Cardio Flashcards

1
Q

What are the features of prosthetic valve endocarditis?

A

SOB Fatigue Fever Weight loss Heart murmur Sepsis Clubbing Splinter haemorrhage Janeway lesions Osler nodes

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2
Q

What are the features of aortic regurg?

A

SOB Chest pain Dizziness Displaced apex Collapsing pulse Corrigan’s sign Early diastolic murmur

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3
Q

What is the management of hypertension in someone over 55 or black (second step)?

A

ACEI + Calcium channel blocker

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4
Q

What is used if PCI is unavailable?

A

Thrombolysis

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5
Q

What investigations are done in hypertension?

A

ABPM, ECG, Fasting lipids + glucose, urinalysis

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6
Q

Which artery is affected in an inferior MI?

A

RCA

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7
Q

What does this ECG show?

A

LBBB

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8
Q

What does this ECG show?

A

AF

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9
Q

What does this ECG show?

A

Inferior MI

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10
Q

How should resistant hypertension be managed if the potassium is > 4.5?

A

Higher dose thiazide diuretic

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11
Q

What are the features of acute pericarditis?

A

chest pain: may be pleuritic. Is often relieved by sitting forwards,

other symptoms include non-productive cough, dyspnoea and flu-like symptoms,

pericardial rub,

tachypnoea,

tachycardia

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12
Q

What should be offered in the management of an NSTEMI?

A

Fondaparinux

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13
Q

Which antihypertensive should be prescribed to all diabetics?

A

ACEIs

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14
Q

What is the management of fluid overload in HF?

A

Diuretics (frusemide)

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15
Q

What are endocrine causes of secondary hypertension?

A

Cushing’s, Conn’s, Phaeochromocytoma

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16
Q

What is the aetiology of infective endocarditis?

A

Bactaraemia (poor dental hygiene, IVDU) Rheumatic disease Congenital Valve disease

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17
Q

What is malignant hypertension?

A

Diastolic > 130

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18
Q

What area of the heart is affected if there is ST elevation in II, III & aVF?

A

Inferior

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19
Q

What is the management of native valve endocarditis?

A

Amox + gent

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20
Q

What are features of stable angina?

A

Symptoms not new, Pain relieved by rest/GTN

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21
Q

What is the criteria for a STEMI?

A

> 1mm ST elevation in 2 adjacent limb leads, >2mm ST elevation in at least 2 contiguous precordial leads, New onset left bundle branch block

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22
Q

What is the most common cause of death post MI?

A

VFib

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23
Q

What are the two types of angina?

A

Stable and unstable

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24
Q

What is the management of narrow QRS tachycardia with a regular rhythm?

A

Vagal manœuvres Adenosine 6mg IV

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25
Q

What is the management of hypertension in someone over 55 or black (third step)?

A

ACEI + Calcium channel blocker + diuretic (indapamide)

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26
Q

What are the features of unstable angina?

A

GTN becomes less effective

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27
Q

Which artery is affected in an anterolateral MI?

A

Circumflex

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28
Q

What is BNP used for?

A

Heart failure - indicates stretching of heart muscle

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29
Q

What does this ECG show?

A

Anterior MI

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30
Q

What is the management of bradycardia with adverse features/risk of asystole?

A

Atropine 500mcg IV up to 3mg

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31
Q

What is the management of VT in haemodynamically stable patients?

A

Amiodarone 300mg over 20-60 minutes

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32
Q

What are some complications of hypertension?

A

Cerebrovascular + CA disease, Retinopathy, Kidney disease

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33
Q

What is the management of hypertension in someone under 55 (first step)?

A

ACE inhibitor

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34
Q

What does this ECG show?

A

Atrial flutter

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35
Q

What is the organism in prosthetic valve endocarditis?

A

Staph epidermis

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36
Q

How is angina managed?

A

Manage underlying causes, GTN + 2ndary prevention (aspirin + statin), Atenolol or verapamil, Consider revascularisation

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37
Q

What does this ECG show?

A

Posterior MI

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38
Q

What is the management of prosthetic valve endocarditis?

A

Vancomycin + gent

39
Q

Which artery is affected in a posterior MI?

A

RCA

40
Q

What is stage 3 hypertension?

A

Anything over 180/110

41
Q

What is the first line management of HF?

A

ACEI + beta blocker (bisoprolol)

42
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of hypertension?

A

Asymptomatic, Sweating, Headaches, SOB, Palpitations

43
Q

What is stage 2 hypertension?

A

160/100 - 180/110

44
Q

What is Dressler’s syndrome?

A

Pericarditis following an MI

45
Q

What does this ECG show?

A

2:1 AV block

46
Q

What area of the heart is affected if there is ST elevation in I, aVL, V1 - V6?

A

Anterolateral

47
Q

What are the features of CHADVASC?

A

Congestive HF Hypertension Age > 75 = 2 Age 65-74 Diabetes Stroke/TIA/thrombo-embolism = 2 Vascular disease Female

48
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of angina?

A

Heavy/tight/gripping chest pain typically on exertion

49
Q

What is the aetiology of mitral regurg?

A

Rheumatic disease IHF Chordae rupture Endocarditis Myxomatous disease

50
Q

What are the ECG changes in pericarditis?

A

widespread ‘saddle-shaped’ ST elevation,

PR depression: most specific ECG marker for pericarditis

51
Q

How is heart failure investigated?

A

CXR, ECG, Echo

52
Q

What are renal causes of secondary hypertension?

A

Diabetic nephropathy, Glomerulonephritis

53
Q

What is the management of hypertension in someone under 55 (second step)?

A

ACEI + Calcium channel blocker

54
Q

What are the features of aortic stenosis?

A

SOB Dizziness Chest pain Slow-rising pulse Heaving apex Ejection systolic murmur that radiates to carotids

55
Q

When can PCI be done?

A

Within 90 minutes

56
Q

What is the buzzword for malignant hypertension?

A

Fibrinoid necrosis

57
Q

What are the clinical features of malignant hypertension?

A

Headaches, N&V, visual disturbance Papilloedema, encephalopathy

58
Q
A
59
Q

How should resistant hypertension be managed if the potassium is < 4.5?

A

Spironolactone

60
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of heart failure?

A

SOBOE, orthopnoea, pink frothy sputum, raised JVP, cardiomegaly, S3 S4, V hypertrophy

61
Q

What is the second line management of HF?

A

spironolactone, ARB, or hydrasalazine + nitrate

62
Q

What does this ECG show?

A

Complete heart block

63
Q

What area of the heart is affected if there is ST elevation in V1 - V4?

A

Anterior

64
Q

What ABPI indicates intermittent claudication?

A

0.4-0.85

65
Q

What does this ECG show?

A

VT

66
Q

What is the treatment for stage 1 hypertension?

A

Mainly lifestyle factors

67
Q

What area of the heart is affected if there is ST elevation in V1 - V4?

A

Anteroseptal

68
Q

How is acute left ventricular failure managed?

A

LMNOP Loop diuretic Morphine Nitrates Oxygen Postural - sit up

69
Q

What is the management of narrow QRS tachycardia with an irregular rhythm?

A

bisoprolol or diltiazem

70
Q

What does this ECG show?

A

Torsade de pointes

71
Q

What does this ECG show?

A

V Fibb

72
Q

What is the aetiology of aortic stenosis?

A

Congenital bicuspid valves Degeneration with age Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy Rheumatic disease

73
Q

What is the management of hypertension in someone over 55 or black (first step)?

A

Calcium channel blocker

74
Q

Which artery is affected in an anteroseptal MI?

A

LAD

75
Q

What is stage 1 hypertension?

A

140/90 - 160/100

76
Q

What area of the heart is affected if there is ST elevation in I, aVL, V5 - V6?

A

Lateral

77
Q

What are the features of mitral regurg?

A

SOB Fatigue Ankle oedema Displaced apex Pansystolic murmur that radiates to axilla

78
Q

How is angina investigated?

A

ECG: exclude ACS, may show LVH/BBB, Catheter/CT angiography

79
Q

How is endocarditis investigated?

A

3 x blood culture Serology CRP, FBC Echo

80
Q

Which murmurs are systolic?

A

Mitral regurg Aortic stenosis

81
Q

What is the management of hypertension in someone under 55 (third step)?

A

ACEI + Calcium channel blocker + diuretic (indapamide)

82
Q

What ABPI indicates intermittent claudication?

A

0.4 - 0.85

83
Q

How is intermittent claudication investigated?

A

ABPI, duplex USS, MR/CT/catheter angiography

84
Q

How is intermittent claudication managed?

A

Lifestyle advice, antiplatelets, surgery in severe cases

85
Q

What are the syptoms of acute limb ischaemia?

A

Pain, pallor, paraesthesis, paralysis, perishingly cold

86
Q

What is the management of acute limb ischaemia?

A

Warfarin (severe), heparin, surgery (angioplasty, bypass grafts)

87
Q

What is the investigation of choice in AAA?

A

CT

88
Q

What drug is given in SVTs?

A

Adenosine

89
Q

What drug is given in ventricular tachyarrhythmias (or both SV and V)?

A

Amiodarone

90
Q

What drug is given in bradycardia?

A

Atropine

91
Q

What is the management of a AAA less than 5.5cm and asymptomatic?

A

USS monitoring + optimise CV RFs

92
Q

What is the management of a AAA > 5.5cm or symptomatic?

A

EVAR

93
Q
A