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Anatomy > Cardio > Flashcards

Cardio Flashcards

1
Q

What is another name for the innominate (nameless) artery?
a. aorta
b. brachiocephalic
c. left subclavian
d. left common carotid

A

Brachiocephalic

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2
Q

Which of the following tunica is NOT part of the structure of an artery?
a. adventitia
b. media
c. intima
d. vaginalis

A

Vaginalis

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3
Q

Which is the largest artery in the body?
a. aorta
b. carotid
c. renal
d. subclavian

A

Aorta

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4
Q

Which vessels are responsible for the exchange of oxygen and metabolic waste?
a. arteries
b. capillaries
c. venules
d. veins

A

Capillaries

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5
Q

Which part of the artery is responsible for vasoconstriction and vasodilation?
a. tunica adventitia
b. tunica intima
c. tunica media
d. vasa vasorum

A

tunica media

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6
Q

Which of the following is found only in veins?
a. tunica adventitia
b. tunica intima
c. tunica media
d. valves

A

Valves

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7
Q

Which diagnostic study is considered the gold standard for evaluation of vascular disease?
a. angiography
b. CT scan
c. radiography
d. PET scan

A

Angiography

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8
Q

What are the serrations of DeBakey and Cooley vascular instruments considered to be?
a. atraumatic
b. traumatic
c. smooth
d. toothed

A

atraumatic

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9
Q

How far beyond the atherosclerotic lesion should a balloon in angioplasty reach?
a. 1-2 mm
b. 3-5 mm
c. 1-2 cm
d. 3-5 cm

A

1-2 cm

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10
Q

Where is the balloon dilator inserted percutaneously in coronary artery angioplasty?
a. radial artery
b. carotid artery
c. femoral artery
d. subclavian artery

A

femoral artery

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11
Q

Into which vessel is a double-lumen Groshong catheter routinely inserted?
a. right carotid artery
b. right femoral artery
c. right jugular vein
d right subclavian vein

A

right subclavian vein

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12
Q

What are urokinase and streptokinase used for in vascular pathology?
a. lysis of embolus
b. vasoconstriction
c. vasodilation
d. hemostasis

A

lysis of embolus

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13
Q

What is the name of the frequently used balloon embolectomy catheter?
a. Robinson
b. Groshong
c. Fogarty
d. Foley

A

Fogarty

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14
Q

Transient cerebral ischemic (blood loss) episodes are treated surgically by:
a. angioplasty
b. atriovenous fistula and shunt
c. carotid endarterectomy
d. coronary artery bypass

A

carotid endarterectomy

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15
Q

Javid and Argyle are examples of which type of device used in select vascular procedures?
a. catheters
b. shunts
c. guidewires
d. peel-away sheaths

A

Shunts

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16
Q

The CORRECT sequence of steps for an arteriotomy for embolectomy or thrombectomy is:
a. # 15 blade, Metzenbaum scissors, Yankauer suction, insertion of Fogarty catheter.
b. # 10 blade, Metzenbaum scissors, insertion of Fogarty catheter
c. #11 blade, Potts-Smith scissors, small bore suction, insertion of Fogarty catheter
d. # 12 blade, 14 g angiocath insertion, removal of stylet, insertion of Fogarty catheter.

A

-#11 blade,
-Potts-Smith scissors,
-small bore suction,
-insertion of Fogarty catheter

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17
Q

Which of the following would be the suture technique and type used to anastomose a bifurcated graft limb to an artery?
a. interrupted 5-0 or 6-0 nonabsorbable suture
b. running 5-0 or 6-0 absorbable suture
c. interrupted 5-0 or 6-0 absorbable suture
d. running 5-0 or 6-0 nonabsorbable suture

A

running 5-0 or 6-0 nonabsorbable suture

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18
Q

A newly diagnosed patient in need of vascular access long-term hemodialysis would undergo which procedure?
a. embolectomy
b. endarterectomy
c. arteriovenous fistula and shunt
d. inferior vena cava filter placement

A

arteriovenous fistula and shunt

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19
Q

What is the name of the condition that involves plaque or clots escaping from the femoral or iliac veins?
a. deep vein thrombosis
b. carotid stenosis
c. atherosclerosis
d. claudication

A

deep vein thrombosis

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20
Q

If a DVT from deep veins of the legs enters the cardiopulmonary system, what life-threatening condition will likely occur?
a. aortic dissection
b. carotid stenosis
c. pulmonary embolus
d. myocardial infarction

A

pulmonary embolus

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21
Q

Dermal atrophy, hemorrhage, ulceration, and cellulitis are complications of:
a. abdominal aortic aneurysm
b. carotid stenosis
c. pulmonary embolus
d. varicose veins

A

varicose veins

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22
Q

What are the prep borders for a unilateral vein stripping procedure?
a. toes to groin circumferentially
b. ankle to knee circumferentially
c. knee to groin circumferentially
d. ankle to mid-thigh circumferentially

A

toes to groin circumferentially

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23
Q

What is the configuration of the saphenous vein when stripped from the leg?
a. cut into small sections and left in situ
b. only the intimal layer removed
c. valves only dissected and vein left in situ
d. vein avulsed and turned completely inside out

A

vein avulsed and turned completely inside out

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24
Q

Balloon angioplasty performed in the cardiac catheterization lab is used to treat:
a. atherosclerotic thickening
b. stenotic dissection
c. venous insufficiency
d. valvular regurgitation

A

atherosclerotic thickening

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25
Q

Peripheral vessel angioplasty stents may be made of all of the following EXCEPT:
a. titanium
b. fascia lata
c. polypropylene
d. stainless steel mesh

A

fascia lata

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26
Q

Use of an angioscope larger than the diameter of the vessel being scoped will most likely result in which of the following?
a. aneurysm
b. dissection
c. vasodilation
d. vasospasm

A

vasospasm

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27
Q

What is the main obstacle of performing angioscopy?
a. light
b. valves
c. strictures
d. clear visibility

A

clear visibility

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28
Q

What are vessel loops and umbilical tapes commonly used for in vascular cases?
a. anastomosis
b. ligation
c. retraction
d. suturing

A

Retraction

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29
Q

Which of the following are used on tips of hemostats to prevent breaking of fine gauge monofilament suture when tagged?
a. suture boots
b. hemoclips
c. peel-away sheaths
d. vessel loops

A

suture boots

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30
Q

What is the name of the condition that manifests by deep aching pain in the lower extremity during rest periods?
a. capitation
b. coarctation
c. claudication
d. contraction

A

Claudication

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31
Q

Which of the following is the BEST choice for distal bypass graft in the lower extremity?
a. Dacron
b. Gore-Tex
c. PTFE
d. saphenous vein

A

saphenous vein

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32
Q

Which vascular device is double-lumened for administration of chemotherapy, antibiotic therapy, and IV fluids?
a. Argyle
b. Fogarty
c. Groshong
d. Javid

A

Groshong

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33
Q

A #11 blade and forward angle or reverse angle Potts-Smith scissors are frequently used for:
a. arteriotomy
b. embolectomy
c. skin incisions
d. suture cutting

A

arteriotomy

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34
Q

The atheromatous core removed from the carotid artery during endarterectomy is more commonly known as:
a. adventitia
b. marrow
c. plaque
d. thrombus

A

plaque

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35
Q

Which arterial aneurysm is more likely to rupture due to lack of detection over time?
a. femoral
b. iliac
c. popliteal
d. radial

A

iliac

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36
Q

What are the operative mortality rates of patients with ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) and shock?
a. 10% to 20%
b. 20% to 40%
c. 50% to 60%
d. > 80%

A

> 80%

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37
Q

What are the operative mortality rates of patients with unruptured AAA scheduled for elective repair?
a. 1% to 2%
b. 2% to 3%
c. 3% to 5%
d. 5% to 10%

A

2% to 3%

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38
Q

Which diagnostic study provides the most detailed information for surgical planning in AAA repair?
a. angiogram
b. aortogram
c. CT scan
d. ultrasound

A

Aortogram

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39
Q

What is the specimen in an AAA procedure?
a. blood clot
b. vessel wall
c. thrombus
d. aneurysm sac

A

thrombus

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40
Q

What is done with the aneurysm sac in AAA repair?
a. excised and discarded
b. excised and sent as specimen
c. inverted and tacked to back of graft
d. anterior wall sutured over the proximal graft.

A

anterior wall sutured over the proximal graft

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41
Q

Which instrument has the appearance of a misshapen pancake spatula?
a. Allison lung retractor
b. Bailey rib contractor
c. Davidson scapula retractor
d. Lovelace lung grasping forceps

A

c. Davidson scapula retractor

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42
Q

How many ribs are considered “true” ribs with direct connection to the sternum with costal cartilage?
a. three
b. seven
c. nine
d. twelve

A

b. seven

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43
Q

For which of the following procedures would the rigid bronchoscope be preferred?
a. visualization of the upper lobe bronchi
b. removal of foreign body in children
c. transbronchial lung biospy
d. bronchial washings

A

b. removal of foreign body in children

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44
Q

Lung tissue has what kind of consistency?
a. friable
b. slimey
c. calcified
d. elastic

A

a. friable

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45
Q

Which nerve could be damaged during lung decortication resulting in paralysis or partial paralysis of the diaphragm?
a. accessory
b. hypoglossal
c. phrenic
d. vagus

A

c. phrenic

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46
Q

In which procedure would an incision NOT be required for insertion of the endoscope?
a. bronchoscopy
b. mediastinoscopy
c. pectus excavatum via VATS
d. video-assisted thoracic surgery

A

a. bronchoscopy

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47
Q

Which structure within the respiratory tract is the proximal and superior?
a. bronchus
b. diaphragm
c. larynx
d. trachea

A

c. larynx

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48
Q

Which of the following are the final branchings of the respiratory tree?
a. alveoli
b. bronchi
c. bronchioles
d. lobes of the lungs

A

a. alveoli

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49
Q

The manubrium, body, and xiphoid process are portions of the:
a. ribs
b. lungs
c. sternum
d. bronchial tree

A

c. sternum

50
Q

All of the following structures are found within the mediastinum EXCEPT:
a. heart
b. thymus
c. esophagus
d. diaphragm

A

d. diaphragm

51
Q

Which membrane covers the surface of the lungs?
a. ciliated mucosa
b. pericardium
c. parietal pleura
d. visceral pleura

A

d. visceral pleura

52
Q

What is the medical term for coughing up blood
a. asthma
b. bronchitis
c. hemoptysis
d. pneumonitis

A

c. hemoptysis

53
Q

How many lobes are there in the right lung?
a. two
b. three
c. four
d. five

A

b. three

54
Q

In which part of the respiratory system does the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide take place?
a. alveoli
b. bronchi
c. bronchioles
d. pulmonary vein

A

a. alveoli

55
Q

Which of the following regarding blood flow is correct?
a. right atrium, pulmonary vein, lungs, pulmonary artery, left ventricle
b. right ventricle, pulmonary vein, lungs, pulmonary artery, left atrium
c. right atrium, pulmonary artery, lungs, pulmonary vein, left ventricle
d. right ventricle, pulmonary artery, lungs, pulmonary vein, left atrium.

A

d. right ventricle, pulmonary artery, lungs, pulmonary vein, left atrium

56
Q

What is the name of the device that is attached to suction for collection of mucous or bronchial washing specimens?
a. aerobic culture tube
b. insufflation tubing
c. myringotomy tube
d. Lukens tube

A

d. Lukens tube

57
Q

What is the medical term for visibile changes in the density on chest x-ray that indicates pulmonary pathology?
a. hemoptysis
b. hilum
c. infiltrate
d. inspiration

A

c. infiltrate

58
Q

Thymomas, neurogenic tumors, and pleuropericardial cysts can be biopsied during which procedure?
a. bronchoscopy
b. laryngoscopy
c. mediastinoscopy
d. thoracoscopy

A

c. mediastinoscopy

59
Q

Where is the insertion point for the mediastinoscope?
a. suprasternal notch
b. oropharynx
c. subxiphoid
d. umblicus

A

a. suprasternal notch

60
Q

What is the name of the air-filled sac that has the appearance of a blister on the surface of lung tissue?
a. alveolar sac
b. bleb
c. bronchiole
d. germ cell

A

b. bleb

61
Q

In the event that a VATS procedure had to be converted to an open procedure, which open case would be performed?
a. coronary artery bypass
b. laparoscopy
c. thoracotomy
d. tracheotomy

A

c. thoracotomy

62
Q

Which of the following will be required upon completion of any procedure in which the pleural cavity has been opened?
a. passive wound drain such as a Penrose
b. chest tube attached to a Pleur-evac system
c. active wound drain such as a Jackson-Pratt
d. compression dressing with Ace or tensor bandages

A

b. chest tube attached to a Pleur-evac system

63
Q

Which additional pain control measure is taken for patients undergoing pectus excavatum repair by VATS?
a. Bier block
b. epidural
c. local with epinephrine
d. topical Lidocaine jelly

A

b. epidural

64
Q

What is the name of the procedure performed to release constriction of the lungs by fibrin layers?
a. pectus excavatum
b. upper lobectomy
c. pneumonectomy
d. lung decortication

A

d. lung decortication

65
Q

The name of the condition created when pus is not cleared from the pleural cavity and makes a fibrous constrictive layer is:
a. COPD
b. pleurisy
c. empyema
d. pneumonia

A

c. empyema

66
Q

Prior to the closure of a lobectomy procedure, the anesthesia provider performs a Valsalva maneuver to check for:
a. air leakage from bronchial closure
b. bleeding from dissection bed
c. functionality of the diaphragm
d. perfusion of the unaffected lobes

A

a. air leakage from bronchial closure

67
Q

What is the term for collapsed lung?
a. atelectasis
b. decortication
c. emphysema
d. pneumonitis

A

a. atelectasis

68
Q

Which type of incision is made for a pneumonectomy?
a. Chevron
b. McBurney
c. epigastric
d. posterolateral

A

d. posterolateral

69
Q

Which of the following is a crushing clamp with sharp spikes in the jaws used on the bronchus?
a. Bailey
b. Doyen
c. Mixter
d. Sarot

A

d. Sarot

70
Q

Which instrument is a rib shear?
a. Alexander
b. Bethune
c. Davidson
d. Satinsky

A

b. Bethune

71
Q

What is a commonly used rib self-retaining retractor available in adult and pediatric sizes?
a. Balfour
b. Bookwalter
c. Finochietto
d. Greenburg

A

c. Finochietto

72
Q

Which instrument is a lung-grasping forceps that resembles a very large Pennington?
a. Doyen
b. Duckbill
c. Lovelace
d. Langenbeck

A

c. Lovelace

73
Q

Which of the following thoracic procedures would require the patient to be put on cardiopulmonary bypass?
a. pneumonectomy
b. upper lobectomy
c. decortication of the lung
d. pulmonary thromboendarterectomy

A

d. pulmonary thromboendarterectomy

74
Q

Following lung transplantation, the surgeon will perform which procedure to aspirate secretions and check for leaks?
a. bronchoscopy
b. laryngoscopy
c. mediastinoscopy
d. video-assisted thoracoscopy

A

a. bronchoscopy

75
Q

The main bronchi, pulmonary arteries, veins, and lymphatic vessels enter the lung on the medial surface through the:
a. hilum
b. trachea
c. diaphragm
d. mediastinum

A

a. hilum

76
Q

How many pulmonary veins are there?
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four

A

d. four

77
Q

Which diagnostic study is MOST useful for verification of thoracic aortic dissection?
a. AP chest x-ray
b. CT scan
c. MRI scan
d. stress test

A

b. CT scan

78
Q

Which statement regarding the anatomical placement of the heart is CORRECT?
a. It is positioned exactly midline in the thoracic cavity.
b. It is positioned in the thoracic cavity with nearly its entirety on the left side.
c. It is positioned in the mediastinum with approximately 2/3 of the heart on the left side.
d. It is positioned in the mediastinum with approximately 2/3 of the heart on the right side.

A

c. It is positioned in the mediastinum with approximately 2/3 of the heart on the left side.

79
Q

Which structure is considered the “pacemaker” of the heart?
a. AV node
b. SA node
c. bundle of His
d. Purkinje fibers

A

b. SA node

80
Q

Which portion of the heart is responsible for pumping blood into the ascending aorta?
a. left atrium
b. right atrium
c. left ventricle
d. right ventricle

A

c. left ventricle

81
Q

Which chamber of the heart is responsible for pumping blood into the pulmonary artery?
a. left atrium
b. right atrium
c. left ventricle
d. right ventricle

A

d. right ventricle

82
Q

The coronary arteries originate from the:
a. ascending aorta
b. descending aorta
c. pulmonary artery
d. subclavian artery

A

a. ascending aorta

83
Q

What is the name of the area between the visceral and parietal pleura that contains serous fluid to prevent friction?
a. hilum
b. mediastinum
c. pleural space
d. pericardial window

A

c. pleural space

84
Q

What is the thickest part of the heart?
a. epicardium
b. endocardium
c. myocardium
d. pericardium

A

c. myocardium

85
Q

Where is the apex of the heart located within the mediastinum?
a. superiorly on the right side
b. inferiorly on the right side
c. superiorly on the left side
d. inferiorly on the left side

A

d. inferiorly on the left side

86
Q

Which one of the following is NOT one of the cardiac valves?
a. aortic
b. mitral
c. septal
d. tricuspid

A

c. septal

87
Q

Which heart valve is also known as the bicuspid valve?
a. aortic
b. mitral
c. pulmonary
d. tricuspid

A

b. mitral

88
Q

The apex of the lung is located:
a. inferiorly and laterally
b. medially where the bronchus enters
c. medially just above the diaphragm
d. superiorly and just above the clavicle

A

d. superiorly and just above the clavicle

89
Q

All of the following are components of the “heart-lung” machine EXCEPT:
a. pump
b. oxygenator
c. defibrillator
d. heat exchanger

A

c. defibrillator

90
Q

Where are the cannulae MOST commonly placed for cardiopulmonary bypass procedures?
a. carotid artery and subclavian vein
b. right atrium and ascending aorta
c. right ventricle and descending aorta
d. femoral artery and brachiocephalic vein

A

b. right atrium and ascending aorta

91
Q

Which of the following is a commonly used method of preserving the heart by reducing its metabolic needs?
a. hypothermia
b. lung deflation
c. left ventricular venting
d. warming with heat exchanger

A

a. hypothermia

92
Q

Which suturing technique maintains the aortic and venous cannulae?
a. figure of eight
b. purse-string
c. horizontal mattress
d. vertical mattress

A

b. purse-string

93
Q

The force and rate of contraction of the heart is controlled by which part of the central nervous system (CNS)?
a. phernic nerve
b. vagus
c. Purkinje system
d. medulla oblongata

A

d. medulla oblongata

94
Q

What is the first step in the formation of an atheroma?
a. accumulation of cholesterol and lipids
b. collagen deposition and scar tissue formation
c. growth of new smooth muscle tissue
d. injury to endothelial lining

A

d. injury to endothelial lining

95
Q

Which of the following is the main underlying pathogenic cause of coronary atherosclerosis and clinical manifestations?
a. age
b. diet
c. ischemia
d. hypertension

A

c. ischemia

96
Q

Which artery accounts for approximately 50% of occlusive coronary lesions?
a. circumflex branch
b. left anterior descending
c. mammary
d. right coronary

A

b. left anterior descending

97
Q

What is the name of the acute condition in which heart muscle dies from ischemia and may lead to sudden cardiac death?
a. heart block
b. atherosclerosis
c. cardiac tamponade
d.myocardial infarction

A

d. myocardial infarction

98
Q

Where is a Swan-Ganz catheter placed?
a. ascending aorta
b. coronary artery
c. pulmonary artery
d. vena cava

A

c. pulmonary artery

99
Q

Which suture is frequently used for anastomosis of the saphenous vein or internal mammary artery in CABG?
a. 6-0 or 7-0 polypropylene
b. 2-0 or 3-0 polyester
c. 6-0 or 7-0 polyglactin
d. 2-0 or 3-0 poliglecaprone

A

a. 6-0 or 7-0 polypropylene

100
Q

Which instrument is used to make a small opening into the ascending aorta after the Satinsky partial occlusion clamp is placed?
a. aortic punch
b. Potts-Smith scissors
c. #11 blade
d. 5 mm trocar

A

a. aortic punch

101
Q

With what is the median sternotomy closed?
a. fine gauge polypropylene
b. fine gauge surgical silk
c. heavy gauge stainless steel wire
d. heavy gauge chromic gut

A

c. heavy gauge stainless steel wire

102
Q

Medtronic OCTOPUS and Guidant Ultima OPCAB are what type of devices for coronary artery bypass done off-pump?
a. retractors
b. stabilizers
c. cannulae
d. grafts

A

b. stabilizers

103
Q

What is the name of the device used for patients who are unable to be weaned off of cardiopulmonary bypass?
a. intra-aortic balloon pump
b. left ventricular vent
c. cardiac pacemaker
d. vena cava filter

A

a. intra-aortic balloon pump

104
Q

Which device is used for patients awaiting heart transplant that allows them to be ambulatory and has both internal and external components to the system?
a. ventricular assist device
b. left ventricular vent
c. cardiac pacemaker
d. vena cava filter

A

a. ventricular assist device

105
Q

What is the general term for incurable diseases of the heart for which the only treatment would be heart transplantation?
a. atherosclerosis
b. arrhythmias
c. cardioplegia
d. cardiomyopathies

A

d. cardiomyopathies

106
Q

Aortic valve stenosis and aortic regurgitation are often as a result of:
a. rheumatic fever
b. tuberculosis
c. heart block
d. angina

A

a. rheumatic fever

107
Q

Which diagnostic method provides the MOST extensive details regarding valvular disorders?
a. cardiac catheterization
b. CT scanning
c. electromyogrphy
d. MRI scanning

A

a. cardiac catheterization

108
Q

A heart murmur is often heard with auscultation and indicative of involvement of which structure?
a. aortic valve
b. mitral valve
c. right ventricle
d. left ventrile

A

b. mitral valve

109
Q

What is the average lifespan of biologic and mechanical heart valve replacements?
a. 1 to 5 years
b. 5 to 10 years
c. 10 to 15 years
d. indefinite

A

c. 10 to 15 years

110
Q

What is the term for a localized stricture of the aorta found in a pediatric patient?
a. coarctation
b. stenosis
c. prolapsed
d. arteriosis

A

a. coarctation

111
Q

Which singular congenital defect involves failure of closure of the connection between the pulmonary artery and aorta?
a. atrial septal defect
b. ventricular septal defect
c. patent ductus arteriosus
d. tetralogy of Fallot

A

c. patent ductus arteriosis

112
Q

What is frequently used to repair atrial and ventricular septal defects in pediatric patients?
a. Dacron patch
b. porcine valve
c. fascia lata
d. fibrin glue

A

a. Dacron patch

113
Q

Which congenital defect has four components and is characterized by cyanosis causing appearance of “blue babies”?
a. coarcation of aorta
b. patent ductus arteriosus
c. ventricular septal defect
d. tetralogy of Fallot

A

d. tetralogy of Fallot

114
Q

Which surgical approach is used for repair of coarctation of the aorta and patent ductus arteriosus?
a. supine
b. prone
c. frog-legged
d. posterolateral

A

d. posterolateral

115
Q

Commissurotomy is a surgical separation of the flaps of the:
a. mitral valve
b. left ventricle
c. pulmonary valve
d. right atrium

A

a. mitral valve

116
Q

The saphenous vein used for coronary artery grafting must be reversed before anastomosis due to the presence of valves in the vein.

True or False

A

True

117
Q

Video-assisted thoracic surgery procedures use carbon dioxide for distention.

True or False

A

Flase

118
Q

The ventricles of the heart have thicker myocardium than the atria.

True or False

A

True

119
Q

The drainage and collection device attached to chest tubes relies on a water seal to reestablish negative pressure in the pleural cavity.

True or False

A

True

120
Q

Lung reduction surgery is performed for patients with emphysema.

True or False

A

True

Anatomy (9 decks)

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