Cardiac Pathophysiology Week 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are 7 pathologies that are filling problems?

A
  1. Diastolic HF
  2. Restrictive Cardiomyopathy
  3. Cardiac Tamponade
  4. Constrictive Pericarditis
  5. Restrictive Pericarditis
  6. Tricuspid Valve Stenosis (RV filling problem)
  7. Mitral Valve Stenosis
    (LV filling problem)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are 5 pathologies that are emptying problems?

A
  1. Systolic HF
  2. Left sided HF
  3. Dilated Cardiomyopathy
  4. Pulmonic Valve Stenosis (RV emptying problem)
  5. Aortic Valve Stenosis (LV emptying problem) - concentric remodeling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 2 pathologies that are filling AND emptying problems?

A
  1. Low-output HF

2. Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What 4 pathologies are volume overload issues?

A
  1. Systolic HF
  2. Tricuspid Valve regurgitation
  3. Mitral Valve Regurgitation
  4. Aortic Valve Regurgitation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What 3 pathologies are pressure overload pathologies?

A
  1. Aortic Stenosis
  2. Pulmonary HTN
  3. Systemic HTN
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What 4 pathologies are contracting problems?

A
  1. Angina
  2. Unstable Angina
  3. NSTEMI
  4. STEMI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

During muscle contraction, ATP is required to ____ crossbridges.

A

Break

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Mechanism of myocardial contraction. 5 steps.

A

Myosin is bound to actin

  1. ATP binds to myosin → energy released → bond broken
  2. Myosin now ‘cocked” and ready to go
  3. Actin binding site is exposed & “cocked” myosin binds
  4. Conformational change in myosin = “powerstroke”
  5. Actin filament is moved along myosin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

ATP use is proportional to ____?

A

MVO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are 5 factors that modulate MVO2?

A

1 is CARDIOMYOCYTE CONTRACTION

  1. Preload; optimization of tension formation
  2. HR; the more contractile events per minute ↑MVO2
  3. Inotropy; increased Ca2+ release & sensitivity = more cross bridges formed at a faster rate = ↑MVO2
  4. Afterload

CO is WORK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are 3 factors that can impact afterload?

A
  1. ↑ LV pressure = ↑ afterload
  2. ↑ Chamber radius = ↑ afterload
  3. ↑ ventricular wall thickness = ↓ afterload
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How does afterload impact the velocity of contraction or BP?

A

↑ afterload = ↓ velocity of contraction = ↓ time for systole = ↓ volume ejected (SV) = ↓BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does concentric hypertrophy impact afterload?

A

↑ wall thickening = ↓ afterload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How does eccentric hypertrophy impact afterload?

A

↑radius / dilation of ventricle = ↑ afterload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does aortic stenosis impact afterload?

A

requires ↑ ventricular pressure = ↑↑afterload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does LVOT obstruction impact afterload

A

requires ↑ ventricular pressure = ↑ afterload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are 4 ways the CRNA can reduce MVO2?

A
  1. Prevent HR increase (aka SNS activation)
  2. Prevent ↑ inotropy (via SNS, Ca2+, Ca2+ sensitivity
  3. Prevent ↑ afterload
  4. Prevent ↑ preload (too high)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

MVO2 is increased by what 4 factors?

A
  1. Afterload
  2. HR
  3. Inotropy
  4. Preload
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How does ischemic heart disease impact MVO2?

A

↑↑ risk for ischemic event

**make coronary blood flow PRIORITY in the anesthetic plan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Coronary blood flow is how much of the cardiac output?

A

5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the O2 extraction in the coronary arteries?

A

70-80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

CorrPP = ???

A

(ADBP - LVEDP) / resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How does HR effect coronary blood flow?

A

“DOUBLE WHAMMY”

  1. less diastolic time
  2. increased O2 demand
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What 5 factors impact coronary artery resistance?

A
  1. cardiac work output
  2. extravascular compressive forces
  3. Neurohumoral & endothelial factors
  4. Blood O2 content impacts cardiac work & metabolic demand of the heart.
  5. **MYOCARDIAL METABOLISM IS THE PREDOMINANT DETERMINANT OF CORONARY VASOMOTOR TONE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

4 components of the Neurohumoral regulation of coronary VSMC tone

A
  1. # 1 = metabolic autoregulation
  2. SNS / PSNS (minor role)
  3. Shear forces; dilation
  4. Intraluminal pressure ; constriction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the 2 categories of coronary artery disease?

A
  1. atherosclerotic

2. non-atherosclerotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

4 pathologies / results of coronary artery disease

A
  • Angina
  • Unstable angina
  • NSTEMI
  • STEMI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

3 pathologies of Acute Coronary Syndrome

A
  • Unstable angina
  • NSTEMI
  • STEMI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Acute coronary syndromes cause considerate ___ & ___

A

considerable immediate morbidity & mortality

HIGH risk of additional injury in the next ONE YEAR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

CK-MB

A

creatine kinase, myocardial bound isoenzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

For angina to be stable it must be unchanged for ___

A

> 2 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Clinical manifestations of stable angina

A

minimal pain, unchanged for >2 months,

possible EKG changes, ST depression, or T-wave inversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

S/S of stable angina

A

chest pain DURING exertion, pressure, heaviness
-may or may not radiate to arm, shoulder, jaw, neck
epigastric pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

S/S of unstable angina

A

chest pain w/ or w/o exertion
NO cardiac enzymes present in the blood
EKG changes, ST depression or T-wave inversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Pathological causes of angina

A
  • atherosclerosis
  • inflammation
  • non-occlusive thrombus
  • vasospasm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Anesthetic GOAL in patient with angina

A

decrease MVO2

prevent ischemic event while maintaining CO & BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

6 medications or classes to consider giving for angina

A
  1. O2
  2. analgesia
  3. Beta blocker
  4. Ca channel blocker
  5. sublingual NO
  6. anticoagulation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How long does anticoagulation last if a drug-eluding stent is placed?

A

1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How long does anticoagulation last if bare metal stent is placed?

A

6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

If a patient has angina, what 3 things should be avoided in the OR?

A
  1. medications that ↑HR and/or BP
  2. triggering the SNS response
  3. Hypotension [be careful with regional d/t ↓SVR = hypotension]
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

In LV heart failure, what anesthetic should be avoided?

A

inhaled anesthetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What volatile anesthetic can cause BAD steal effect in the coronary arteries?

A

Isoflurane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are 4 post-op considerations for a patient with angina?

A
  1. AVOID ISCHEMIA
  2. monitor for ischemia
  3. treat ischemia
  4. avoid sustained hemodynamic changes
44
Q

Causes of NSTEMI

A

partial blockage of an artery by thrombus, plaque

45
Q

Clinical manifestations of NSTEMI

A

chest pain; may or may not radiate
*elderly may not have pain

anxious, pale, diaphoretic, tachy, hypotension, dyspnea, nausea, vomiting, dizziness, sudden weakness, fatigue

46
Q

When will cardiac enzymes be present in the blood?

A

NSTEMI & STEMI

47
Q

What are 2 main cardiac enzymes?

A

cTroponin

CK-MB

48
Q

What is different in STEMI vs. NSTEMI

A

STEMI is 100% block (full thickness ischemia)

NSTEMI is <100% block

49
Q

An ischemic event is NOT an MI if:

A

troponin is not elevated

50
Q

Clinical manifestations of STEMI (4)

A
  1. physical s/s
  2. significant ST elevation on EKG
  3. cardiac enzymes present
  4. myocardial ischemia
51
Q

Warning sign for STEMI and what does it indicate?

A

worsening angina

2/3 of patients had MI within 30d of worsening angina

52
Q

Anesthetic Implications of STEMI

A
  1. give thrombolytic

* bleeding risk ↑ with history of GI bleed, surgery, intracranial hemorrhage, >75 years old

53
Q

When does a perioperative MI occur?

A

within 24-48 hours after surgery

54
Q

What factors increase the risk of a perioperative MI?

A

Hx ischemic heart disease
emergency surgery
highly vascular surgery

55
Q

what is the mortality of perioperative MI?

A

20%

56
Q

What is a perioperative MI preceded by?

A

Tachycardia & ST depression

57
Q

Most perioperative MIs are what kind?

A

NSTEMI

58
Q

Why is diagnosis of a perioperative MI difficult?

A
  • post-op hemodynamic instability is common
  • post-op analgesia may mask chest pain
  • ECG changes alone are not diagnostic
  • Cardiac enzyme levels are not indicative of duration of ischemia
59
Q

Percutaneous Cardiac Intervention (PCI) is AKA

A

angioplasty

60
Q

How long should a patient wait after PCI to have surgery?

A

90 days

61
Q

What are anesthetic considerations of PCI?

A
if PCI was recent, patient likely on anti-platelet therapy
     - weigh bleeding risk vs thrombus
monitor closely for MI or infarct
     - continuous ECG w/ST analysis
     - TEE for ventricular wall function
62
Q

What is intraoperative hypotension?

A

SBP <90mmHg

63
Q

What are 5 causes of intraoperative hypotension?

A
  1. drug side effects (sympatholytic)
  2. decreased stimulation
  3. Neuraxial anesthesia (↓SNS = ↓SVR = hypotension, bradycardia)
  4. MI / congestive HF
  5. HTN patients are at much higher risk of intraoperative hypotension
64
Q

Clinical implications of a ↓DBP

A
  • ↓coronary artery perfusion = cardiac ischemia or infarct
  • ↓ cerebral perfusion
  • ASSOCIATED WITH ANESTHESIA RELATED DEATH
65
Q

patients with uncontrolled HTN at baseline may develop hypotensive effects, when?

A

at a “normal” BP

66
Q

What are 5 mechanisms that cause ↓DBP?

A
  1. Arterial vasodilation
  2. myocardial depression
  3. venodilation
  4. bradycardia
  5. decreased volume (↓F/S)
67
Q

What are the CV effects/mechanisms of arterial vasodilation? (5)

A
↓SNS
↑metabolites
↓SVR
↓CO
↓BP
68
Q

What are the CV effects/mechanisms of myocardial depression?

A
drugs
↓SNS
↓inotropy
↓SVR
↓CO
↓BP
69
Q

What are the CV effects/mechanisms of venodilation?

A

↓VR
↓SV
↓CO
↓BP

70
Q

What are the CV effects of bradycardia?

A

↓HR
↓CP
↓BP

71
Q

Treatments for intra-operative Hypotension

A
  • modest fluid loading
  • smaller initial drug dose
  • re-introduce RAAS (hold ACEi / ARBs)
  • monitor for intraop MI
  • Small doses of short acting vasoactive meds
  • small short acting vasoactive gtt
72
Q

What is considered acute post-op hypotension?

A

SBP <90
MAP <65
OR >20% drop from baseline

73
Q

What are causes of acute post-op hypotension?

A
  • administration of anti-hypertensive meds
  • inadequate fluid replacement
  • blood loss
  • residual anesthetic effects
  • allergic rxn
  • adrenal insufficiency
  • myocardial ischemia / CHF
74
Q

What is considered perioperative hypertension?

A

USA BP > 130/80

Europe BP >140/90

75
Q

Clinical implications of hypertension?

A
  • leads to 57% of stroke deaths
  • 24% of CVD deaths
  • BP lability
  • High risk of hypotension INTRA-OP
  • High risk of HTN POST-OP

*even short duration of MAP <65 mmHg can have deleterious effects = increased mortality, AKI, MI, Stroke

76
Q

Goal when a patient has Hx HTN

A

maintain BP within 20% of baseline & keep MAP >65mmHg

77
Q

treatment of HTN

A

vasoactive medications; short acting, monitor frequently, do not overdose

78
Q

Patients that are candidates for intra-op arterial BP monitoring

A

CAD
cerebral ischemic disease
bleeding and/or fluid shifts

79
Q

Goal when caring for a patient with HTN

A

prevent end organ damage

80
Q

Proceed with surgery if a patient’s BP is

A

DBP <110mmHg

SBP <180mmHg

81
Q

Factors that can ↑SNS perioperatively

A
anxiety
pain
DL/intubation
surgical stimulation
hypoxemia/hypercarbia
hypervolemia
vasoactive meds [must be short acting and SMALL doses]
82
Q

What is isolated systolic hypertension?

A

SBP >140

DBP <90 (normal)

83
Q

What causes isolated systolic hypertension?

A

stiffening of blood vessels; primarily in elderly

Suspect if patient is >65yr old

84
Q

Patients with isolated systolic hypertension are at significantly increased risk of?
(7)

A

CAD, ischemic heart disease, left ventricular hypertrophy, CVA, perioperative morbidity & mortality

85
Q

In a patient with isolated systolic hypertension, aggressive attempts to lower the SBP may result in

A

PROFOUND diastolic hypotension & compromised end organ perfusion

86
Q

What is worse, elevated SBP or widening pulse pressure?

A

widening pulse pressure

87
Q

What are the 2 types of hypertensive crisis?

A
  1. hypertensive urgency

2. hypertensive emergency

88
Q

What is hypertensive urgency?

A

BP >180/120mmHg

89
Q

What are the s/s of hypertensive urgency?

A

headache, epistaxis, anxiety

90
Q

What is a hypertensive emergency?

A

BP > 180/120 & EVIDENCE OF END ORGAN DAMAGE

91
Q

Hypertensive emergency is especially dangerous in who?

A

women about to give birth

92
Q

What pathologies can cause hypertensive emergency? (4)

A
  1. acute coronary syndrome
  2. acute decompensating HF
  3. acute LV failure with pulmonary edema
  4. dissecting aortic aneurysm
  5. Pheochromocytoma
93
Q

What are post-op complications of hypertensive emergency?

A

hemorrhage & increased ICP

94
Q

What are the neurological s/s of hypertensive emergency?

A

agitation, delirium, stupor, visual disturbances, seizures, stroke, encephalopathy

95
Q

What is the treatment of hypertensive emergency?

A
  1. IV antihypertensive
  2. short acting vasodilators (SNP)
  3. AVOID precipitous decline to normo-tension, may cause cerebral or coronary ischemia
96
Q

Pheochromocytoma

A

Adrenal gland chromaffin cell tumor

97
Q

What is released from a pheochromocytoma?

A

NE > Epi

opposite of normal

98
Q

S/S of pheochromocytoma?

A
Tachycardia
diaphoresis
headache
paroxysmal HTN
hyperglycemia
99
Q

What can worsen the catecholamine effects of pheochromocytoma?

A

anesthesia

100
Q

What medication should you give with pheochromocytoma?

A

Phentolamine

101
Q

What does phentolamine do?

A

inhibits A1 receptors = vasodilation

102
Q

What are the 4 pathological outcomes of pheochromocytoma

A
  1. CVH
  2. HF
  3. arrhythmias
  4. MI
103
Q

What do you give pheochromocytoma patients in preop?

A

PO phenoxybenzamine and/or IV phentolamine

104
Q

What do you give pheochromocytoma patients post-op?

A

administration of inotropic agents to correct hypotension resulting from catecholamine withdrawal

105
Q

What are the 3 take aways from HTN/Hypotension?

A
  1. hypotension = high risk morbidity & mortality
  2. the most at risk patients are HTN patients
  3. HTN patients are the lowest risk for HTN emergency