Cardio Flashcards

1
Q

What is another name for the innominate (nameless) artery?
a. aorta
b. brachiocephalic
c. left subclavian
d. left common carotid

A

Brachiocephalic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following tunica is NOT part of the structure of an artery?
a. adventitia
b. media
c. intima
d. vaginalis

A

Vaginalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which is the largest artery in the body?
a. aorta
b. carotid
c. renal
d. subclavian

A

Aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which vessels are responsible for the exchange of oxygen and metabolic waste?
a. arteries
b. capillaries
c. venules
d. veins

A

Capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which part of the artery is responsible for vasoconstriction and vasodilation?
a. tunica adventitia
b. tunica intima
c. tunica media
d. vasa vasorum

A

tunica media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following is found only in veins?
a. tunica adventitia
b. tunica intima
c. tunica media
d. valves

A

Valves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which diagnostic study is considered the gold standard for evaluation of vascular disease?
a. angiography
b. CT scan
c. radiography
d. PET scan

A

Angiography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the serrations of DeBakey and Cooley vascular instruments considered to be?
a. atraumatic
b. traumatic
c. smooth
d. toothed

A

atraumatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How far beyond the atherosclerotic lesion should a balloon in angioplasty reach?
a. 1-2 mm
b. 3-5 mm
c. 1-2 cm
d. 3-5 cm

A

1-2 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where is the balloon dilator inserted percutaneously in coronary artery angioplasty?
a. radial artery
b. carotid artery
c. femoral artery
d. subclavian artery

A

femoral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Into which vessel is a double-lumen Groshong catheter routinely inserted?
a. right carotid artery
b. right femoral artery
c. right jugular vein
d right subclavian vein

A

right subclavian vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are urokinase and streptokinase used for in vascular pathology?
a. lysis of embolus
b. vasoconstriction
c. vasodilation
d. hemostasis

A

lysis of embolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the name of the frequently used balloon embolectomy catheter?
a. Robinson
b. Groshong
c. Fogarty
d. Foley

A

Fogarty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Transient cerebral ischemic (blood loss) episodes are treated surgically by:
a. angioplasty
b. atriovenous fistula and shunt
c. carotid endarterectomy
d. coronary artery bypass

A

carotid endarterectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Javid and Argyle are examples of which type of device used in select vascular procedures?
a. catheters
b. shunts
c. guidewires
d. peel-away sheaths

A

Shunts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The CORRECT sequence of steps for an arteriotomy for embolectomy or thrombectomy is:
a. # 15 blade, Metzenbaum scissors, Yankauer suction, insertion of Fogarty catheter.
b. # 10 blade, Metzenbaum scissors, insertion of Fogarty catheter
c. #11 blade, Potts-Smith scissors, small bore suction, insertion of Fogarty catheter
d. # 12 blade, 14 g angiocath insertion, removal of stylet, insertion of Fogarty catheter.

A

-#11 blade,
-Potts-Smith scissors,
-small bore suction,
-insertion of Fogarty catheter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following would be the suture technique and type used to anastomose a bifurcated graft limb to an artery?
a. interrupted 5-0 or 6-0 nonabsorbable suture
b. running 5-0 or 6-0 absorbable suture
c. interrupted 5-0 or 6-0 absorbable suture
d. running 5-0 or 6-0 nonabsorbable suture

A

running 5-0 or 6-0 nonabsorbable suture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A newly diagnosed patient in need of vascular access long-term hemodialysis would undergo which procedure?
a. embolectomy
b. endarterectomy
c. arteriovenous fistula and shunt
d. inferior vena cava filter placement

A

arteriovenous fistula and shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the name of the condition that involves plaque or clots escaping from the femoral or iliac veins?
a. deep vein thrombosis
b. carotid stenosis
c. atherosclerosis
d. claudication

A

deep vein thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If a DVT from deep veins of the legs enters the cardiopulmonary system, what life-threatening condition will likely occur?
a. aortic dissection
b. carotid stenosis
c. pulmonary embolus
d. myocardial infarction

A

pulmonary embolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Dermal atrophy, hemorrhage, ulceration, and cellulitis are complications of:
a. abdominal aortic aneurysm
b. carotid stenosis
c. pulmonary embolus
d. varicose veins

A

varicose veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the prep borders for a unilateral vein stripping procedure?
a. toes to groin circumferentially
b. ankle to knee circumferentially
c. knee to groin circumferentially
d. ankle to mid-thigh circumferentially

A

toes to groin circumferentially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the configuration of the saphenous vein when stripped from the leg?
a. cut into small sections and left in situ
b. only the intimal layer removed
c. valves only dissected and vein left in situ
d. vein avulsed and turned completely inside out

A

vein avulsed and turned completely inside out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Balloon angioplasty performed in the cardiac catheterization lab is used to treat:
a. atherosclerotic thickening
b. stenotic dissection
c. venous insufficiency
d. valvular regurgitation

A

atherosclerotic thickening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Peripheral vessel angioplasty stents may be made of all of the following EXCEPT: a. titanium b. fascia lata c. polypropylene d. stainless steel mesh
fascia lata
26
Use of an angioscope larger than the diameter of the vessel being scoped will most likely result in which of the following? a. aneurysm b. dissection c. vasodilation d. vasospasm
vasospasm
27
What is the main obstacle of performing angioscopy? a. light b. valves c. strictures d. clear visibility
clear visibility
28
What are vessel loops and umbilical tapes commonly used for in vascular cases? a. anastomosis b. ligation c. retraction d. suturing
Retraction
29
Which of the following are used on tips of hemostats to prevent breaking of fine gauge monofilament suture when tagged? a. suture boots b. hemoclips c. peel-away sheaths d. vessel loops
suture boots
30
What is the name of the condition that manifests by deep aching pain in the lower extremity during rest periods? a. capitation b. coarctation c. claudication d. contraction
Claudication
31
Which of the following is the BEST choice for distal bypass graft in the lower extremity? a. Dacron b. Gore-Tex c. PTFE d. saphenous vein
saphenous vein
32
Which vascular device is double-lumened for administration of chemotherapy, antibiotic therapy, and IV fluids? a. Argyle b. Fogarty c. Groshong d. Javid
Groshong
33
A #11 blade and forward angle or reverse angle Potts-Smith scissors are frequently used for: a. arteriotomy b. embolectomy c. skin incisions d. suture cutting
arteriotomy
34
The atheromatous core removed from the carotid artery during endarterectomy is more commonly known as: a. adventitia b. marrow c. plaque d. thrombus
plaque
35
Which arterial aneurysm is more likely to rupture due to lack of detection over time? a. femoral b. iliac c. popliteal d. radial
iliac
36
What are the operative mortality rates of patients with ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) and shock? a. 10% to 20% b. 20% to 40% c. 50% to 60% d. > 80%
> 80%
37
What are the operative mortality rates of patients with unruptured AAA scheduled for elective repair? a. 1% to 2% b. 2% to 3% c. 3% to 5% d. 5% to 10%
2% to 3%
38
Which diagnostic study provides the most detailed information for surgical planning in AAA repair? a. angiogram b. aortogram c. CT scan d. ultrasound
Aortogram
39
What is the specimen in an AAA procedure? a. blood clot b. vessel wall c. thrombus d. aneurysm sac
thrombus
40
What is done with the aneurysm sac in AAA repair? a. excised and discarded b. excised and sent as specimen c. inverted and tacked to back of graft d. anterior wall sutured over the proximal graft.
anterior wall sutured over the proximal graft
41
Which instrument has the appearance of a misshapen pancake spatula? a. Allison lung retractor b. Bailey rib contractor c. Davidson scapula retractor d. Lovelace lung grasping forceps
c. Davidson scapula retractor
42
How many ribs are considered "true" ribs with direct connection to the sternum with costal cartilage? a. three b. seven c. nine d. twelve
b. seven
43
For which of the following procedures would the rigid bronchoscope be preferred? a. visualization of the upper lobe bronchi b. removal of foreign body in children c. transbronchial lung biospy d. bronchial washings
b. removal of foreign body in children
44
Lung tissue has what kind of consistency? a. friable b. slimey c. calcified d. elastic
a. friable
45
Which nerve could be damaged during lung decortication resulting in paralysis or partial paralysis of the diaphragm? a. accessory b. hypoglossal c. phrenic d. vagus
c. phrenic
46
In which procedure would an incision NOT be required for insertion of the endoscope? a. bronchoscopy b. mediastinoscopy c. pectus excavatum via VATS d. video-assisted thoracic surgery
a. bronchoscopy
47
Which structure within the respiratory tract is the proximal and superior? a. bronchus b. diaphragm c. larynx d. trachea
c. larynx
48
Which of the following are the final branchings of the respiratory tree? a. alveoli b. bronchi c. bronchioles d. lobes of the lungs
a. alveoli
49
The manubrium, body, and xiphoid process are portions of the: a. ribs b. lungs c. sternum d. bronchial tree
c. sternum
50
All of the following structures are found within the mediastinum EXCEPT: a. heart b. thymus c. esophagus d. diaphragm
d. diaphragm
51
Which membrane covers the surface of the lungs? a. ciliated mucosa b. pericardium c. parietal pleura d. visceral pleura
d. visceral pleura
52
What is the medical term for coughing up blood a. asthma b. bronchitis c. hemoptysis d. pneumonitis
c. hemoptysis
53
How many lobes are there in the right lung? a. two b. three c. four d. five
b. three
54
In which part of the respiratory system does the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide take place? a. alveoli b. bronchi c. bronchioles d. pulmonary vein
a. alveoli
55
Which of the following regarding blood flow is correct? a. right atrium, pulmonary vein, lungs, pulmonary artery, left ventricle b. right ventricle, pulmonary vein, lungs, pulmonary artery, left atrium c. right atrium, pulmonary artery, lungs, pulmonary vein, left ventricle d. right ventricle, pulmonary artery, lungs, pulmonary vein, left atrium.
d. right ventricle, pulmonary artery, lungs, pulmonary vein, left atrium
56
What is the name of the device that is attached to suction for collection of mucous or bronchial washing specimens? a. aerobic culture tube b. insufflation tubing c. myringotomy tube d. Lukens tube
d. Lukens tube
57
What is the medical term for visibile changes in the density on chest x-ray that indicates pulmonary pathology? a. hemoptysis b. hilum c. infiltrate d. inspiration
c. infiltrate
58
Thymomas, neurogenic tumors, and pleuropericardial cysts can be biopsied during which procedure? a. bronchoscopy b. laryngoscopy c. mediastinoscopy d. thoracoscopy
c. mediastinoscopy
59
Where is the insertion point for the mediastinoscope? a. suprasternal notch b. oropharynx c. subxiphoid d. umblicus
a. suprasternal notch
60
What is the name of the air-filled sac that has the appearance of a blister on the surface of lung tissue? a. alveolar sac b. bleb c. bronchiole d. germ cell
b. bleb
61
In the event that a VATS procedure had to be converted to an open procedure, which open case would be performed? a. coronary artery bypass b. laparoscopy c. thoracotomy d. tracheotomy
c. thoracotomy
62
Which of the following will be required upon completion of any procedure in which the pleural cavity has been opened? a. passive wound drain such as a Penrose b. chest tube attached to a Pleur-evac system c. active wound drain such as a Jackson-Pratt d. compression dressing with Ace or tensor bandages
b. chest tube attached to a Pleur-evac system
63
Which additional pain control measure is taken for patients undergoing pectus excavatum repair by VATS? a. Bier block b. epidural c. local with epinephrine d. topical Lidocaine jelly
b. epidural
64
What is the name of the procedure performed to release constriction of the lungs by fibrin layers? a. pectus excavatum b. upper lobectomy c. pneumonectomy d. lung decortication
d. lung decortication
65
The name of the condition created when pus is not cleared from the pleural cavity and makes a fibrous constrictive layer is: a. COPD b. pleurisy c. empyema d. pneumonia
c. empyema
66
Prior to the closure of a lobectomy procedure, the anesthesia provider performs a Valsalva maneuver to check for: a. air leakage from bronchial closure b. bleeding from dissection bed c. functionality of the diaphragm d. perfusion of the unaffected lobes
a. air leakage from bronchial closure
67
What is the term for collapsed lung? a. atelectasis b. decortication c. emphysema d. pneumonitis
a. atelectasis
68
Which type of incision is made for a pneumonectomy? a. Chevron b. McBurney c. epigastric d. posterolateral
d. posterolateral
69
Which of the following is a crushing clamp with sharp spikes in the jaws used on the bronchus? a. Bailey b. Doyen c. Mixter d. Sarot
d. Sarot
70
Which instrument is a rib shear? a. Alexander b. Bethune c. Davidson d. Satinsky
b. Bethune
71
What is a commonly used rib self-retaining retractor available in adult and pediatric sizes? a. Balfour b. Bookwalter c. Finochietto d. Greenburg
c. Finochietto
72
Which instrument is a lung-grasping forceps that resembles a very large Pennington? a. Doyen b. Duckbill c. Lovelace d. Langenbeck
c. Lovelace
73
Which of the following thoracic procedures would require the patient to be put on cardiopulmonary bypass? a. pneumonectomy b. upper lobectomy c. decortication of the lung d. pulmonary thromboendarterectomy
d. pulmonary thromboendarterectomy
74
Following lung transplantation, the surgeon will perform which procedure to aspirate secretions and check for leaks? a. bronchoscopy b. laryngoscopy c. mediastinoscopy d. video-assisted thoracoscopy
a. bronchoscopy
75
The main bronchi, pulmonary arteries, veins, and lymphatic vessels enter the lung on the medial surface through the: a. hilum b. trachea c. diaphragm d. mediastinum
a. hilum
76
How many pulmonary veins are there? a. one b. two c. three d. four
d. four
77
Which diagnostic study is MOST useful for verification of thoracic aortic dissection? a. AP chest x-ray b. CT scan c. MRI scan d. stress test
b. CT scan
78
Which statement regarding the anatomical placement of the heart is CORRECT? a. It is positioned exactly midline in the thoracic cavity. b. It is positioned in the thoracic cavity with nearly its entirety on the left side. c. It is positioned in the mediastinum with approximately 2/3 of the heart on the left side. d. It is positioned in the mediastinum with approximately 2/3 of the heart on the right side.
c. It is positioned in the mediastinum with approximately 2/3 of the heart on the left side.
79
Which structure is considered the "pacemaker" of the heart? a. AV node b. SA node c. bundle of His d. Purkinje fibers
b. SA node
80
Which portion of the heart is responsible for pumping blood into the ascending aorta? a. left atrium b. right atrium c. left ventricle d. right ventricle
c. left ventricle
81
Which chamber of the heart is responsible for pumping blood into the pulmonary artery? a. left atrium b. right atrium c. left ventricle d. right ventricle
d. right ventricle
82
The coronary arteries originate from the: a. ascending aorta b. descending aorta c. pulmonary artery d. subclavian artery
a. ascending aorta
83
What is the name of the area between the visceral and parietal pleura that contains serous fluid to prevent friction? a. hilum b. mediastinum c. pleural space d. pericardial window
c. pleural space
84
What is the thickest part of the heart? a. epicardium b. endocardium c. myocardium d. pericardium
c. myocardium
85
Where is the apex of the heart located within the mediastinum? a. superiorly on the right side b. inferiorly on the right side c. superiorly on the left side d. inferiorly on the left side
d. inferiorly on the left side
86
Which one of the following is NOT one of the cardiac valves? a. aortic b. mitral c. septal d. tricuspid
c. septal
87
Which heart valve is also known as the bicuspid valve? a. aortic b. mitral c. pulmonary d. tricuspid
b. mitral
88
The apex of the lung is located: a. inferiorly and laterally b. medially where the bronchus enters c. medially just above the diaphragm d. superiorly and just above the clavicle
d. superiorly and just above the clavicle
89
All of the following are components of the "heart-lung" machine EXCEPT: a. pump b. oxygenator c. defibrillator d. heat exchanger
c. defibrillator
90
Where are the cannulae MOST commonly placed for cardiopulmonary bypass procedures? a. carotid artery and subclavian vein b. right atrium and ascending aorta c. right ventricle and descending aorta d. femoral artery and brachiocephalic vein
b. right atrium and ascending aorta
91
Which of the following is a commonly used method of preserving the heart by reducing its metabolic needs? a. hypothermia b. lung deflation c. left ventricular venting d. warming with heat exchanger
a. hypothermia
92
Which suturing technique maintains the aortic and venous cannulae? a. figure of eight b. purse-string c. horizontal mattress d. vertical mattress
b. purse-string
93
The force and rate of contraction of the heart is controlled by which part of the central nervous system (CNS)? a. phernic nerve b. vagus c. Purkinje system d. medulla oblongata
d. medulla oblongata
94
What is the first step in the formation of an atheroma? a. accumulation of cholesterol and lipids b. collagen deposition and scar tissue formation c. growth of new smooth muscle tissue d. injury to endothelial lining
d. injury to endothelial lining
95
Which of the following is the main underlying pathogenic cause of coronary atherosclerosis and clinical manifestations? a. age b. diet c. ischemia d. hypertension
c. ischemia
96
Which artery accounts for approximately 50% of occlusive coronary lesions? a. circumflex branch b. left anterior descending c. mammary d. right coronary
b. left anterior descending
97
What is the name of the acute condition in which heart muscle dies from ischemia and may lead to sudden cardiac death? a. heart block b. atherosclerosis c. cardiac tamponade d.myocardial infarction
d. myocardial infarction
98
Where is a Swan-Ganz catheter placed? a. ascending aorta b. coronary artery c. pulmonary artery d. vena cava
c. pulmonary artery
99
Which suture is frequently used for anastomosis of the saphenous vein or internal mammary artery in CABG? a. 6-0 or 7-0 polypropylene b. 2-0 or 3-0 polyester c. 6-0 or 7-0 polyglactin d. 2-0 or 3-0 poliglecaprone
a. 6-0 or 7-0 polypropylene
100
Which instrument is used to make a small opening into the ascending aorta after the Satinsky partial occlusion clamp is placed? a. aortic punch b. Potts-Smith scissors c. #11 blade d. 5 mm trocar
a. aortic punch
101
With what is the median sternotomy closed? a. fine gauge polypropylene b. fine gauge surgical silk c. heavy gauge stainless steel wire d. heavy gauge chromic gut
c. heavy gauge stainless steel wire
102
Medtronic OCTOPUS and Guidant Ultima OPCAB are what type of devices for coronary artery bypass done off-pump? a. retractors b. stabilizers c. cannulae d. grafts
b. stabilizers
103
What is the name of the device used for patients who are unable to be weaned off of cardiopulmonary bypass? a. intra-aortic balloon pump b. left ventricular vent c. cardiac pacemaker d. vena cava filter
a. intra-aortic balloon pump
104
Which device is used for patients awaiting heart transplant that allows them to be ambulatory and has both internal and external components to the system? a. ventricular assist device b. left ventricular vent c. cardiac pacemaker d. vena cava filter
a. ventricular assist device
105
What is the general term for incurable diseases of the heart for which the only treatment would be heart transplantation? a. atherosclerosis b. arrhythmias c. cardioplegia d. cardiomyopathies
d. cardiomyopathies
106
Aortic valve stenosis and aortic regurgitation are often as a result of: a. rheumatic fever b. tuberculosis c. heart block d. angina
a. rheumatic fever
107
Which diagnostic method provides the MOST extensive details regarding valvular disorders? a. cardiac catheterization b. CT scanning c. electromyogrphy d. MRI scanning
a. cardiac catheterization
108
A heart murmur is often heard with auscultation and indicative of involvement of which structure? a. aortic valve b. mitral valve c. right ventricle d. left ventrile
b. mitral valve
109
What is the average lifespan of biologic and mechanical heart valve replacements? a. 1 to 5 years b. 5 to 10 years c. 10 to 15 years d. indefinite
c. 10 to 15 years
110
What is the term for a localized stricture of the aorta found in a pediatric patient? a. coarctation b. stenosis c. prolapsed d. arteriosis
a. coarctation
111
Which singular congenital defect involves failure of closure of the connection between the pulmonary artery and aorta? a. atrial septal defect b. ventricular septal defect c. patent ductus arteriosus d. tetralogy of Fallot
c. patent ductus arteriosis
112
What is frequently used to repair atrial and ventricular septal defects in pediatric patients? a. Dacron patch b. porcine valve c. fascia lata d. fibrin glue
a. Dacron patch
113
Which congenital defect has four components and is characterized by cyanosis causing appearance of "blue babies"? a. coarcation of aorta b. patent ductus arteriosus c. ventricular septal defect d. tetralogy of Fallot
d. tetralogy of Fallot
114
Which surgical approach is used for repair of coarctation of the aorta and patent ductus arteriosus? a. supine b. prone c. frog-legged d. posterolateral
d. posterolateral
115
Commissurotomy is a surgical separation of the flaps of the: a. mitral valve b. left ventricle c. pulmonary valve d. right atrium
a. mitral valve
116
The saphenous vein used for coronary artery grafting must be reversed before anastomosis due to the presence of valves in the vein. True or False
True
117
Video-assisted thoracic surgery procedures use carbon dioxide for distention. True or False
Flase
118
The ventricles of the heart have thicker myocardium than the atria. True or False
True
119
The drainage and collection device attached to chest tubes relies on a water seal to reestablish negative pressure in the pleural cavity. True or False
True
120
Lung reduction surgery is performed for patients with emphysema. True or False
True