Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

A&P Cardiac > Cardiac > Flashcards

Cardiac Flashcards

1
Q

What is the ion responsible for binding the oxygen?

A) Heme
B) Iron

A

B) iron

*The heme pigment contains the centrally located iron atom.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the lifespan of a red blood cell?

A) 120 days
B) 10 years?

A

A) 120 days

*Red blood cells have a finite lifespan because they have no organelles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When do red blood cells start to synthesize hemoglobin?

A) When they enter general circulation
B) While they are still in the bone marrow

A

B). While they are still in the bone marrow.

*Red blood cells need to synthesize the hemoglobin before they lose their nucleus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where in the hemoglobin does carbon dioxide bind?

A) the iron molecule
B) the amino acids

A

B) the amino acids.

*The iron only binds to oxygen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How do red blood cells generate energy?

A) anaerobically
B) aerobically

A

A) anaerobically.

*The red blood cells do not use any of the oxygen they are transporting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In which organ are old and damaged red blood cells broken down?

A) the bone marrow
B) the spleen

A

B) the spleen.

*The spleen is sometimes referred to as the red blood cell graveyard.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is heme converted to once it has been dissociated from hemoglobin?

A) bile
B) bilirubin

A

B) bilirubin.

*Once heme dissociates, the iron is removed and the rest is converted to bilirubin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which hemoglobin has a higher binding affinity for oxygen?

A) fetal hemoglobin
B) adult hemoglobin

A

A) fetal hemoglobin.

*The gamma hemoglobin subunits allow a slightly different conformational change, which helps iron bind more readily to oxygen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the pressure exerted by the blood against the walls of arteriole blood vessels called?

A) blood pressure
B) mean arterial pressure

A

A) blood pressure.

*Mean arterial pressure is the pressure that propels blood to the tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where is the juxtoglomerullar apparatus found?

A) in the Bowman’s Capsule
B) in the glomerulus

A

A) in the Bowman’s Capsule.

*It is located in the wall between the entrance and exit of the efferent and afferent arteriole.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What do the cells of the JGA monitor?

A) blood pH
B) blood pressure

A

B) blood pressure.

*The mechanoreceptors and chemoreceptors monitor blood pressure and the rate of blood filtrate formation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When angiotensin 2 causes vasoconstriction, does it

A) decrease blood pressure
B) increase blood pressure

A

B) increase blood pressure.

*Vasoconstriction by angiotensin 2 increases mean arterial pressure, which in turn increases systemic blood pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which hormone is initially released in response to a low GFR?

A) renin
B) angiotensin 2

A

A) renin.

*Angiotensin 2 is only converted and released after renin has stimulated the conversion of angiotensin 1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which ventricle is used to determine the blood pressure of the heart?

A) the left ventricle
B) the right ventricle

A

A) the left ventricle.

*The force of contractions in the left ventricle are much greater than the right.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is another term that refers to contraction of the heart muscles?

A) systole
B) diastole

A

A) systole.

*Diastole is the term for heart muscle relaxation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does the one twenty refer to in the blood pressure measurement of one twenty over eighty?

A) systole
B) diastole

A

A) systole.

*This is the pressure needed to eject the blood from the left ventricle to the aorta.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which set of valves is located between the atria and the ventricles?

A) atrioventricular valves
B) the semilunar valves

A

A) the atrioventricular valves.

*The semilunar valves are located between the ventricles and the arterial blood vessels exiting the heart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When increased, which factor positively affects the stroke volume?

A) preload
B) afterload

A

A) preload.

*When increased, afterload causes a decrease in stroke volume.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which volume indicates the ventricles are filled to capacity before contraction?

A) end-systolic volume
B) end-diastolic volume

A

B) end-diastolic volume.

*End-diastolic volume is when the ventricles are passively filled because the muscle is relaxed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What do heart rate and stroke volume determine?

A) end-systolic volume
B) cardiac output

A

B) cardiac output.

*Cardiac output is determined by the heart beats per minute multiplied by the stroke volume.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What factor totally controls blood flow through the heart?

A) pressure changes
B) venous return

A

A) pressure changes.

*Pressure gradients form and blood flows along these gradients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

True or false? Contractility is dependent on the muscle stretch and end-diastolic volume.

A

Answer: False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

True or false? Cardiac output is a measure of the heart’s efficiency.

A

Answer: True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

True or false? Right ventricular systole is important for determining blood pressure measures.

A

Answer: False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

For a blood pressure of one hundred twenty over eighty, what does the eighty represent?

A) end-systolic volume
B) end-diastolic volume

A

B) end-systolic volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How would a high end-diastolic volume impact your stroke volume?

A) decrease it
B) increase it

A

B) increase it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The pressure in the aorta and pulmonary trunk are referred to as what?

A. Preload
B. Afterload
C. Contractility

A

B. Afterload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is it called when the contraction is occurring and pressure building, but there is no change in the volume of blood in the ventricles?

A. Ventricular filling phase
B. Isovolumetric relaxation phase
C. Isovolumetric contraction phase
D. Ventricular ejection phase

A

C. Isovolumetric contraction phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How many times greater is the cardiac output between a resting state and active state for a trained athlete?

A

Answer: Up to seven times greater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Parasympathetic activity _____ to your blood vessels?

A. Vasodilates
B. Vasoconstricts

A

B. Vasoconstricts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Sympathetic activity ______ to your blood vessels?

A. Vasodilates
B. Vasoconstricts

A

A. Vasodilates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A decrease in sympathetic activity to blood vessel walls would cause blood vessel diameter to ______, causing the resistance to ______, and the blood pressure to ______.

A. increase, decrease, increase
B. decrease, increase, increase
C. increase, decrease, decrease

A

C. increase, decrease, decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

An increase in vasoconstrictor substances in the bloodstream would cause blood vessel diameter to ______, causing the resistance to _____, and the blood pressure to ______.

A. decrease, increase, increase
B. increase, decrease, increase
C. decrease, increase, decrease

A

A. decrease, increase, increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Total peripheral resistance is affected by?

A. Vessel length, vessel diameter, increased
hematocrit
B. Vessel diameter, blood viscosity, increase BP
C. Vessel diameter, vessel length, blood viscosity

A

C. Vessel diameter, vessel length, blood viscosity

35
Q

Which factor affects the total peripheral resistance the MOST?

A. Vessel diameter
B. Vessel length
C. Blood viscosity
D. Both A and C

A

A. Vessel diameter

36
Q

Total peripheral resistance is affected most by vessel diameter, and is controlled by ______ stimulation.

A. Sympathetic
B. Parasympathetic

A

A. Sympathetic

37
Q

Diuretics ______ your blood volume, therefore _____ your BP.

A. lower, increases
B. increase, increases
C. lower, lower

A

C. lower, lower

38
Q

3 main factors affecting your BP are?

A. Blood volume, total peripheral resistance, vessel
length
B. Blood volume, cardiac output, total peripheral
resistance
C. Vessel diameter, blood volume, cardiac output

A

B. Blood volume, cardiac output, total peripheral

resistance

39
Q

When blood volume decreases, how is blood pressure affected?

A) increase
B) decrease

A

B) decrease

40
Q

If significant amounts of fluid are lost from the plasma, what happens to the osmolarity in blood?

A) decrease
B) increase

A

B) increase

41
Q

All the effects of angiotensin 2 are geared towards restoring what?

A. blood volume
B. blood pressure
C. blood volume and blood pressure.

A

C. blood volume and blood pressure.

42
Q

True or false? The maximum number of oxygen molecules a red blood cell can carry is 250 million.

A

Answer: False

43
Q

True or False? Red blood cells have a biconvex shape.

A

Answer: False

44
Q

True or false? Degraded heme is defecated.

A

Answer: True

45
Q

What do we call the white blood cells that break down old and damaged red blood cells?

A) basophils
B) macrophages

A

B) macrophages

46
Q

What is the protein called that transports iron?

A) ferritin
B) albumin

A

A) ferritin

47
Q

What is another name for a red blood cell?

A

Answer: erythrocyte

48
Q

What is the general name for a condition in which there is a low red blood cell count?

A

Answer: anemia

49
Q

What is the name for red blood cell formation?

A

Answer: hematopoiesis

50
Q

The circumflex branch of the left coronary artery mainly supplies blood to the:

A) Septum
B) Superior left ventricle
C) Lateral right ventricle
D) Intrinsic pacemakers

A

B) Superior left ventricle

51
Q

The right coronary artery supplies blood to the:

A) Septum
B) Left atrium
C) Lateral left ventricle
D) SA node

A

D) SA node

52
Q

Each large box on ECG graph paper measures how many seconds?

A) 0.01
B) 0.04
C) 0.1
D) 0.2

A

D) 0.2

53
Q

Each small square on ECG graph paper measures how many seconds?

A) 0.01
B) 0.04
C) 0.1
D) 0.2

A

B) 0.04

54
Q

Normal duration of the QRS complex is:

A) 0.01 to 1.04 seconds
B) 0.04 seconds or less
C) 0.12 seconds or less
D) More than 0.20 seconds

A

C) 0.12 seconds or less

55
Q

A patient’s ECG strip shows a regular rhythm with a QRS complex of 0.08, a rate of 145, a PR interval of 0.12, and one upright P wave before each QRS complex. You suspect that this rhythm is:

A) Sinus tachycardia
B) Supraventricular tachycardia
C) Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response
D) Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response

A

A) Sinus tachycardia

56
Q

Which of the following may cause sinus bradycardia?

A) Hyperthermia
B) Intrinsic sinus node disease
C) Hypercapnia
D) Increased sympathetic tone

A

B) Intrinsic sinus node disease

57
Q

A depressed ST segment suggests:

A) Ischemia or AMI
B) Endocarditis
C) Infection
D) Ventricular enlargement

A

A) Ischemia or AMI

58
Q

Unusually tall or inverted T waves may suggest the patient has:

A) Ischemia or an AMI
B) Hypercalcemia
C) Infection
D) Bundle branch block

A

A) Ischemia or an AMI

59
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of atrial fibrillation?

A) A totally irregular rhythm
B) Wide, bizarre-looking QRS complexes
C) P waves that change in appearance with each 
    heartbeat
D) Inverted T waves
A

A) A totally irregular rhythm

60
Q

You see an irregular rhythm on the monitor with a rate of 66 to 80, a normal PR interval, and a P wave for every QRS. The irregularities occur with the patient’s respiratory rate. You suspect that this rhythm is:

A) Atrial fibrillation with controlled response
B) Atrial flutter with controlled response
C) Sinus rhythm with frequent PACs

A

C) Sinus rhythm with frequent PACs

61
Q

Your patient has a regular bradycardic rhythm with a rate of 40, no P waves, and a QRS greater than 0.12. This is:

A) Sinus bradycardia with aberrancy
B) Junctional escape with aberrancy
C) Idioventricular rhythm

A

C) Idioventricular rhythm

62
Q

Your patient’s ECG strip shows a rhythm with a rate of 45, QRS of 0.08, and a P wave that appears after the QRS. You suspect that this dysrhythmia is most likely:

A) Idioventricular
B) Sinus bradycardia
C) Atrial fibrillation
D) Junctional escape rhythm

A

D) Junctional escape rhythm

63
Q

Your patient’s ECG strip shows a rhythm with a rate of 50; QRS of 0.12; and an upright, round P wave that appears to march through the QRS complexes. You suspect that this dysrhythmia is most likely:

A) Idioventricular
B) Sinus bradycardia
C) Third-degree AV block
D) Junctional escape rhythm

A

C) Third-degree AV block

64
Q

Premature ventricular complexes (PVCs):

A) Occur in the cardiac cycle later than the next
expected sinus beat.
B) Most often occur for no apparent reason in
individuals who have healthy hearts.
C) Are early ectopic beats that originate from an
irritable focus in the ventricular conduction system
or muscle tissue.
D) Produce increased ventricular contraction because
the impulse spreads from cell to cell across the
ventricles.

A

C) Are early ectopic beats that originate from an
irritable focus in the ventricular conduction system
or muscle tissue.

65
Q

The patient shows bleeding that presents in a steady, slow flow that is dark and red. This type of hemorrhage is called a(n):

A) Arterial bleed
B) Capillary bleed
C) Coagulation
D) Venous bleed

A

D) Venous bled

66
Q

The average circulating blood volume in an adult is:

A) 55 to 75 ml/kg
B) 75 ml/kg
C) 85 ml/kg
D) 90 to 105 ml/kg

A

A) 55 to 75 ml/kg

  • A sudden loss of 1 liter of blood in an adult is
    considered serious.
67
Q

What anchors the heart to some of the structures around it, such as the sternum and diaphragm?

A) Chordae tendineae
B) Papillary muscles
C) Fibrous parietal pericardium
D) Troponin

A

C) Fibrous parietal pericardium

*It is the outermost layer of the pericardial sac.

68
Q

Where does the coronary sinus end?

A) Right atria
B) Left atria
C) Right ventricle
D) Left ventricle

A

A) Right atria

*The coronary sinus drains into the right atria.

69
Q

Which term represents conduction velocity?

A) Chronotropic
B) Inotropic
C) Dromotropic
D) Automaticity

A

C) Dromotropic

*The dromotropic effect refers to the conduction speed through the AV junction.

70
Q

What is the intrinsic rate of the bundle of His?

A) 20 to 40 beats/min
B) 40 to 60 beats/min
C) 60 to 80 beats/min
D) 80 to 100 beats/min

A

B) 40 to 60 beats/min

71
Q

When the blood pressure increases, the body will decrease sympathetic stimulation by a(n) _______________ response

A) Cholinergic
B) Sympathetic
C) Parasympathomimetic
D) Adrenal

A

A) Cholinergic

72
Q

The term used to describe the period of recovery that cells need after being discharged before they are able to respond to a stimulus is ___________________.

A

Refractoriness

73
Q

The P wave represents depolarization of which of the following?

A) Right atria
B) Left atria
C) Ventricles
D) Right and left atria

A

D) Right and left atria

74
Q

The normal PR interval is which of the following?

A) 0.10 seconds or less
B) Less than half of the P wave
C) 0.12 to0.20 seconds
D) 0.8 to 0.10 seconds

A

C) 0.12 to 0.20 seconds

75
Q

Concentration gradients exist across the plasma membrane. Specifically, there are ________.

A) more sodium ions inside and more potassium ions
outside the plasma membrane
B) equal concentrations of sodium and potassium ions
outside the plasma membrane
C) more potassium ions inside and more sodium ions
outside the plasma membrane
D) more sodium and potassium ions outside the plasma
membrane than inside
E) more sodium and potassium ions inside the plasma
membrane than outside

A

C) more potassium ions inside and more sodium ions

outside the plasma membrane

76
Q

The value of the resting membrane potential is ________.

A) -90 mV
B) -70 mV
C) -55 mV
D) -30 mV
E) +30 mV
A

B) -70 mV

77
Q

The plasma membrane is more permeable to ________.

A) potassium ions
B) sodium ions

A

A) potassium ions

78
Q

The resting membrane potential depends on each item below, EXCEPT:

A) the concentration gradient for potassium ions.
B) the greater permeability of the plasma membrane to
potassium ions.
C) the greater number of potassium leak channels.
D)the concentration gradient for sodium ions.
E) the greater permeability of the membrane to anions
rather than cations.

A

E) the greater permeability of the membrane to anions

rather than cations.

79
Q

The Na+/K+ pump transports ________.

A) Na+ into and K+ out of the cell
B) equal numbers of Na+ out of and K+ into the cell
C) Na+ and K+ in the same direction
D) more K+ into than Na+ out of the cell
E) Na+ out of and K+ into the cell
A

E) Na+ out of and K+ into the cell

80
Q

A threshold stimulus immediately ________.

A) inactivates voltage-gated sodium channels
B) opens voltage-gated potassium channels
C) closes voltage-gated potassium channels
D) opens voltage-gated sodium channels
E) closes voltage-gated sodium channels

A

D) opens voltage-gated sodium channels

81
Q

Phase 2 of the action potential is known as ________.

A) return to resting
B) hyperpolarization
C) repolarization
D) excitation
E) depolarization
A

C) repolarization

82
Q

The membrane potential returns to the resting state due to ________.

A) the active transport of ions
B) the diffusion of ions through leak channels
C) the facilitated diffusion of K+
D) the bulk transport of ions
E) the diffusion of K+ through voltage-gated K+
channels

A

B) the diffusion of ions through leak channels

83
Q

The refractory period occurs when ________.

A) voltage-gated sodium channels are open and
potassium channels are closed
B) voltage-gated sodium channels are inactivated and
potassium channels are open

A

B) voltage-gated sodium channels are inactivated and

potassium channels are open

A&P Cardiac (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions