Cardio Flashcards

1
Q

SA node intrinsic rate?

A

60-100 bpm

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2
Q

AV node intrinsic rate?

A

40-60 bpm

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3
Q

ventricular cells intrinsic rate?

A

20-45 bpm

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4
Q

what is p wave?

A

atrial depolarisation - in every lead par aVR

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5
Q

PR interval?

A

time taken for atria to depolarise and electrical activation to get
through AV node

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6
Q

QRS complex?

A

ventricular depolarisation

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7
Q

ST segment

A

interval between depolarisation and repolarisation

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8
Q

t wave

A

ventricular reporlarisation

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9
Q

Acute anterolateral myocardial infarction

A

ST segments are raised in

anterior (V3 - V4) and lateral (V5-V6) leads

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10
Q

ECG paper, horizontal measurements?

A

One small box = 0.04s/40ms

• One large box = 0.20s

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11
Q

ECG paper, vertical measurements

A

One large box = 0.5mV

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12
Q

where is left ventricle palpated?

A

palpated in the 5th left intercostal space and mid-clavicular
line, responsible for the apex beat

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13
Q

cardiac output equation?

A

Cardiac output (L/min) = Stroke volume (L) x Heart rate (BPM)

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14
Q

preload?

A

the volume of blood in the left ventricle which stretches the cardiac
myocytes before left ventricular contraction - how much blood is in the
ventricles before it pumps (end-diastolic volume). When veins dilate it results in
a decrease in preload (since by dilating veins the venous return decreases).

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15
Q

afterload?

A

the pressure the left ventricle must overcome to eject blood during
contraction - dilate arteries = decrease in afterload

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16
Q

s3 heart sound?

A
  • in early diastole during rapid ventricular filling, normal in children and
    pregnant women, associated with mitral regurgitation and heart failure
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17
Q

s4 heart sound?

A

‘Gallop’, in late diastole, produced by blood being forced into a stiff
hypertrophic ventricle - associated with left ventricular hypertrophy

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18
Q

what does atherosclerotic plaque contain?

A

lipid, necrotic core, connective tissue and fibrous cap

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19
Q

atherosclerosis formation? - inanition

A

Initiated by an injury to the endothelial cells which leads to endothelial
dysfunction
- Once initiated, chemoattractants (chemicals that attract leukocytes) are
released from endothelium to attract leukocytes which then accumulate and
migrate into the vessel wall

  • Chemoattractants are released from site of injury and a concentration-
    gradient is produced
    – leukocytes then allow migration of monocytes and T-helper cells
  • monocyte → macrophage within the intima layer of vessel wall
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20
Q

inflammatory cytokines found in plaque?

A
  • IL-1 - KEY ONE
  • IL-6
  • IFN - gamma
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21
Q

atherosclerosis formation? intermediate lesion?

A
  • macrophages ingest oxidised LDL then become foam cells
  • foam cells promote smooth muscle migration from tunica media to intima and proliferation of SMC
  • there is also adhesion and aggregation of platelets to vessel wall
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22
Q

atherosclerosis formation? fibrous plaque>?

A
  • SMC allows synthesis of ECM eg collagen and elastin → this hardens and forms fibrous cap
  • death of foam cells releasing lipid content → causing the plaque to grow, build pressure and rupture.
  • foam cells release IL1, IL6 and IFN gamma
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23
Q

atherosclerosis formation? plaque rupture?

A
  • plaque is still growing
  • The fibrous cap needs to be resorbed and redeposited in order to be maintained
  • If balance shifts e.g. in favour of inflammatory conditions (increased
    enzyme activity) then the cap becomes weak and the plaque ruptures
  • Basement membrane, collagen and necrotic tissue exposure as well as haemorrhage of vessel within the plaque
  • thrombosis → plaque ruptures, blood coagulation and impedes blood flow
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24
Q

what is angina?

A

chest pain or discomfort as a result of reversible MI

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25
Q

types of angina?

A
Stable angina:
• Induced by effort and relieved by rest
Unstable (crescendo) angina:
• Angina of recent onset (less than 24hrs) or deterioration in previously stable angina
prinzemnatal angina
- caused by coronary artery spasm
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26
Q

epidemiology of angina?

A
  • more common in men

- can be due to; stenosis, valvular disease, atheroma, arrhythmia and anaemia

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27
Q

risk factors for angina?

A
  • smoking
  • sedentary lifestyle
  • T2DM
  • genetics
  • hypercholesterolaemia
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28
Q

pathophysiology of angina? initiation?

A

Endothelial dysfunction and injury around sites of sheer and damage
with subsequent lipid accumulation at sites of impaired endothelial
barrier
• Local cellular proliferation and incorporation of oxidise lipoproteins
occurs
• Mural thrombi on surface and subsequent healing and repeat of cycle

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29
Q

pathophysiology of angina? adaption?

A

As plaque progresses to 50% of vascular lumen size the vessel can no
longer compensate by re-modelling and becomes narrowed
• This drives variable cell turnover within the plaque with new matrix
surfaces and degradation of matrix
• May progress to unstable plaque

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30
Q

pathophysiology of angina? clinical stage

A

The plaque continues to encroach upon the lumen and runs the risk of
haemorrhage or exposure of tissue HLA-DR antigens which might
stimulate T cell accumulation
• This drives an inflammatory reaction against part of the plaque contents
• Complications develop including ulceration, fissuring, calcification and
aneurysm change

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31
Q

pathological stages of angina?

A

Fatty streak:
- These show macrophages filled with abundant lipid (foam cells)
- Also smooth muscle cells with fat
Intimal cell mass:
- These are collections of muscle cells and connective tissue
without lipid - “cushions”
The atheromatous plaque:
- Characterised by distorted endothelial surface containing
lymphocytes, macrophages, smooth muscle cells and a variably
complete endothelial surface
- There is local necrotic and fatty matter with scattered lipid rich
macrophages
- Evidence of local haemorrhage may be seen with iron deposition
and calcification
- Complicated plaques are those which show calcification and mural
thrombus - making them vulnerable to rupture

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32
Q

clinical presentations of angina?

A
  • central chest tightness
  • worse on exertion
  • relieved by rest/GTN spray
  • pain radiate to arm, neck, jaw, teeth
  • sweating, SOB, nausea
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33
Q

scoring presentation of angina?

A
  1. Have, central, tight, radiation to arms, jaw & neck
  2. Precipitated by exertion
  3. Relieved by rest or spray GTN
    • 3/3 = Typical angina
    • 2/3 = Atypical pain
    • 1/3 = Non-anginal pain
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34
Q

differential diagnosis to angina?

A
  • pericarditis
  • PE
  • chest infection
  • dissection of aorta
  • GORD
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35
Q

ECG would show what in angina?

A
  • may show ST depression

- flat or inverted t waves

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36
Q

angina testing?

A
  • treadmill test/ ECG exercise
  • CT scan calcium scoring
  • SPECT/myoview -> radio-labelled tracer
  • cardiac catheterisation
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37
Q

treatment of angina?

A
  • modifiable risk factors
  • aspirin (antiplatlet)
  • statin (HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor)
  • beta blockers
  • GTN spray (nitrate - vasodilator)
  • CCB (reduce after load)
  • revascularisation (PCI and CABG)
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38
Q

PCI and CABG?

A

PCI
-Dilating coronary atheromatous obstructions by inflating balloon
within it
- Insert balloon and stent, inflate balloon and remove it, stent
persists and keeps artery patent
- Expanding plaque = make artery bigger
- PRO; less invasive
- CON; risk of stent thrombosis
CABG
- Left Internal Mammary Artery (LIMA) used to bypass proximal
stenosis (narrowing) in Left Anterior Descending (LAD) coronary
artery
- PRO; good prognosis
- CON; invasive

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39
Q

acute coronary syndrome?

A

umbrella term that includes STEMI, unstable angina, NSTEMI

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40
Q

STEMI?

A

ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI):
• Develop a complete occlusion of a MAJOR coronary artery
previously affected by atherosclerosis
• This causes full thickness damage of heart muscle
• Can usually be diagnosed on ECG at presentation
• Will produce a pathological Q wave some time after MI so also
known as Q-wave infarction

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41
Q

NSTEMI?

A

Non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI):
• Occurs by developing a complete occlusion of a MINOR or a partial
occlusion of a major coronary artery previously affected by
atherosclerosis
• Is a retrospective diagnosis made after troponin results and
sometimes other investigation results are available
• This causes partial thickness damage of heart muscle
• Also known as a Non-Q wave infarction will see ST depression and/
or T wave inversion

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42
Q

difference between NSTEMI and angina?

A
  • NSTEMI has rise in serum troponin or creatine kinase-MB
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43
Q

5 types of MI?

A

Type 1:
- Spontaneous MI with ischaemia due to a primary coronary
event e.g. plaque erosion/rupture, fissuring or dissection
Type 2:
- MI secondary to ischaemia due to increased O2 demand or
decreased supply such as in coronary spasm, coronary
embolism, anaemia, arrhythmias, hypertension or
hypotension
Type 3,4,5:
- MI due to sudden cardiac death, related to PCI and related to
CABG respectively

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44
Q

unstable angina risk factors?

A
  • family history of IHD
  • smoking
  • hypertension, T2DM
  • obesity
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45
Q

pathophysiology of unstable angina?

A

Rupture or erosion of the fibrous cap of a coronary artery plaque
- Leading to platelet aggregation and adhesion, localised thrombosis,
vasoconstriction and distal thrombus embolisation
- The presence of a rich lipid pool within the plaque and a thin, fibrous cap is
associated with an increased risk of rupture
- Thrombus formation and the vasoconstriction produced by platelet release
of serotonin and thromboxane A2 result in myocardial ischaemia due to
reduction of coronary blood flow
- Fatty streak → Fibrotic plaque → Atherosclerotic plaque → Plaque rupture/
fissure and thrombosis → MI or Ischaemic stroke or Critical leg ischaemia
or Sudden CVS death
- In unstable angina the plaque has a necrotic centre and ulcerated cap and
the thrombus results in PARTIAL OCCLUSION
- In myocardial infarction the plaque also has a necrotic centre but the
thrombus results in TOTAL OCCLUSION

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46
Q

presentations of unstable angina?

A
  • Pallor
  • Increased pulse and reduced BP
  • Reduced 4th heart sound
  • chest pain
  • sweating
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47
Q

differential diagnosis of unstable angina?

A
  • angina
  • pericarditis
  • myocarditis
  • aortic dissection
  • PE
  • GORD
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48
Q

ECG, unstable angina?

A
  • can be normal
  • ST depression and T wave inversion
  • can get tall T waves
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49
Q

biochemical markers for MI?

A

Troponin (T & I):
- T & I are the most sensitive and specific markers of myocardial
necrosis
- Serum levels increase within 3-12 hours from the onset of chest
pain and peak at 24-48 hours
- They then fall back to normal over 5-14 days
- Can act as prognostic indicator to determine mortality risk and
define which patients may benefit from aggressive medical therapy
and early coronary revascularisation
CK-MB:
- CK-MB can be used as a marker for myocyte death - but has low
accuracy since it can be present in the serum of normal
individuals and in patients with significant skeletal muscle damage
- However it can be used to determine re-infarction as levels drop
back to normal after 36-72 hours
Myoglobin:
- Becomes elevated very early in MI but the test has poor specificity
since myoglobin is present in skeletal muscle

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50
Q

treatment of unstable angina?

A
  • pain relief; GTN spray, IV opiods
  • antiemetics
  • oxygen (94-98% sat, lower for those with COPD)
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51
Q

atheroma and platelets?

A

Atheromatous plaque rupture results in platelets being exposed to ADP/
Thromboxane A2/adrenaline/thrombin/collagen tissue factor
• This results in platelet activation/aggregation via IIb/IIIa glycoproteins
binding to fibrinogen (enables platelets to adhere to each other =
aggregation)
• Then thrombin (already present in surroundings) is able to enzymatically
convert fibrinogen to fibrin (insoluble) resulting in the formation of a fibrin
mesh over platelet plug and the formation of a thrombotic clot

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52
Q

aspirin function?

A

blocks formation of thromboxane A2 thus

prevents platelet aggregation

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53
Q

P2Y12 inhibitor function?

A

Inhibit ADP-dependant activation of IIb/IIIa glycoproteins thereby
preventing amplification response of platelet aggregation

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54
Q

glycoprotein 2b/3a antagonists?

A

Used in combination with aspirin and oral P2Y12 inhibitors in
patients with ACS undergoing Percutaneous Coronary Intervention
(PCI)

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55
Q

which is more common; STEMI or NSTEMI?

A

STEMI?

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56
Q

risk factor STEMI?

A
  • male

- premature menopause

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57
Q

pathophysiology of STEMI?

A

Rupture or erosion of vulnerable fibrous cap of coronary artery
atheromatous plaque
- This results in platelet aggregation, adhesion, local thrombosis,
vasoconstriction and DISTAL THROMBUS EMBOLISATION resulting in
PROLONGED COMPLETE ARTERIAL OCCLUSION resulting in myocardial
necrosis within 15-30 minutes in a STEMI (since major artery occluded fully)

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58
Q

clinical presentation of STEMI?

A
  • chest pain that is severe >20 mins
  • SOB
  • pale, clammy
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59
Q

Ddx for STEMI?

A

stable angina, unstable angina, NSTEMI, pneumonia, pneumothorax, GORD

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60
Q

ECG STEMI?

A
  • ST elevation
  • Tall t-waves
  • LBBB
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61
Q

ECG NSTEMI?

A
  • ST depression
  • T wave inversion
  • diagnosis retrospective after troponin result
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62
Q

treatment for STEMI?

A
  • 300mg chewable aspirin ASAP
  • GTN
  • morphine
  • o2 if <95%
  • beta blocker
  • p2y12 inhibitor
  • PCI
  • CABG
  • risk factor modifications
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63
Q

what can occur after MI?

A
  • mitral incompetence
  • pericarditis
  • cardiac rupture; early and late
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64
Q

what is cardiac failure?

A

The inability of the heart to deliver blood and thus O2 at a rate that is
commensurate with the requirement of metabolising tissue of the body

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65
Q

epidemiology of HF?

A
  • 10% in elderly
  • African descent
  • men
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66
Q

aetiology of HF?

A
  • Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) - MAIN CAUSE
    • Cardiomyopathy (disease of heart muscles, where the walls have
    become thickened, stiff or stretched)
    • Valvular heart disease e.g. aortic stenosis, aortic and mitral
    regurgitation
    • Cor pulmonale
    • Hypertension
    • Alcohol excess
    • Any factor that increases myocardial work e.g. anaemia, arrhythmias,
    hyperthyroidism, pregnancy and obesity
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67
Q

pathophysiology of HF?

A

When the heart begins to fail, there are many systems involved that initiate
physiological COMPENSATORY CHANGES that try to maintain cardiac
output and peripheral perfusion in order to negate the effects of the heart
failure
- However as heart failure progresses, these mechanisms are overwhelmed
and become pathophysiological also known as DECOMPENSATION
- mechanisms are preload, after load, sympathetic activation and RAAS.

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68
Q

preload In HF?

A

Venous return (preload):
- Myocardial failure leads to a reduction of the volume of blood
ejected with each heart beat, and an increase in the volume of blood
remaining after systole
- This increased diastolic (or preload - the volume of blood in the
ventricle before contraction) volume stretches the myocardial fibres
and, as Starling’s law of the heart says, myocardial contraction is
restored since the stretching of myocardial fibres will increase its
force of contraction
- However, in heart failure, the failing myocardium actually doesn’t
contract as much in response to increased preload meaning
cardiac output cannot be maintained and may decrease

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69
Q

after load in HF?

A

Outflow resistance (afterload) is the load or resistance against
which the ventricle contracts
- It is made up of:
• Pulmonary and systemic resistance
• Physical characteristics of the vessel walls
• The volume of blood that is ejected

  • When there is an increase in afterload there is a increase in end-
    diastolic volume and a decrease in stroke volume and thus a

DECREASE in cardiac output
- This results in a increase of end-diastolic volume and dilatation of
the ventricle itself (the more the ventricle is dilated the harder it
must work i.e. the more resistance there is to contract against) which then further exacerbates the problem of afterload

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70
Q

sympathetic system activation in HF?

A

When baroreceptors (located in the arterial wall of the aorta,
carotid and in the heart walls and major veins) detect a drop in
arterial pressure or an increase in venous pressure (due to back
flow of blood) they stimulate sympathetic activation
- This increases the force of contraction (positively inotropic) of the
heart (which increases stroke volume) as well as heart rate - both
resulting in an increase in cardiac output
- However in heart failure there is chronic sympathetic activation
which results in the receptors being acted on by the sympathetic
system to down regulate resulting in their being less receptor to act
on meaning the effect of sympathetic activation is diminished and
cardiac output stops increasing in response to sympathetic
activation

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71
Q

RAAS in HF?

A

Reduced cardiac output leads to diminished renal perfusion,
thereby activating the renin-angiotensin system whereby;
angiotensinogen is converted to angiotensin I under the action of
renin, angiotensin I is then converted to angiotensin II under the act
of angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE), angiotensin II then
stimulates the release of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex
above the kidneys
- This results in increased Na+ reabsorption and thus water
reabsorption as well as the release of ADH which stimulates water
retention
- This results in the increased volume of the blood which in turn
increases blood pressure and thus venous pressure which in turn
increases pre-load thereby increasing the stretching of the heart and thus force of contraction and thus stroke volume and thus
cardiac output
- However, with increased force of contraction the cardiac
myocytes require more energy and thus more blood however in
heart failure (which is most commonly caused by ischaemic heart
disease) there will be no increase in blood and thus the cardiac
myocytes will die resulting in a decrease in force of contraction
and thus a decrease in stroke volume and a decrease in cardiac
output

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72
Q

systolic HF?

A

Inability of the ventricle to contract normally resulting in a
decrease in cardiac output
• Caused by ischaemic heart disease, myocardial infarction
and cardiomyopathy (disease of heart muscle thus impairing
function)

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73
Q

diastolic HF?

A

Inability of the ventricles to relax and fill fully thereby
decreasing stroke volume and decreasing cardiac output
• Caused by hypertrophy (due to chronic hypertension which
results in increased blood pressure thereby increasing
afterload so heart pumps against more resistance and thus
cardiac myocytes grow bigger to compensate for this) of
ventricles resulting in there being less space for blood to fill in
and thus decreased cardiac output
• Also caused by aortic stenosis (the narrowing of the aortic
valve) which also increases afterload and thus decreases
cardiac output

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74
Q

acute v chronic HF?

A

Acute:
• Often used exclusively to mean new onset or decompensation
of chromic heart failure characterised by pulmonary and/or
peripheral oedema with or without signs of peripheral
hypotension
Chronic
- Develops slowly
• Venous congestion is common but arterial pressure is well
maintained until very late

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75
Q

clinical presentation of HF?

A
  • SOB
  • fatigue
  • ankle swelling
  • raised JVP
  • murmurs
  • ascites
  • hypotension
  • bi-basal crackles
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76
Q

investigation for HF?

A

blood tests; BNP (brain natuertic peptide) which is secreted by ventricles in response to increased myocardial wall stress

  • CXR; ACDE (alveolar oedema, cardiomegaly, dilated upper lobe vessels of lungs and effusions)
  • ECG
  • echocardiography
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77
Q

treatment for HF?

A
  • lifestyle changes
  • diuretics; promote sodium and this water loss, reducing vernacular filling pressure (preload)
  • ACE inhibitors
  • Beta-blocker
  • digoxin
  • revascularisation
  • surgery
  • heart transplant
  • cardiac resynchronisation
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78
Q

what is mitral valve disease?

A

Mitral valve is on the left side and is also known as the tricuspid valve, it
separates the left atrium from the left ventricle

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79
Q

mitral stenosis?

A

Obstruction of left ventricle inflow that prevents proper filling during diastole
• Mitral valve has 2 cusps

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80
Q

epidemiology of mitral stenosis

A

more men than women
history of rheumatic fever
untreated strep. infections

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81
Q

aetiology of mitral valve stenosis

A

Most common cause of mitral stenosis is rheumatic heart disease
secondary to rheumatic fever due to infection with group A beta-haemolytic
streptococcus e.g. Streptococcus Pyogenes
- or IE
- Or mitral annular calcification

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82
Q

pathophysiology of mitral stenosis?

A

Thickening and immobility of the valve leads to obstruction of blood flow
from the left atrium to the left ventricle
- In order for sufficient cardiac output to be maintained, the left atrial pressure
increases and left atrial hypertrophy and dilatation occur
- Consequently pulmonary venous, pulmonary arterial and right heart
pressures also increase
- The increase in pulmonary capillary pressure is followed by the development
of pulmonary oedema - this is seen particularly when atrial fibrillation occurs,
due to the elevation of left atrial pressure and dilatation, with tachycardia
and loss of coordinated atrial contraction
- This is partially countered by alveolar and capillary thickening and
pulmonary arterial vasoconstriction (reactive pulmonary hypertension)
- Pulmonary hypertension leads to right ventricular hypertrophy, dilatation
and failure with subsequent tricuspid regurgitation

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83
Q

clinical presentations of mitral stenosis?

A
  • usually no symptoms until stenosis <2cm
  • progressive SOB
  • haemoptysis - due to rupture of bronchial vessels due to elevated pulmonary pressure
  • signs of RHF
  • atrial fibrillation
  • malar flush
  • loud S1 snap
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84
Q

investigations for mitral stenosis?

A
  • gold standard -> echocardiogram
  • ECG
  • CXR
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85
Q

treatment for mitral stenosis?

A
  • stenosis is mechanical problem so meds don’t prevent progression
  • treat symptoms with beta blockers and diuretics
  • percuataneous mitral balloon valvvotomy
  • mitral valve replacement
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86
Q

mitral regurgitation?

A

Backflow of blood from the left ventricle to the left atrium during systole
• Mild physiological mitral regurgitation (MR) is seen in 80% of normal
individuals

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87
Q

epidemiology of mitral regurgitation

A
  • females
  • lower BMI
  • advancing age
  • renal dysfunction
  • prior MI
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88
Q

aetiology of mitral regurgitation

A
Occurs due to abnormalities of the valve
leaflets, chordae tendinae, papillary
muscles or left ventricle
- Most frequent cause is myxomatous
degeneration (MVP) (weakening of the
chordae tendinae) - resulting in a floppy
mitral valve that prolapses (mitral valve
prolapse)
- Other causes include:
• Ischaemic mitral valve
• Rheumatic heart disease
• Infective endocarditis
• Papillary muscle dysfunction/rupture
• Dilated cardiomyopathy
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89
Q

pathophysiology of mitral regurgitation

A

Regurgitation into the left atrium produces left atrial dilatation but little
increase in left atrial pressure if the regurgitation is longstanding, since the
regurgitant flow is accommodated by the large left atrium
- Pure volume overload due to leakage of blood into left atrium during systole
- Compensatory mechanisms: Left arterial enlargement, left ventricle
hypertrophy (since left ventricle must put in same effort to pump less blood(due to regurgitation) so needs to pump harder to maintain cardiac output and
thus hypertrophy to increase stroke volume) and increases contractility:
• Progressive left atrial dilatation and right ventricular dysfunction due to
pulmonary hypertension
• Progressive left ventricular volume overload leads to dilatation and
progressive heart failure

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90
Q

clinical presentation of mitral regurgitation?

A
  • auscultation - soft S1 and prominent third extra heart sound S3
  • exertion dyspnoea
  • fatigue
  • palpitation
  • signs of right HF
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91
Q

investigations for mitral regurgitation

A
  • ECG
  • CXR
  • echocardiogram
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92
Q

treatment for mitral regulation?

A
  • vasodilators, beta blockers, anticoagulants, diuretics
  • serial echocardiography to check for improvement
  • surgery; if symptoms is at rest or ejection fraction <60%
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93
Q

aortic stenosis?

A

Narrowing of the aortic valve resulting in obstruction to the left ventricular
stroke volume, leading to symptoms of chest pain, breathlessness, syncope
and fatigue

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94
Q

epidemiology of aortic stenosis?

A

Congenital bicuspid aortic valve (BAV) predisposes to stenosis and
regurgitation - bicuspid valves are more likely to develop stenosis
- Congenital BAV is predominant in males

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95
Q

aetiology of aortic stenosis?

A
  • Calcific aortic valvular disease (CAVD) - essentially calcification of the
    aortic valve resulting in stenosis, most commonly seen in elderly
    • Calcification of a congenital bicuspid aortic valve (BAV) (valve has 2
    leaflets instead of 3 due to genetic disease - this is the most common
    congenital heart disease) resulting in stenosis
  • Rheumatic heart disease - rare now due to eradication
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96
Q

types of aortic stenosis?

A

• Supravalvular (above valve) e.g congenital
fibrous diaphragm above the aortic valve
• Subvalvular (below valve) e.g congenital
condition in which a fibrous ridge or
diaphragm is situated immediately below
the aortic valve
• Valvular - most common

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97
Q

pathophysiology of aortic stenosis?

A

Due to the narrowing there is obstructed left ventricular emptying and a
pressure gradient develops between the left ventricle and the aorta resulting
in an increased afterload
- This results in increased left ventricular pressure and compensatory left
ventricular hypertrophy
- In turn, this results in relative ischaemia of the left ventricular myocardium
(since hypertrophy results in increased blood demand), and consequent
angina, arrhythmias and left ventricular failure
- The obstruction to left ventricular emptying is relatively more severe on
exercise - since exercise causes a many-fold increase in cardiac output,
however due to the severe narrowing of the aortic valve, the cardiac output
can hardly increase - thus, the blood pressure falls, coronary ischaemia
worsens, the myocardium fails and cardiac arrhythmias develop
- When this compensatory mechanism is exhausted left ventricular function
decline rapidly

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98
Q

clinical presentation of aortic stenosis?

A
  • syncope - usually exertional
  • angina
  • heart failure
  • dyspnoea
  • absence of second heart sound
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99
Q

Ddx of aortic stenosis?

A

aortic regurgitation and subacute bacterial endocarditis

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100
Q

investigations for aortic stenosis

A
  • echocardiogram; left ventricular size&function and doppler derived gradient and valve area
  • ECG
  • CXR
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101
Q

treatment for aortic stenosis?

A
  • IE prophylaxis in dental procedures
  • surgery
  • TAVI - transcutaneous aortic valve implant
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101
Q

treatment for aortic stenosis?

A
  • IE prophylaxis in dental procedures
  • surgery
  • TAVI - transcutaneous aortic valve implant
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102
Q

aortic regurgitation?

A
Leakage of blood into the left ventricle from aorta during diastole due to
ineffective coaptation (bringing together) of the aortic cusps, of which there
are three
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103
Q

aortic regurgitation, epidemiology?

A

SLE, marfans and Ehlers Danlos syndrome, aortic dilation and IE

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104
Q

aetiology of aortic regurgitation?

A
  • Congenital bicuspid aortic valve (BAV) - chronic
    • Rheumatic fever - chronic
    • Infective endocarditis - acute
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105
Q

pathophysiology of aortic regurgitation

A

Aortic regurgitation is reflux of blood from the aorta through the aortic valve
into the left ventricle during diastole
- If net cardiac output is to be maintained, the total volume of blood pumped
into the aorta must increase and, consequently, the left ventricular size must
enlarge resulting in left ventricle dilation and hypertrophy
- Progressive dilation leads to heart failure
- Furthermore due to the fact that the remaining blood in the root of the aorta
supplies the coronary arteries via the coronary sinus during diastole -
regurgitation causes diastolic blood pressure to fall and thus coronary
perfusion decreases
- Also the large left ventricular size is mechanically less efficient, so that the
demand for oxygen is greater and cardiac ischaemia develops

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106
Q

presentation of aortic regurgitation?

A

In chronic regurgitation, patients remain asymptomatic for many years
before symptoms develop
- Exertional dysponea
- Palpitations
- Angina
- Syncope
-Quincke’s sign - capillary pulsation in the nail beds
- de Musset’s sign - head nodding with each heart beat
- Pistol shot femoral - a sharp bang heard on auscultation

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107
Q

Ddx for aortic regurgitation?

A
  • HF
  • IE
  • mitral reguitation
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108
Q

investigation of aortic regurgitation?

A
  • echocardiogram
  • CXR
  • ECG
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109
Q

treatment for aortic regurgitation?

A
  • vasodilators

- surgery

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110
Q

IE?

A

An infection of the endocardium or vascular endothelium of the heart
• Known as subacute bacterial endocarditis
• Infection occurs on the following:
- Valves with congenital or acquired defects (usually on the left side of
the heart). Right sided endocarditis is more common in IV drug addicts
- Normal valves with virulent organisms such as Streptococcus
pneumoniae or Staphylococcus aureus
- Prosthetic valves and pacemakers

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111
Q

epidemiology of IE?

A
  • more common in developing countries
  • elderly with prosthetic valves
  • IV drug user
  • young with congenial heart disease
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112
Q

aetiology of IE?

A
  • Staphylococcus aureus (IVDU, diabetes and surgery) - most common
    cause
    • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • Streptococcus viridans (dental problems) - GRAM POSITIVE, alpha
    haemolytic and optochin resistant (Strep. mutans, strep, sanguis, strep.
    milleri & strep. oralis)
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113
Q

pathophysiology of IE?

A

Usually the consequence of two factors; the presence of organisms in the
bloodstream and abnormal cardiac endothelium that facilitates their
adherence and growth
- Bacteraemia may arise for patient-specific reasons:
• Poor dental hygiene - bacteria in tooth plaque can cause gum disease
which results in bleeding and inflammation of gums meaning when
brushing/in dental procedure this bacteria can enter the bloodstream
and reach the heart
• IV drug use
• Soft tissue infections
- Damaged endocardium promotes platelet and fibrin deposition, which allows
organisms to adhere and grow, leading to an infected vegetation
- Aortic and mitral valves are most commonly involved - IV drug users are
the exception since right-sided lesions are more common in them
- Virulent organisms destroy the valve they are on resulting in regurgitation
and worsening heart failure

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114
Q

clinical presentation of IE?

A
  • regurgitant murmur
  • embolic event
  • sepsis
  • renal infarction
  • fever
  • headache
  • finger clubbing
  • HF signs
  • splinter haemorrhages
  • embolic skin lesions
  • osler nodes
  • janeway lesion
  • roth spots
  • petechiae
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115
Q

investigations for IE?

A
  • blood cultures
  • blood tests; CRP and ESR raised
  • urinalysis
  • CXR
  • ECG; long PR intervals
  • echocardiogram; transthoraic or thransoesphageal (better)
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116
Q

treatment for IE?

A
  • if staph. -> vancomycin and rifampicin
  • if not staph. -> benzylpenicillin and getamyicin
  • surgery to remove valve and replace prosthetic
  • good oral health!
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117
Q

what are cardiomyopathies?

A
Group of diseases of the myocardium that affect the mechanical or electrical
function of the heart
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118
Q

epidemiology of cardiomyopathy?

A
  • All carry an arrhythmic risk
  • Can occur at younger ages
  • Restrictive cardiomyopathy is rare in childhood and has a poor outcome
    once symptoms develop
  • In general they are inherited genetic conditions although there are some
    acquired ones
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119
Q

types of cardiomyopathy?

A
  • hypertrophic
  • dilated
  • restricted
  • arrythmogenic right ventricle
120
Q

what is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

ventricular hypertrophy/thickening of the muscle

121
Q

epidemiology of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

Quite common, second most common cardiomyopathy (behind dilated)
• 1/500 people have it
• Autosomal dominant - familial
• May present at any age
• Most common cause of sudden cardiac death in the young
• HCM refers to otherwise unexplained primary cardiac hypertrophy

122
Q

pathophysiology of hypertrophic cardiac myopathy?

A

Caused by sarcomeric protein gene mutations e.g troponin T and B-
myosin

• All in the absence of hypertension and valvular disease
• The hypertrophic, non-compliant ventricles impair diastolic filling
resulting in reduced stroke volume and thus cardiac output
• Another issue with thick powerful heart is that there is a disarray of
cardiac myocytes so conduction is affected

123
Q

clinical presentation of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A
  • sudden death
  • chest pain
  • syncope
  • jerky carotid pulse
124
Q

investigation for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A
  • ECG; show signs of LVH with T wave inversion and deep Q wave
  • echocardiogram
  • genetic analysis
125
Q

treatment for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A
  • Amiodarone - anti-arrythmatic medication, if at high risk of arrhythmia
    then can place an implantable cardiac defibrillator
    • Calcium channel blocker e.g. Verampil
    • Beta-blocker e.g. Atenolol
126
Q

dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

Dilated left ventricle which contracts poorly/has thin muscle

127
Q

epidemiology of dilated cardiomyopathy

A

Most common cardiomyopathy
• Autosomal dominant - familial
• Can be caused by; ischaemia, alcohol, thyroid disorder or familial/
genetic

128
Q

pathophysiology of dilated cardiomyopathy

A

Caused by cytoskeletal gene mutations
• Left ventricle or right ventricle or all 4 chamber dilatation and thus
dysfunction
• Theory is that poorly generated contractile force leads to progressive
dilatation of heart with some diffuse interstitial fibrosis

129
Q

clinical presentation of dilated cardiomyopathy?

A
  • SOB
  • HF
  • thromboembolism
  • sudden deatg
  • increased JVP
130
Q

investigation for dilated cardiomyopathy?

A
  • CXR
  • ECG
  • ECHO
131
Q

restricted cardiomyopathy, aetiology?

A

Causes are; amyloidosis, idiopathic, sarcoidosis, end-myocardial
fibrosis

132
Q

pathophysiology of restricted cardiomyopathy?

A

There is normal or decreased volume of both ventricles with bi-atrial
enlargement, normal wall thickness, normal cardiac valves and
impaired ventricular filing
• Restrictive physiology
• Poor dilation of the heart restricts its the ability of the heart to take on
blood and pass it to the rest of the body
• Rigid myocardium restricts diastolic ventricular filling

133
Q

clinical presentations of restricted cardiomyopathy?

A
  • SOB
  • increased JVP
  • hepatic enlargement
134
Q

investigation of restricted cardiomyopathy?

A
  • CXR
  • ECHO
  • ECG
  • cardiac catheristisation
135
Q

treatment for restricted cardiomyopathy?

A
  • no specific treatment

- poor prognosis, die within a year

136
Q

Arrythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy - epidemiology?

A

Progressive genetic cardiomyopathy characterised by progressive fatty
and fibrous replacement of ventricular myocardium
• Cause is unknown
• Familial form is usually autosomal dominant with incomplete penetrance
but can be recessive

137
Q

pathophysiology of Arrythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy?

A

Desmosome (normally hold cardiac cells together) gene mutation
• Right ventricle replaced by fat and fibrous tissue
• Muscle dies and replaced by fat as part of inflammatory process

138
Q

clinical presentations of Arrythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy?

A

conductive issues

  • syncope
  • RHF; right heart failure
139
Q

investigations Arrythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy?

A
  • genetic testing is gold standard
  • ECG; t wave inversion
  • ECHO
140
Q

treatment for Arrythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy?

A
  • beta blockers
  • amiodarone
  • cardiac transplant
141
Q

which congenital heart defects are common in women?

A
  • atrial septal defect

- persistence ductus arteriosis

142
Q

clinical presentations of congenital heart defects?

A
  • central cyanosis; due to right-left shunting of blood; seen in tetralogy of fallout and tricuspid atresia
  • pulmonary hypertension; due to left-right shunts; Eisenmenger’s complex
  • clubbing of fingers
  • growth retardation
  • syncope
143
Q

BAV; bicuspid aortic valve, epidemiology?

A

Most common form of congenital heart disease, occurring in 1-2% of live
births
• More common in males than females

144
Q

consequences of BAV?

A

These can work well at birth and go undetected but can be severely stenotic
in infancy or childhood
• Degenerate quicker than normal valves
• Become regurgitant earlier than normal valves
• Are associated with coarctation and dilation of the ascending aorta
• May eventually develop aortic stenosis (requiring valve replacement) with to
without aortic regurgitation thereby predisposing to infective endocarditis

145
Q

epidemiology of ASD, atrial septal defect?

A

Often first diagnosed in adulthood and represents
one third of congenital heart disease
• More common in women than men

146
Q

pathophysiology of ASD?

A
  • abnormal connection between two atria
  • shunt left-right so acyanotic
  • increased flow into right heart and lungs
  • if not treated can develop right heart hypertrophy, pulmonary hypertension and risk of IE
147
Q

clinical presentation of ASD?

A
  • SOB
  • exercise intolerance
  • atria arrhythmia
148
Q

investigation for ASD?

A
  • CXR
  • ECG; RBBB
  • echocardiogram
149
Q

treatment for ASD?

A
  • surgical closure
150
Q

what is VSD?

A

VENTRICULAR SEPTAL DEFECTS (VSD):
• Abnormal connection between the two ventricles
• Many close spontaneously during childhood

151
Q

epidemiology of VSD?

A

Common - 20% of all congenital heart defects

152
Q

pathophysiology of VSD?

A

Higher pressure in left ventricle than right ventricle
• Thus left-to-right shunt
• Thus does NOT go blue i.e. acyanotic
• Increased blood flow through the lung

153
Q

clinical presentation, VSD?

A
  • tachycardia
  • SOB
  • increased respiratory rate
  • pulmonary hypertension
  • small defect; buzzing sensation and normal heart rate and size
154
Q

investigations of VSD?

A
  • Medical initially since many will spontaneously close
  • Surgical closure
  • If small then no intervention is required
  • Prophylactic antibiotics
  • If moderately sized lesion; furosemide, ACE inhibitor e.g. ramipril and
    digoxin may suffice
155
Q

what is AVSD?

A

ATRIO-VENTRICULAR SEPTAL DEFECTS (AVSD):
• Associated with Downs syndrome
• Basically a hole in the very centre of the heart
• Involves; the ventricular septum, the atrial septum,
the mitral and tricuspid valves
• Can be complete or partial
• Instead of two separate atrio-ventricular valves
there is JUST ONE big malformed one which
usually leaks

156
Q

clinical presentation of ASVD?

A
  • breathlessness
  • poor weight gain and feeding
  • eisenmenger -> cyanosis over time
  • partial defect; it presents in late adulthood and symptoms are SOB, tachycardia
157
Q

treatment of ASVD?

A
  • Pulmonary artery banding if large defect in infancy - band reduces
    blood flow to lungs thereby reducing pulmonary hypertension and
    Eisenmenger’s syndrome
  • Surgical repair is challenging
  • A partial defect may be left alone if there is no right heart dilatation
158
Q

patent ductus arterioles?

A

Ductus arteriosus is a persistent communication
between the proximal left pulmonary artery and the
descending aorta

159
Q

pathophysiology of patent ductus arteriosus?

A

In foetal life pulmonary vascular resistance is high
(since bronchioles are filled with fluid and vessels are
vasoconstricted due to lack of O2) and the right heart
pressure exceeds that of left - consequently flow is
from right to left atrium through foramen ovale, and
from pulmonary artery to aorta via ductus
arteriosus
• Normally, the ductus arteriosus closes within a few
hours of birth in response to decreased pulmonary
resistance; however in some cases e.g. in
premature babies and in cases with maternal
rubella, the ductus persists

• If it remains open then there is an abnormal left-to-
right shunt (from aorta to pulmonary artery) and

eventually means that the lung circulation is
overloaded with pulmonary hypertension (leading
to Eisenmenger syndrome) and right side cardiac
failure (due to right ventricular hypertrophy in
response to increased afterload) subsequently
• Also increases risk of infective endocarditis

160
Q

clinical presentation pf patent ductus arterosus?

A
  • murmurs
  • bounding pulse
  • SOB
  • tachycardia
  • eisenmengers syndrome with clubbed blue toes and PINK fingers
161
Q

patent ductus arterosus investigations?

A
  • CXR
  • ECG
  • ECHO
162
Q

treatment of patent ductus artrosus?

A
  • surgical closure

- indomethacin -? prostaglandin inhibitor

163
Q

coarction of aorta, epidemiology?

A
  • more common in men than women

- associated with turners syndrome, berry aneurysms and patent ductus arterioles

164
Q

pathophysiology of coarctation of aorta?

A

A narrowing of the aorta at, or just distal to, the
insertion of the ductus arteriosus (distal to the origin of
the left subclavian artery)
• The net result is a narrowing of the aorta just after the
arch, with excessive blood flow being diverted through
the carotid and subclavian vessels into systemic
vascular shunts to supply the rest of the body, thus stronger perfusion to
upper body compared to lower
- decreased renal perfusion leads to systemic hypertension

165
Q

clinical presentation of coarctation of the aorta?

A
  • right arm hypertension

- headache and nose bleeds

166
Q

investigations of coarctation of aorta?

A
  • CXR
  • ECG
  • CT
167
Q

treatment for correction of the aorta?

A
  • surgery

- balloon dilation and stenting

168
Q

tetralogy of allot?

A
Most common form of cyanotic congenital
heart disease
• Consists of:
- A large, maligned Ventricular Septal
Defect (VSD)
- An overriding aorta
- Right ventricular outflow obstruction
e.g. due to pulmonary stenosis
- Right ventricular hypertrophy
169
Q

pathophysiology of tetralogy of fallot?

A
  • The stenosis of the right ventricle outflow leads to the right ventricle being at
    a higher pressure than the left
    • Thus blue blood passes from the right ventricle to the left ventricle
    • The patients are BLUE i.e CYANOTIC
170
Q

clinical presentation of tetralogy of fallout?

A

Central cyanosis

  • Low birthweight and growth
  • Dysponea on exertion
  • Delayed puberty
  • Systolic ejection murmurs
  • CXR; boot shaped heart
171
Q

complete transposition of great arteries?

A

Involves the aorta coming off the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk
coming off the left ventricle
• Two closed circulations result
• More common in men and associated with diabetes
• Survival is only possible if there is communication between the two circuits
and virtually all have some form of atrial septal defect with blood mixing

172
Q

acute pericarditis?

A

Acute inflammation of the pericardium; with or without effusion

173
Q

acute pericarditis, epidemiology?

A

Majority are idiopathic and most commonly seen in the young, previously
healthy patient
- Occurs in men more than women
- Occurs in adults more than children

174
Q

aetiology of acute pericarditis?

A
Infectious:
- Viral (common):
• Enteroviruses e.g. coxsackieviruses & echoviruses
- Bacterial:
• Mycobacterium tuberculosis (other bacteria are rare)
- Fungal (very rare):
• Histoplasma spp. - most likely to be seen in
immunocompromised patient
non infections 
- autoimmune; SLE
- neoplastic 
- dresslers syndrome 
- traumatic
175
Q

pathophysiology of acute pericarditis?

A
176
Q

pathophysiology of acute pericarditis

A

Pericardium becomes acutely inflamed, with pericardial vascularisation and
infiltration with polymorphonuclear leukocytes
- A fibrinous reaction frequently results in exudate and adhesions within the
pericardial sac, and a serous or haemorrhagic effusion may develop

177
Q

clinical presentation of acute pericarditis?

A
  • severe, sharp and pleuritic chest pain
  • pericardial friction rub
  • fever
  • tachycardia
178
Q

Ddx of acute pericarditis?

A

angina, mI, pulmonary infarction, pneumonia

179
Q

investigation, acute pericarditis?

A
  • ECG; diagnostic; saddle shaped ST elevation and PR depression
  • CXR; cardiomegaly in cases of effusion
  • FBC; WBC count is high
  • ESR
180
Q

treatment of acute pericarditis?

A
  • restrict physical activity
  • NSAID for 2 weeks
  • colchine for 3 weeks
181
Q

pericardial effusion?

A

pericardial effusion is a collection of fluid within the potential space of the
serous pericardial sac

182
Q

cardiac tamponade?

A

when a large volume collects in this space, ventricular filling is
compromised, leading to the embarrassment of the circulation - this is a
CARDIAC TAMPONADE

183
Q

clinical presentation of pericardial effusion?

A
  • soft and distant heart sounds
  • raised jVP
  • dyspnoea
184
Q

clinical presentation of cardiac tamponade?

A
  • high pulse
  • low BP
  • high JVP
  • muffled 1st and 2nd heart sound
  • reduced CO
185
Q

investigation of pleural effusion?

A
  • CXR
  • ECG
  • Echo
186
Q

investigation for cardiac tamponade?

A
  • CXR
  • Becks triad; falling BP, raising JVP and muffled heart sounds
  • ECG
  • echo is diagnostic
187
Q

treatment of cardiac tamponade?

A
  • urgent drainage via pericardiocentesis
188
Q

constrictive pericarditis, aetiology?

A

Certain causes of pericarditis such as tuberculosis, bacterial infection and
rheumatic heart disease result in the pericardium becoming thick, fibrous
and calcified
- Cause is often unknown and can actually occur after any pericarditis

189
Q

pathophysiology of constrictive pericarditis?

A

the pericardium becomes so inelastic as to interfere with the diastolic filling of the heart, CONSTRICTIVE PERICARDITIS is said to have developed
As these changes are chronic, allowing the body time to compensate, this
condition is not as immediately life-threatening as cardiac tamponade, in
which the circulation is more acutely embarrassed

190
Q

clinical presentation of constrictive pericarditis?

A
  • kussamulas sign; rise in JVP
  • ascites
  • oedema
  • right heart failure signs
191
Q

investigations for constrictive pericarditis

A
  • CXR; small heart
  • ECG
  • echocardiogram
192
Q

normatensive hypertension value?

A

140/90

193
Q

stage 1 hypertension?

A

More than or equal to 140/90mmHg clinic BP
- Daytime average Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM -
24hr BP monitor) or Home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM);
greater than or equal to 135/85mmHg

194
Q

stage 2 hypertension?

A

More than or equal to 160/100mmHg clinic BP
- Daytime average ABPM or HBPM greater than or equal to
150/95mmHg

195
Q

sever hypertension?

A

Clinic systolic BP greater than or equal to 180mmHg and/or

diastolic BP greater than or equal to 110mmHg

196
Q

essential hypertension?

A
  • primary cause unknown
  • accounts for majority of cases
  • multifactorial
197
Q

secondary hypertension?

A
  • commonly caused by disease or pregnancy
  • endocrine causes eg, Cushing disease, conns syndrome, phaemochromocytoma
  • coarctation of aorta
  • medications
198
Q

pathophysiology of hypertension

A
  • vascular changes
  • heart
  • NS; intraceberal haemorrhage
  • kindly/renal disease
  • malignant hypertension; markedly raised diastolic blood pressure,
    usually over 120mmHg and progressive renal disease very quick and sudden
199
Q

investigation of hypertension?

A
  • look for end organ damage
  • urinalysis; protein, albumin, haemuturia
  • blood tests; serum creatine, glucose, eGFR
  • fundoscopy
  • ECH
  • echo
200
Q

treatment for hypertension

A

1- lifestyle change
2- ACD; ace inhibitor, CCB and diuretic
(less than 55yrs old, diabetic and not black; ACE first)

201
Q

bradycardia?

A

Heart rate is slow (less than 60bpm during the day and less than 50bpm
at night)
• Usually asymptomatic unless the rate is very slow
• Normal in athletes owing to increased vagal tone and thus
parasympathetic activity

202
Q

tachycardia?

A

Heart rate is fast (more than 100bpm)
• More symptomatic when the arrhythmia is fast and sustained
• Subdivided into:
- Supraventricular tachycardias - arise from the atrium or the AV
junction
- Ventricular tachycardias - arise from the ventricles

203
Q

atrial fibrillation?

A

A chaotic irregular atrial rhythm at 300-600bpm; the AV node responds
intermittently, hence an irregular ventricular rate

204
Q

epidemiology of atrial fibrillation?

A

Around 5-15% of patients over age of 75
- Can either be paroxysmal (self terminating) or persistent (continues without
intervention)

205
Q

clinical classifications of atrial fibrillation?

A

Acute: onset within the previous 48 hours
• Paroxysmal: stops spontaneously within 7 days
• Recurrent: two or more episodes
• Persistent: continuos for more than 7 days and not self terminating
• Permanent

206
Q

aetiology of atrial fibrillation?

A
  • idiopathic
  • hypertension
  • HF
  • valvular heart disease
  • rheumatic heart disease
207
Q

pathophysiology of atrial fibrillation?

A

Atrial fibrillation (AF) is maintained by continuous, rapid (300-600/min)
activation of the atria by multiple meandering re-entry wavelets
- These are often driven by rapidly depolarising automatic foci, located
predominantly within the pulmonary veins
- The atria respond electrically at this rate but there is NO COORDINATED
MECHANICAL ACTION and only a proportion of the impulses are conducted
to the ventricles i.e. there is no unified atrial contraction instead there is atrial
spasm
- The ventricular response depends on the rate and regularity of atrial activity,
particularly at the entry to the AV node, and the balance between sympathetic
and parasympathetic tone
- Cardiac output DROPS by 10-20% as the ventricles are not primed reliably
by the atria

208
Q

clinical presentation of atrial fibrillation?

A
  • paptitations
  • dyspnoea
  • fatigue
209
Q

Ddx of atrial fibrillation?

A
  • atrial flutter

- supraventiuclar tachyarrhythmias

210
Q

investigation of atrial fibrillation?

A
  • ECG; absent P wave
211
Q

acute management of atrial fibrillation?

A

Conversion to sinus rhythm achieved electrically by DC shock e.g.
defibrillator - NOTE: give low molecular weight heparin e.g. Enoxaparin or Dalteparin to minimise the risk of
thromboembolism associated with cardioversion
- ventricular rate is controlled by drugs that block AV node; CCB, beta blocker, digoxin and amiodarone

212
Q

long term management of atrial fibrillation?

A

1- rate control; AV nodal slowing agent and oral anti-coagulation
2- CHA2DS20VASC - calculate risk

213
Q

atrial flutter?

A

usually an ORGANISED atrial rhythm with an atrial rate

typically between 250-350bpm

214
Q

epidemiology of atrial flutter>

A
  • less common than atrial fibrillation
  • more common in men
  • increase with age
215
Q

aetiology of atrial flutter?

A
  • idiopathic 30%
  • CHD
  • obesity
  • COPD
  • pericarditis
216
Q

clinical presentation of atrial flutter?

A

palpations
chest pain
syncope
fatigue

217
Q

investigation of atrial flutter?

A
  • ECG

- regular sawtooth like waves

218
Q

atrial flutter treatment?

A
  • anticoagulant first -> LMWH
  • catheter ablation
  • amidorone and bisoprolol
219
Q

heart block?

A
  • can occur at any level of conducting system
  • av block = block in AV node or bundle of his
  • Lower block = bundle branch block
220
Q

first degree AV block?

A

This is simple prolongation of the PR interval to greater than 0.22 seconds
- Every atrial depolarisation is followed by conduction to the ventricles but
with delay
- Causes:
• Hypokalaemia
• Myocarditis
• Inferior MI
• Atrioventricular node (AVN) blocking drugs e.g. beta blockers
(Bisoprolol), calcium channel blockers (Verapamil) and Digoxin
- ASYMPTOMATIC so no treatment!

221
Q

second degree AV bock?

A

Occurs when some P waves conduct and other do not

  • Acute MI may produce second degree heart block
  • mobitz I and mobitz II block
222
Q

mobitz I block?

A

Also known as the Wenckebach block phenomenon
• A progressive PR interval prolongation until beat is ‘dropped’ and P
wave fails to conduct i.e. excitation completely fails to pass through the
AVN/bundle of His
• The PR interval before the blocked P wave is much longer than the PR
interval after the blocked P wave
• Causes:
- Atrioventricular node (AVN) blocking drugs e.g. beta blockers
(Bisoprolol), calcium channel blockers (Verapamil) and Digoxin
- Inferior MI
• Results in light headiness, dizziness and syncope
• Does not require a pacemaker unless its poorly tolerated

223
Q

mobitz II block?

A

PR interval is constant and QRS interval is dropped
• Failure of conduction through the His-Purkinje system
• Causes:
- Anterior MI
- Mitral valve surgery
- SLE and Lyme disease
- Rheumatic fever
• Results in shortness of breath, postural hypotension and chest pain
• High risk of developing sudden complete AV block and a pacemaker
should be inserted

224
Q

third degree AV block?

A

Complete heart block occurs when all atrial activity fails to conduct to the
ventricles
- Ventricular contractions are sustained by spontaneous escape rhythm
which originates below the block
- P waves are COMPLETELY INDEPENDENT of QRS complex
- Causes:
• Structural heart disease e.g. transposition of great vessels
• Ischaemic heart disease e.g. acute MI
• Hypertension
• Endocarditis or Lyme disease

225
Q

treatment for AV block?

A
  • pacemaker

- IV atropine

226
Q

bundle branch blocker?

A

Usually asymptomatic

• The His bundle gives rise to the right and left bundle branches

227
Q

complete block of bundle branch?

A

This is associated with a wider QRS complex (larger than 0.12 seconds)
- The shape of the QRS depends on whether the right or the left bundle is
blocked

228
Q

RBBB?

A

Causes; Pulmonary embolism, Ischaemic heart disease & Atrial/
Ventricular septal defect
• Right bundle no longer conducts, meaning that the two ventricles do
not get impulses at the same time, and instead spread from left to right
• Produces the late activation of the right ventricle
• MaRRoW; QRS looks like M in V1 and QRS looks like W in v5&6

229
Q

LBBB?

A

Causes; Ischaemic heart disease and aortic valve disease
• Produces the late activation of the left ventricle
- on ECG; WiLLiam -> QRS looks like W in v1&v2 and QRS looks like M in v4-v6

230
Q

causes of sinus tachycardia?

A
  • anaemia
  • anxiety
  • HF
  • PE
231
Q

where does supraventicular tachycardia arise from?

A
  • atria or AV junction
232
Q

ATRIOVENTRICULAR NODAL RE-ENTRANT TACHYCARDIA (AVNRT), epidemiology

A
  • more common in women

- tea, coffee and alcohol can cause it

233
Q

pathophysiology of ATRIOVENTRICULAR NODAL RE-ENTRANT TACHYCARDIA (AVNRT):

A

There are two pathways within the AV node in AVNRT:
• One has a short effective refractory period (the window of time where
cells cannot be excited again after they have already been excited) and
SLOW conduction
• One has a longer effective refractory period and FAST conduction
- This sets up a RE-ENTRANT LOOP at the AV NODE hence why its AVNRT and
the loop sends signals through the AV node at a MUCH FASTER RATE

234
Q

clinical presentation of AVNRT?

A
  • palpitations
  • chest pain
  • SOB
  • polyuria; (due to the realise of atrial natriuretic peptide in response to
    increased atrial pressures during the tachycardia)
235
Q

AVRT, ATRIOVENTRICULAR RE-ENTRANT TACHYCARDIA?

A
  • Large circuit involving the AV node, the His bundle, the ventricle and an
    abnormal connection of myocardial fibres from the ventricle back to the
    atrium
  • This ‘abnormal connection’ is called the accessory pathway or bypass tract
    and results from an incomplete separation of the atria and the ventricles
    during fetal development
236
Q

example of AVRT?

A

WPW -> wolff Parkinson white syndrome

normal AV conduction but accessory pathway

237
Q

clinical presentation of AVRT?

A
  • PALPATION
  • dizziness
  • SOB
  • syncope
238
Q

AVRT, ECG?

A
  • short PR interval

- wide QRS complex (delta wave)

239
Q

treatment for AVRT and AVNRT?

A
  • IV adenosine

- surgery; catheter ablation

240
Q

ventricular Tachyarrthymias?

A

Umbrella term encompassing:

  • Ventricular ectopics
  • Ventricular tachycardia
  • Sustained ventricular tachycardia
  • Ventricular fibrillation
  • cardiac channel-pathies; long QT syndrome
241
Q

ventricular ectopics?

A

premature ventricular contraction

242
Q

ventricular ectopics, epidemiology

A
  • post MIs
243
Q

pathology of ventricular ectopics?

A

These premature beats have a broad (greater than 0.12 seconds) and bizarre
QRS complex because they arise from an abnormal (ectopic) site in the
ventricular myocardium
- Following a premature beat, there is usually a complete compensatory pause
because the AV node or ventricle is refractory (i.e. cannot accept new
impulses) to the next sinus impulse - resulting in missed beat

244
Q

clinical presentation of ventricular ectopics?

A
  • missed beat - uncomfortable
  • irregular pulse
  • faint, dizziness
245
Q

ventricular ectopies; ECG?

A

wide QRS complex

246
Q

treatment for ventricular ectopics?

A

beta blockers

247
Q

ventricular tachycardia?

A
  • > 100 bpm

- > 3 irregular heart beats in a row

248
Q

aetiology of ventricular tachycardia?

A

Commonly found in patients with structurally normal hearts (known as idiopathic
ventricular tachycardia), in these cases it is usually a benign condition with an
excellent long-term prognosis
• Occasionally it is pathological and known as Gallavardin’s tachycardia and if
untreated may lead to cardiomyopathy

249
Q

pathology of ventricular tachycardia?

A

Essentially there is rapid ventricular beating so much so that they is inadequate
blood filling of ventricles since they are filled in between beats and thus id beating
faster there is less time to fill and thus less blood fills
• Results in decreased cardiac output and thus a decrease in the amount of
oxygenated blood that is circulated around the body

250
Q

symptoms of ventricular tachycardia?

A
  • SOB
  • chest pain
  • light headedness
251
Q

sustained ventricular tachycardia?

A

Ventricular tachycardia for longer than 30 seconds

252
Q

ECG of sustained ventricular tachycardia

A
  • broad and abnormal QRS complex
253
Q

ventricular fibrillation?

A

Involves very rapid and irregular ventricular activation with NO MECHANICAL
EFFECT i.e NO CARDIAC OUTPUT
• Patient is pulseless and becomes unconscious and respiration ceases (CARDIAC
ARREST)
Usually caused by a ventricular ectopic beat

254
Q

long QT syndrome, aetiology?

A

congenital eg; Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome (autosomal recessive) - mutation in
cardiac potassium and sodium-channel genes
• Romano-Ward syndrome (autosomal dominant)

  • acquired; hypocalcaemia, drugs, Bradycardia, acute MI
255
Q

clinical presentation of longQT syndrome?

A
  • syncope

- palpitations

256
Q

treatment of long QR?

A

IV isoprenaline

257
Q

what is n aneurysm?

A

permanent dilatation of the artery to TWICE

the normal diameter

258
Q

true aneurysm?

A
Abnormal dilatations that involve all layers of the arterial wall
- Arteries most frequently involved are:
• Abdominal aorta (most common)
• Iliac, popliteal and femoral arteries
• Thoracic aorta
259
Q

false aneurysm?

A

Involves the collection of blood in the OUTER LAYER ONLY (ADVENTITIA)
which communicates with the lumen e.g after trauma from a femoral artery
puncture

260
Q

epidemiology of AAA? abdominal aortic aneurysm?

A
  • most common infra-renal
  • men > women
  • incidence increases with age
261
Q

aetiology of AAA?

A
  • severe atherosclerotic damage
  • family history
  • COPD
  • trauma
  • smoking
262
Q

pathophysiology of AAA?

A

Degradation of the elastic lamellae resulting in leukocyte infiltrate causing
enhanced proteolysis and smooth muscle cell loss
- The dilatation affects ALL THREE LAYERS of the vascular tunic
- If it doesn’t then it is a pseudoaneurysm

263
Q

clinical presentation of AAA?

A

unruptured; asymptomatic or pain in back, loin or groin

ruptured AAA; increased BP, female, abdominal pain, pulsatile abdominal swelling, collapse, tachycardia

264
Q

investigation for AAA?

A
  • abdo ultrasound

- CT or MRI angiography

265
Q

treatment of AAA?

A
  • lifestyle change
  • BP and lipid control
  • surgery
266
Q

TAA, epidemiology? thoracic abdominal aneurysm?

A
  • ascending TAA; marfans syndrome and hypertension

- descending TAA; atherosclerosis and rare due to syphilis

267
Q

aetiology of TAA?

A
  • autosomal dominant trait
  • connective tissue disorders
  • weight lifting, cocaine and amphetamine use
268
Q

pathophysiology of TAA?

A

Involves inflammation, proteolysis and reduced survival of the smooth
muscle cells in the aortic wall
- Once the aorta reaches a crucial diameter (around 6cm in the ascending and
7cm in the descending) it loses all distensibility so that a rise in BP to around
200mmHg can exceed the arterial wall strength and may trigger dissection
or rupture

269
Q

TAA, clinical presentations?

A
  • most asymptomatic
  • pain in chest, neck, upper back
  • aortic regurgitation
  • cardiac tamponade
270
Q

investigations of TAA?

A
  • CT or MRI
  • aortography
  • transesophageol echocardiogram
  • ultrasound
271
Q

treatment of TAA?

A
  • surgery
  • BP control
  • smoking cessation
272
Q

aortic dissection epidemiology?

A
  • men>females
  • > 50+
  • acute = <2 weeks, subacute 2-8 weeks and chronic >8 weeks
273
Q

aetiology of aortic dissection?

A
  • inherited
  • atherosclerosis
  • inflammation
  • trauma
274
Q

pathophysiology of aortic dissection?

A

Aortic dissection begins with a tear in the intimal lining of the aorta
- The tear allows a column of blood under pressure to enter the aortic wall,
forming a haemotoma which separates the intima from the adventitia and
creates a false lumen
- The false lumen extends for a variable distance in either direction;
anterograde (towards bifurcations) and retrograde (towards the aortic root)
- The most common sites for the intimal tears are:
• Within 2-3cm of the aortic valve
• Distal to the left subclavian artery in the descending aorta

275
Q

clinical presentation of aortic dissection?

A
  • sudden onset of chest pain that radiates to back and arms
  • hypertension
  • pain is maximal
  • neurological symptoms
  • aortic regurgitation and cardiac tamponde
  • peripheral pulse absent
276
Q

investigation for aortic dissection

A
  • CXR
  • CT scan
  • transoesophageol echocardiography
  • MRI
277
Q

treatment of aortic dissection?

A
  • anti-hypertensive medication
  • analgesics
  • surgery
  • stents
278
Q

epidemiology of PVD?

A
  • men>women

- smoking, diabetes, hypertension, obesity all risk factors

279
Q

chronic lower limb ischaemia?

A

ALWAYS due to ATHEROSCLEROSIS of the arteries distal to the aortic arch
- Atherosclerosis can result in many complications:

280
Q

mild ischemia, PVD?

A

Stress-induced physiological malfunction
- Exercise induced angina
- Intermittent claudication:
• This is a cramping pain that is induced by exercise and
relieved by rest
• Pain is distal to site of atheroma
• Occurs when anaerobic metabolism comes into effect when
O2 demand outstrips supply
• Pain is the result of lactic acid production
• Caused by inadequate blood supply to the affected muscles
resulting in moderate ischaemia
• Most commonly seen in the calf and leg muscles as a result of
atheroma of the leg arteries
• Leg pulses are often absent and the feet may be cold
• Oxygen pressures in different activities with intermittent
claudication:

281
Q

moderate ischemia, PVD?

A

Structural & functional breakdown
- Ischaemic cardiac failure
- Critical limb ischaemia:
• Blood supply is BARELY ADEQUATE to allow basal
metabolism
• No reserve available for increased demand
• Rest pain that is typically NOCTURNAL
• Risk of gangrene and/or infection
• CHRONIC CONDITION and the MOST SEVERE clinical
manifestation of peripheral vascular disease

282
Q

severe ischemia, PVD?

A
  • infarction

- gangrene

283
Q

PVD, symptoms?

A
  • absent femoral, popliteal foot pulses?
284
Q

investigations of PVD?

A
  • -colour duplex ultrasound - first line
  • ESR; exclude arthritis
  • FBC; excluse anemia
  • ABPI - ankle brachial pressure index <0.5 v. serious
  • MRI/CT angiography
285
Q

thrombotic disease, PVD?

A

Usually forms on a chronic atherosclerotic stenosis in a patient who has
previously reported symptoms of claudication
• Thrombus may also form in normal vessels in individuals who are
hypercoagulable because of malignancy or thrombophilia defects
• Popliteal aneurysms may thromboses or embolise distally

286
Q

6 P’s of thrombotic disease, PVD?

A
pain
pallor 
perishing cold
pulseless
paralysis 
paraetheisa
287
Q

thrombotic disease PVD, treatment?

A
  • risk factor modification -> smoking cessation
  • hypertension, hyperlipidaemia and diabetes treatment
  • anti-platelet therapy
  • revascularisation
288
Q

what is shock?

A

acute circulatory failure with inadequate or
inappropriately distributed tissue perfusion (meaning there is inadequate
substrate (glucose & oxygen) for aerobic cellular respiration), resulting in
generalised hypoxia and/or an inability of the cells to utilise oxygen

289
Q

causes of shock?

A

Causes of shock:
- Hypovolaemic shock - low blood volume (trauma, bleeding, dehydration)
- Cardiogenic shock - heart isn’t pumping (cardia tamponade, PE, MI)
- Distributive shock:
• Septic shock
• Anaphylactic shock
• Neurogenic shock
- Anaemic shock - not enough oxygen carrying capacity
- Cytotoxic shock - cells poisoned

290
Q

class I, haemorrhage shock?

A
  • 15% blood loss
  • Pulse below 100 bpm
  • BP normal
  • Pulse pressure normal
291
Q

class II, haemorrhage shock?

A

15-30% blood loss
• Pulse greater than 100 bpm (tachycardia - earliest sign)
• BP normal due to autonomic response (increased sympathetic activity)
• Pulse pressure decreased

292
Q

class III, haemorrhage shock?

A

30-40% blood loss
• Pulse above 120 bpm
• BP decreased
• Pulse pressure decreased

293
Q

clinical presentation of hypovolumic shock?

A
Inadequate tissue perfusion:
- Skin: cold, pale, clammy, slate-grey,
- Brain: drowsiness and confusion
• Increased sympathetic tone
• Tachycardia - narrow pulse pressure and weak pulse
• Sweating
294
Q

cariogenic shock, symptoms?

A

Signs of myocardial failure
• Raised jugular venous pressure (JVP)
• Gallop rhythm
• Basal crackles and pulmonary oedema

295
Q

septic shock symptoms?

A

Pyrexia and rigors
• Nausea and vomiting
• Vasodilation with warm peripheries
• Bounding pulse

296
Q

ARDS?

A

Impaired oxygenation
• Bilateral pulmonary fluid buildup
• NO CARDIAC FAILURE
• Normal pulmonary arterial pressure

297
Q

aetiology of ARDS?

A
Extrapulmonary:
• Shock of any cause
• Head injury
• Drug reaction
• Sepsis
- Pulmonary:
• Pneumonia
• Chemical pneumonitis
• Smoke inhalation
• Near drowning
298
Q

pathophysiology of ARDS?

A

Alveolar capillary membrane injury results in leakage of fluid into the
alveolar spaces
- There is resulting neutrophil invasion which attracts more neutrophils =
EXUDATIVE PHASE
- Eventually fibroblasts come in and initiate healing = PROLIFERATIVE
PHASE
- And make scar tissue = FIBROTIC PHASE (scarring due to fibroblasts)
- Results in severely stiff lungs and thus SEVERE DIFFICULTY IN
VENTILATION and thus O2 BLOOD PERFUSION!