Cardiac Labs Flashcards

1
Q

What is the MOA behind S1 (1st heart sound)?

A

During systole, mitral valve closes d/t increased pressure in the LV –> produces the S1 sound

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2
Q

What is the MOA behind the ejection sound?

A

The pressure in the LV continues to rise and opens the aortic valve (difficult to hear)

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3
Q

What is the MOA behind S2 (2nd heart sound)?

A

As the blood leaves the LV the pressure drops below that in the aorta, aortic valve closes –> produces the S2 sound

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4
Q

What is the MOA behind the opening snap?

A

As the pressure in the LV continues to fall, it falls below the pressure of the LA and the mitral valve opens

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5
Q

What is the MOA behind S3?

A

Soon after opening of the mitral valve, rapid flow of blood flow from the LA to the LV. When rapid flow hits the wall of the LV (passive filling) it produces S3 (nml in children/ y.as; S3 gallop in older adults may be pathologic d/t change in myocardium)

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6
Q

What is the MOA behind S4?

A

LA contracts to “squeeze” the last bit of blood into the LV to produce S4 (stiff myocardium)

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7
Q

What is the MOA behind a split heart sound?

A

The R side event occurs slightly after the L side and because of this, you can occasionally hear “split heart sounds” (inc pressure in chest causes delay in pulmonic valve closure)

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8
Q

What is the MOA behind A2 and P2 sounds?

A

During inspiration S2 can be split into A2 (aortic valve) & P2 (pulmonic) normally. During expiration, sounds are combined into 1 sound (S2)
Prolonged ejection of blood from the RV which delays closure of pulmonic valve

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9
Q

Name 3 factors that affect stroke volume

A

Preload: volume (creating a pressure) that stretches the cardiac muscle prior to contraction
Afterload: vascular resistance (w/ inc BP, heart has to work harder to pump)
Muscle Contractility: ability for the cardiac muscle to contract when given a volume

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10
Q

What is the pulse pressure?

A

Difference between SBP and DBP. Small change w /each breath (can be large difference if PTX)

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11
Q

How would you calculate the Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP)?

A

Diastolic + 1/3 (pulse pressure)

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12
Q

When measuring arterial pressures, what would the graph look like?

A

Systolic phase (ejected wave) then systolic peak, then dicrotic notch; diastolic phase (reflected wave)

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13
Q

What does the dicrotic notch represent?

A

Once the aortic valve closes, it sends a pressure wave through the arterial system

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14
Q

Why is venous pressure than arterial pressure?

A

Decreased smooth muscle and vascular tone in the venous side, as well as a loss of pressure after the blood travels through the capillary bed

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15
Q

What are some situations that would increase venous pressure?

A

Decreased RV function, increased pressure within the thoracic cavity (to the R side of the heart); cardiac tamponade, CHF, etc.

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16
Q

How would increased venous pressure manifest itself?

A

Can be seen in the jugular venous column –> jugular vein distention. Can be measures from the R side with a ruler

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17
Q

In the venous pulsation graph, what does the a wave represent?

A

Atrial contraction: no valve in the SVC/ IVC so blood will go in both directions (tricuspid is open)

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18
Q

In the venous pulsation graph, what does the x descent represent?

A

Starts with atrial relaxation (filling) and continues with RV contraction (pulls the floor of the RA downwards, tricuspid closes)
Pressure in venous system is dropping as blood is leaving veins & filling the atria

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19
Q

In the venous pulsation graph, what does the v wave represent?

A

Tricuspid closure & rise in RA pressure (full)

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20
Q

In the venous pulsation graph, what does the y descent represent?

A

Opening of the tricuspid and drop in the RA pressure (emptying)

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21
Q
What are the normal vital sign values for: 
BP?
MAP?
CVP?
Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure?
Heart rate?
A
BP: < 140/ < 90
MAP: > 60 mmHg
CVP: 8-12 mmHg
Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure: 6-12 mmHg
Heart rate: 60-100
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22
Q

What are some common signs & symptoms of the pathological heart?

A
  • Chest pain/ discomfort
  • Dyspnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
  • Orthopnea: difficulty breathing while supine
  • Cyanosis
  • Hyper- / Hypotension
  • Lightheadedness/ Presyncope/ Syncope
  • Peripheral/pulm edema, anasarca (entire body edema),
  • Cardiac arrhythmias (supraventricular, AV nodal, ventricular)
  • Palpitations
  • EKG changes
  • Echocardiographic changes: dec ejection fraction, valve abnormalities, wall motion abnml, inc. pulmonary artery pressure
  • Cardiomegaly on CXR
  • Asymptomatic
  • Diminished/ exaggerated pulses
  • Pulsus paradoxus
  • Pulsus alterans
  • JVD
  • New onset murmurs
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23
Q

Define Pulsus paradoxus

A

A drop in systolic pressure by > 10 mmHg during inspiration d/t inc pressure in the thoracic compartment (consider PTX, cardiac tamponade d/t pressure)

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24
Q

Define Pulsus alterans

A

Pulse alternates in amplitude from beat to beat when the rhythm is nml. May suggest LV faiure

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25
Q

Define electric alterans

A

Seen on the EKG with alternating QRS amplitude: d/t inc pressure on the heart

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26
Q

What are the 2 types of murmurs?

A

Stenotic valve: narrowing of vessel itself
Insufficient valve: regurgitation
-Valvular abnormalities create turbulent flow & cause abnml heart sounds

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27
Q

Where/ when is aortic stenosis best heard?

A

Aortic area (R 2nd ICS) during systole

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28
Q

Where/ when is aortic regurgitation best heard?

A

Along L lateral border during diastole

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29
Q

Where/when is mitral stenosis best heard?

A

At the apex (L 5th ICS) during diastole

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30
Q

Where/when is mitral regurgitation best heard?

A

At the apex during diastole

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31
Q

Why are tricuspid/ pulmonic murmurs harder to hear?

A

Lower pressure system on the R side

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32
Q

What 4 major considerations in the approach to the cardiac pt according to the NY Heart Association?

A
  • Determine the underlying etiology
  • Determine if an anatomic abnormality is present
  • Determine if a physiologic disturbance is present
  • Determine if a functional disability is present
33
Q

What are the 4 major underlying etiologies of cardiac pts?

A
  • Congenital
  • Infectious
  • Hypertensive
  • Ischemic
34
Q

What are the 5 major anatomic abnormalities of cardiac pts?

A
  • Chamber abnormality
  • Hypertrophy, dilatation, or both
  • Valvular abnormality
  • Pericardial abnormality
  • Myocardial abnormality (infarction/ wall motion)
35
Q

What are the 3 major physiologic disturbances of cardiac pts?

A
  • Arrhythmia
  • Congestive Heart Failure
  • Myocardial infarction
36
Q

Define functional disability of cardiac pts?

A

How it affects the pt’s life; are they able to perform strenuous tasks?

37
Q

What 4 things should be obtained when making a cardiac diagnosis?

A

History (HPI, FHx, Social Hx, Meds, Allergies)
P.E (murmurs, JVD, could be asymp)
Lab tests
Diagnostic tests (noninvasive or invasive)

38
Q

Give examples of noninvasive diagnostic tests

A
  • EKG
  • CXR
  • ECHO
  • Nuclear imaging
  • MRI/ CT
  • Stress testing
  • Esophageal Doppler monitoring
39
Q

Give examples of invasive diagnostic tests

A
  • Percutaneous coronary intervention (diagnostic & therapeutic)
  • Swan-Ganz catheter
40
Q

When does Creatine Kinase peak? Decline? What other setting could elevate CK levels?

A
  • Rises 4 - 8 hours post infarction (peaks after 24 hrs)
  • Declines after 2 -3 days
  • Inaccurate in the setting of skeletal breakdown & large CK release; chronic skeletal injury resulting in release of MB
  • If CK is in the nml range and the MB is elevated, microinfarctions
41
Q

What are CK isoenzymes? What is the CK-MB index?

A
  • MM (skeletal & cardiac), BB (brain & kidney) &
    MB (cardiac & skeletal) –> most frequently checked for cardiac event (CK-MB)
  • Ratio of 2.5 or > of MB (usually indicative of an M.I.
42
Q

What are troponins? 3 types of troponins?

A
  • 3 types that regulate Calcium-mediated contractile process of striated muscles
  • Troponin C: binds Ca++
  • Troponin I: binds to actin & inhibits actin-myosin interactions (esp w/ chest pain)
  • Troponin T: binds to tropomyosin, thereby attaching the troponin complex to the thin filament
43
Q

When is troponin released? How long do they last?

A

When a myocyte is damanged (after ~3 hours)
Persists for 7 - 10 days (Trop I)
Can last > 10 - 14 days (Trop T)

44
Q

What is BNP? What are the normal/ abnml values?

A

-B type Natretic Peptide: Released in the setting of atrial stretch
< 100 pg/dL is nml
> 400 pg/dL: high predictive value for CHF (could also be P.E. which causes a backup flow)
-Must compare it with their baseline

45
Q

What 4 values show up on a lipid panel?

A
  • Total cholesterol
  • HDL
  • LDL
  • Triglycerides
46
Q

What does the P wave represent? QRS wave? T wave?

A
  • P wave: atrial depolarization
  • QRS wave: (septal then) ventricular depolarization/ atrial repolarization
  • T wave: ventricular repolarization
47
Q

What issues can be seen on an EKG?

A
  • Arrhythmias

- Structural issues: ischemia, dilatation, infarct

48
Q

Describe an echocardiograph

What does M mode echo measure?

A
  • Uses U/S technology to visualize the heart (can clue you into volume & pressure changes & structure)
  • M mode: temporal changes in depth vs. time
49
Q

What are 5 factors that are measured by 2D trans-thoracic echocardiogram?

A
  • Cardiac chambers: chamber size, LVH, regional WMA (wall motional abnml)
  • Valves: morphology & motions ( size, stenosis, regurg)
  • Pericardium: effusions, tamponade
  • Great vessels: size (IVC, root of aorta)
  • Masses (i.e. myxoma)
50
Q

What will an apical 4 view show on an echo?

A

The 4 chambers with base at the bottom, apex at the top (closest to skin)

51
Q

What will a sub xiphoid 4 view show on an echo?

A

4 chambers tilted to the right with L chambers at the bottom, R chambers at the top

52
Q

What will a parasternal long view show on an echo?

A

Will show a better view of the valves; mostly mitral valve & aortic valve

53
Q

What will a parasternal short view show on an echo?

A

Shows LV & RV: can get info about ejection fraction, signs of valvular dz, pressure changes (estimated w/in pulmonary system), wall structure abnormalities, coronary artery dz

54
Q

What 5 ways can a trans-thoracic echo be used?

A
  • To ID aortic dz
  • To ID infective endocarditis
  • To ID the source of an embolism
  • To view a valve prosthesis
  • Used intraoperatively
  • Inadequate trans-thoracic views (looks at back of heart); more invasive: requires sedation, risk of cardiac event, damage to esophagus, oropharynx
55
Q

What 6 ways can a Doppler echo be used?

A
  • Valve stenosis (gradient; valve area)
  • Valve regurgitation
  • Intracardiac pressures
  • Volumetric flow
  • Diastolic filling
  • Intracardiac shunts (“bubble” studies)
56
Q

What is a “bubble” study?

A

Frothy saline is injected into the venous system: seen going through the vasculature; if there is a suspected R –> L shunt, bubbles can be visualized going through the septum

57
Q

What 3 main ways can a stress echocardiography be used?

A

2D: myocardial ischemia; viable myocardium
Doppler: valve dz

58
Q

How is nuclear imaging used to test for cardiac abnormalities? Limitations?

A

A radioactive isotope (technetium 99m or thallium 201) is injected which emits photons that are captured by a special camera: looking for tissue abnormalities, can be used in addition to a stress test to see where abnormalities are

-Emits photons in all directions; using high energy isotopes results in less scattering

59
Q

For what conditions are nuclear imaging used?

A

To asses ventricular functioning, myocardial perfusion (resting vs. stress using exercise or pharmacology i.e. adenosine or dipyridoamole or dobutamine)

60
Q

What is multiple gated blood pool imaging?

A

Tagged RBCs are measured as they pool through several cardiac cycles

61
Q

What is first pass radionuclide angiography?

A

Blood flow through the first pass of the isotope

62
Q

What is gated (SPECT)?

A

Assesses ejection fraction and WMA

63
Q

How is a stress test determined?

A
  • Initial EKG
  • Pt’s physical ability
  • Underlying diseases
64
Q

What are 4 types of stress tests?

A

Stress EKG: Duke’s Treadmill Score (up to 90% of optimal heart rate for age range to see if they experience chest pain)

Stress echo: decreased ejection fraction & decreased end diastolic volume or WMA

Stress nuclear imaging: imaging defects

Exercise stress testing: Bruce protocol

65
Q

What is MRI/CT imaging used for in cardiac pts?

A

Used to evaluate complex anatomical abnormalities i.e. amyloidosis (motion-related abnormalities) – not as common

CT: (more than MRI, faster) good at evaluating pericardial calcification (constrictive pericarditis), cardiac masses, coronary calcifications (CAD)

MRI perfusion: (slow) bolus contrast to see areas of decreased intensity

66
Q

What is MRA/ CTA imaging used for in cardiac pts?

A

MRA/CTA: used to evaluate intra-vessel abnormalities

67
Q

What are 2 indications for Cardiac angiography?

A
  • Needed when cardiac dz needs confirmation

- Acute or worsening cardiac dysfunction or MI (to diagnose CAD or treatment with stent)

68
Q

What are 6 relative contraindications for cardiac angiography?

A
  • Infants < 1 mo & elderly > 86 y.o
  • Functional Class IV 10x greater than I-II (no ADLs)
  • L main dz
  • Valvular dz
  • EF < 30%
  • Renal dz, DM, vascular dz, severe pulmonary dz
69
Q

What are some potential complications of cardiac angiography?

A
  • CVA
  • M.I
  • Arrhythmia
  • Vessel damage (rupture/ dissection)
  • Heart damage (rupture)
  • Renal failure or allergic rxns from contrast dye
70
Q

What are the 3 types of cardiac angiography?

A

-R heart: through venous system into vena cava
-L heart: through arterial system into aortic valve/ LV
Ventriculogram: seeing how much contrast dye is ejected after injecting into LV; determines EF
-Coronary angiography: going through the L or R ostia to assess coronary arteries

71
Q

How is fluoroscopy used in the setting of cardiac angiography? vs. CABG/ bypass?

A

Used with contrast dye because it’s dynamic; looking for narrowed areas, can potentially place a stent (vessel must be bigger, more proximal) to see if perfusion improves

CABG or bypass would be used for obstructions more distal

72
Q

What is a Pulmonary Artery Catheter used for? How is it placed?

A
  • Catherization of the R heart with the use of a flow-directed balloon-tipped catheter (Swan-Ganz); can also measure pressures in L heart (surrogate marker)
  • Placed IV (subclavian) and floated into the pulmonary artery (taking blood from each area via ports)
73
Q

How is PAC used to assess CO?

A

Thermodilution is reproducible and accurate in determining CO (compared to Fick method & dye dilution)

74
Q

What is Fick’s CO equation?

A

O2 uptake or consumption/ ([arterial O2] - [venous O2])

75
Q

What are 4 major problems with PAC?

A
  • Data may be interpreted inappropriately (required experience, depends on indiv. pt factors)
  • Increased intrathoracic pressure (i.e. PEEP) can give false elevated PAOP by increasing juxtacardiac pressure (PEEP of 8-10cm H2O can inc PAOP to 27)
  • LV compliance is an important factor
  • Myocardial “stiffness”
76
Q

What are 4 major ways to alter LV compliance?

A
  • LV preload
  • LV afterload
  • LV mass
  • Ventricular “stiffness”
77
Q

What are some ways to alter myocardial “stiffness”?

A
  • M.I
  • Sepsis
  • DM
  • Obesity
  • Age
  • Sustained tachycardia
  • Dialysis
  • Cardioplegia
78
Q

What is needed for Pulmonary Artery Occlusion Pressure to be determined? What is PAOP NOT used for?

A
  • A valid, accurate PAOP tracing is needed; correct interpretation; PAOP is accurate representation to the LVEDP; linear relationship b/n LVEDP & LVEDV
  • NOT FOR determining intravascular volume; poor predictor of LV preload and change in CO
79
Q

What are some risks associated with PAC?

A
  • Infection
  • Bleeding
  • Clotting
  • PTX
  • PE
  • Pulmonary artery rupture
  • Death