhagic stroke, significant bleeding

Adverse effects - haemorrhage, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, liver problems

109
Q

What is used to increase myocardial contractility

A

Digoxin (ACUTE)
cardiac glycoside
Blocks Na/K ATPase
Slows AV conduction
Increased cardiac contractility
Used for atrial fibrillation or heart failure
requires loading dose
Contraindications - renal failure, hypokalemia
Adverse effects - hypokalemia, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, visual disturbances, AV block, arrhythmias

Dobutamine

110
Q

What is used to inhibit sympathetic activation?

A

Beta blockers

111
Q

What is used to inhibit the renin- angiotensin system

A

ACE inhibitors
Angiotensin II receptor blockers
Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists

112
Q

What is used to reduce preload

A

Loop diuretics

113
Q

What is used for vasoconstriction

A
Nitrovasodilators
- glyceryl trinitrate - breaks down to nitric oxide
Used in angina or heart failure 
Contraindications - aortic stenosis
Adverse effects- headache, dizziness

Hydralazine
Direct vasodilator
Headache, tachycardia, palpitations

114
Q

What are class 1b antiarrhythmics

A

Na channel clockers such as Lidocaine

Used for SVT, VF and post MI

115
Q

What are class II antiarrhythmics

A

Beta blockers such as atenolol

Used in AF, hypertension and angina

116
Q

What are class III antiarrhythmics

A

K channel blockers such as amiodarone

Used in AF, SVT, VF

117
Q

What are class IV antiarrhythmics

A

Calcium channel blockers such as verapamil

Used in AF, SVT, Angina

118
Q

What are class V antiarrhythmics

A

Na/K ATPase inhibitors such as digoxin
Used in AF and heart failure

Or adenosine for diagnosis of SVT

119
Q

What can be used to treat atrial fibrillation

A

Atenolol, amiodarone, verapamil, digoxin

120
Q

What can be used to treat SVT

A

Adenosine for diagnosis.

Lidocaine, amiodarone, verapamil

121
Q

What can be used to treat VF

A

Lidocaine, amiodarone

122
Q

Describe adenosine

A

Agonist at A1 AV node receptors
Hyperpolarisation of conduction tissue
transient blockage of AV node

Indications - SVT

Contraindications - kidney failure, hypokalemia

Adverse effects- dyspnoea, nausea, dizziness

123
Q

Describe amiodarone

A

Very long half life
Blocks K channels
Prolonged action potential

Treats all arrhythmias

Contraindications- bradycardia, heart block, thyroid dysfunction

TOXIC

124
Q

Describe lidocaine

A

Blocks Na channels
Stops membrane depolarisation

SVT, VF, post MI

Nervous system and cardiovascular depression

125
Q

Describe verapamil

A

Calcium channel blocker
Specific to L-type channels
Decreased cardiac conduction and contractility due to reduced conduction in AV and SA nodes

AF, SVT and angina

Constipation, heart block, bradycardia

126
Q

What is the third heart sound?

A

Early diastole in young trained athletes

Ventricular gallop

Return in later life indicates abnormality

127
Q

What is the ejection fraction

A

Amount of blood pumped out. 55-60% usually

80% in exercise

128
Q

What is the starling law if the heart

A

The more blood in the heart the more the muscle fibres are stretched (within limit) - more force of contraction - more blood pumped out

129
Q

What will the ECG show if the impulse runs away from it

A

Negative

And positive if towards

130
Q

How long should each part of the ECG be

A

PR - 0.12-0.2 secs

QRS - <0.12 secs

QT - <0.44 secs men and 0.46 secs women

131
Q

How do you calculate heart rate

A

If regular

300/number of large squares between R waves

If irregular

Number of QRS complexes x 6

132
Q

What are the types of heart block

A

1st - regular, PR interval more than 0.2s

2nd (mobitz I) - irregular, PR continues to lengthen until a QRS is missed

2nd (mobitz II) - irregular, QRS may be wide, non conducted sinus impulses appear at irregular intervals - treatment is a pacemaker

3rd- atria and ventricles beat independent of each other, usually requires pacemaker

133
Q

What do you call a clot which isn’t a thrombus?

A

Haematoma

134
Q

What’s the difference between superficial and deep venous thrombosis

A

Deep is often asymptomatic - only recognised when they have embolised such as to the lungs

Superficial - swelling, pain, tenderness (rarely embolise)

135
Q

How is an embolus determines post death?

A

If it is not the same calibre as the vessel it gets stuck in

Will be the diameter of the vein it came from

136
Q

What is a paradoxical embolism?

A

When a embolus causes a stroke due to getting into the left side of the heart due to interatrial or interventricular defect

137
Q

When is homocysteine measured

A

In young patients with CV disease in the absence of usual risk factors

138
Q

What is troponin

A

1:1:1 of three regulatory proteins TnT, TnI and TnC

Exclusively present in striated cells

cTnI and cTnT are cardiac forms

139
Q

What are ANP and BNP

A

Atrial natriuretic peptide and brain natriuretic peptide

Promote vasodilation and natriuresis

Raised in heart failure

140
Q

What may a large QRS complex mean?

A

Hypertension as the ventricles are thicker than normal

141
Q

What may a thick QRS complex mean?

A

May indicate a problem with conduction through the bundle if His

142
Q

What are pathological causes of sinus bradycardia

A

Hypothyroidism, hypothermia, sinus node disease, raised intercranial pressure as brainstorm gets pushed down through the foramen magnum - leads to headache and vagus nerve activation - very slow heart rate

143
Q

What are some causes of AV nodal block

A
Sino-atrial disease
Coronary heart disease
Aortic valve disease
Damage during heart surgery
Beta blockers
Digoxin
Calcium channel blockers

Treatment - remove triggering cause, atropine or isoprenaline (acute treatment)
Permanent treatment - pacemaker

144
Q

Causes of atrial flutter/fibrillation

A
Sino-atrial disease
Coronary heart disease
Valve disease
Hypertension
Cardiomyopathy
Hyperthyroidism
Pneumonia
145
Q

What is preload increased

A

SNS activation
Heart failure
Renal failure

Determined by blood volume and venous tone (capacity of venous circulation to hold blood)

146
Q

What is afterload increased by

A

SNS activation
Hypertension

Determined by tone in arterial circulation

147
Q

What does vascular endothelium regulate?

A

Blood vessel tone
Permeability
Leukocyte adhesion, platelet aggregation and tendency for thrombus formation

148
Q

What is endothelial dysfunction caused by

A

High LDL
Oxygen free radicals caused by smoking, hypertension activation inflammatory cells
Infectious microorganisms
Physical damage and gene activation by turbulent flow HIGH BP
Diabetes
Ageing
Being male (women protected by oestrogen until menopause)

149
Q

What do statins do

A
Lower LDL by increasing expression of LDL receptors
Improve endothelial function
Inhibit inflammation
Stabilise plaques
Inhibit thrombus formation
150
Q

What do fibrates do

A

Activate PPAR alpha

Decreases VLDL and triglycerides and increase HDL

151
Q

What does ezetimibe do

A

Lowers cholesterol absorption from gut

152
Q

What is the treatment of angina

A

Increasing supply which is decreased by coronary artery disease and anaemia

Or

Reducing demand which is increased by exercise, tachycardia or hypertension

153
Q

How do you reduce demand on the heart

A
Acute - glyceryl trinitrate
Sublingual
Rapid acting
Chronic use leads to tolerance
Inhibits guanylate cyclase which reduces availability of Ca for contraction

Prophylactic- isosirbide dinitrate
Oral
Longer lasting
Dilates veins to reduce preload

Or

K atp channel opener such as nicorandil
Causes blood vessel dilatation by opening ATP sensitive K channels in smooth muscle cells

154
Q

What do beta blockers do

A

Block renal beta 1 adrenoreceptors - reduce blood volume by reducing renin release and activation of RAAS reduce preload and therefore O2 demand

Blocks cardiac beta 1 adrenoreceptors - reduced heart rate and therefore O2 demand

155
Q

What does ivabradine

A

Blocks funny current in sino atrial cells - reduces heart rate
Less side effects than beta blockers - used as alternative or adjunct

156
Q

What do calcium channel blockers do

A

Reduce force of contraction by preventing opening of voltage dependent Ca channels

157
Q

What is the difference between congenital and acquired haemophilia

A

Congenital

Haemarthroses
Muscle bleeds
Soft tissue bleeds

Acquired

Large haematomas
Gross haematuria
Retropharyngeal and retroperitoneal haematomas
Cerebral haemorrages 
Compartment syndromes
158
Q

What is tranexamic acid

A

An antifibrinolytic for the treatment of bleeding disorders

159
Q

Describe DIC

A

Acquired syndrome of intravascular activation of coagulation

Widespread deposition of fibrin

Tissue ischaemia and multiple organ failure
Consumption of platelets and coagulation factors can induce severe bleeding

Can be caused by;
Sepsis
Tumour
Trauma - fat embolism, burns, lightning strike
Pancreatitis
Obstetric - amniotic fluid embolism, pre-eclampsia, eclampsia
Kasabach Merritt syndrome 
Aortic aneurysm
Toxic
Transfusion of incompatible blood

Prolonged prothrombin time and APTT as well as low fibrinogen are markers if consumption of coagulation factors

160
Q

What do PCSK9 inhibitors do

A

What do you think?

PCSK9 destroys LDL receptors

161
Q

Describe direct oral anticoagulants

A

Treatment of DVT and PE
Prevention of cardioembolic events in atrial fibrillation
More predictable, less interactions, wider therapeutic window and simpler dosing than warfarin

162
Q

What is HF with reduced ejection fraction

A

Impaired contractility and emptying of ventricle - more common

163
Q

What is HF with preserved ejection fraction

A

Impaired relaxation and filling of ventricle

164
Q

What controls venous return

A

Muscle pumps, thoracic pump action during respiration, right heart action, functioning valves

165
Q

How much urine does the kidney produce

A

Filters 125ml/min and produces around 1ml of urine

166
Q

What are the consequences of cardiac arrhythmias?

A

Altered heart rate (usually too fast)
Reduced ventricular filling, cardiac ejection and efficiency

Lower blood pressure, heart failure, angina, death