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Captain Study Flashcards

1
Q

Arson phone number

A

661-330-0143

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2
Q

What are the 4 C’s of effective crew management

A

Calm
Close the loops
CAN report
Clear objectives

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3
Q

What are the three levels of operation according to the behaviors of effective crew management?

A
  1. Strategic Level: Offensive, Defensive, Combination
  2. Tactical Level: Rescue, Exposure, Confine, Extinguish, Overhaul, Vent, Salvage
  3. Task Level: Search rooms, Pull hose, Cut hole, Operate apparatus, operate Hurst tool

(Extremely difficult to operate in more than one level at a time)

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4
Q

Structure fire tier 1 size up

A 
Correct location (access)
Occupancy type
Working incident? (Y/N)
Fire/smoke condition
Name incident and assume/transfer IC
Command options
Immediate actions/needs
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5
Q

Structure fire tier 2 size up

A

+360 walk around w/ TIC (assign to incoming if unable to complete)

+Conditions: *Fire Involvement % *Location of fire *Construction Type *Identify flow path *Above/below ground hazards *Read smoke conditions

+Actions (of 1st in company)

+Needs: *Assignments; Additional alarms; Specialized equipment

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6
Q

When does a company officer start the building department

A

Whenever structural compromise is noted or suspected due to fire, traffic collision, or otherwise.

-or-

Whenever utilities have been involved or compromised for some reason

**no known literary source to find this info

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7
Q

Structure fire Size up - Common Radio Benchmarks

A
  • Tier 1 size up (in cab)
  • Tier 2 size up (outside cab)
  • Assume/transfer IC
  • Water supply established
  • 360 walk around complete
  • Two out established
  • Verbal “All-Clear”
  • Utilities Secure
  • Switch to Tac channel
  • Primary/Secondary Search Complete
  • Water on the fire
  • Knock down on fire
  • Fire out
  • Fire attack requests ventilation
  • Entering structure
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8
Q

What does RECEO-VS stand for?

A 
Rescue
Exposure
Confine
Extinguish
Overhaul
Ventilate
Salvage

(Chief Officer)

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9
Q

What does SLICERS stand for?

A 
Size up
Locate fire
Identify/control flow path
Cool space
Extinguish
Rescue
Salvage

(Company Officer)

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10
Q

Types of Building construction (1-5)

A 
Type 1 - Fire Resistive
Type 2 - Non Combustible
Type 3 - Ordinary
Type 4 - Heavy timber
Type 5 - Wood framed (Lightweight)
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11
Q

What year is high rise construction sprinklered?

A

Post- 1974

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12
Q

ICS positions for High Rise Incident

A 
Fire Attack (1st and 2nd in companies)
Lobby Control (3rd in company)
Staging
Operations
Incident base
Ground Support
Systems (Coordinate with building engineer; HVAC, fire pumps, utilities, building emergency systems)
Command
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13
Q

Three types of hillside homes

A

Descending Hillside (most dangerous)

Cantilever

Ascending Hillside

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14
Q

What is the minimum safe distance from high voltage power lines touching the ground?

(Page 17 of the PG&E safety book)

A

100’ from lines contacting the ground

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15
Q

How far do you park from a downed power line?

A

One full span (two poles) away from broken, downed, or sagging power lines

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16
Q

How far do you keep away from downed power lines in contact with the ground?

A

100 feet

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17
Q

What is the med alert policy?

*According to KC EMS - Emergency Medical Dispatch Policies and Procedures(2001.00)
Section XV,A,6

A

A.) Five or more victims/casualties
B.) Evacuation of a medical facility (convalescent home or hospital) for any reason.
C.) Significant medical hazard or threat to a significant population (haz mat, flood, evacuation, etc.)
D.) Any Haz Mat incident patient or victim with exposure or contamination
E.) Suspected or confirmed active shooter, or other acts of violent extremism with potential for loss of life

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18
Q

How to set up cones behind and engine on the highway?

A

5 total:
1st - 40 paces back (upstream)
2nd - 10 paces further back and 1 pace to the side
3rd - 10 paces further back and 2 paces to the side
4&5 - same pattern

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19
Q

Five areas of vehicle accident scene and spotting

A

Advanced warning: warning for oncoming traffic

Transition area: channels traffic away from work area

Buffer space: extra margin of safety

Work area (Incident): incident location; responders and equipment located here

Termination area: traffic resumes normal flow

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20
Q

Wildland tier 1 size up considerations

A

Based on fire location consider requesting additional resources

If smoke is showing en route, communicate it

Past fire history in the area

Proximity of special hazards (residences/infrastructure threatened)

Communications: monitor A/G, tactical and command radio channels

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21
Q

Wildland tier 2 size up

A

+Correct location (DPA)

+Assume IC and name incident (if ECC didn’t already name it)

+Conditions: Size/Potential; ROS; Weather conditions; access/egress; Exposures; fuel type(s); special hazards; safety zones/LCES

+Actions

+Needs

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22
Q

Structure defense Tactical actions (7)

A
  • Check and Go
  • Prep and Go
  • Prep and Defend
  • Fire front following
  • Bump and Run
  • Anchor and Hold
  • Tactical patrol
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23
Q

What are the obvious death criteria? (7)

A

In addition to being pulseless, apneic, fixed pupils and no cardiac activity.

  • Decapitation
  • Massive crush injury to the Head, Neck, or Trunk
  • Penetrating or blunt injury with evisceration of the heart, lung, or brain
  • Decomposition
  • Incineration
  • Rigor Morris
  • Post Morten lividity
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24
Q

When not to initiate CPR

A
  • assessment reveals a pulse less apneic patient who has obvious death criteria met, or confirmed pulselessness for 10 or more minutes (does not apply to hypothermia, drownings, or barbiturate ODs)
  • Blunt trauma patient in full arrest upon arrival
  • Penetrating trauma patient- BLS initiate resuscitation, ALS assess for signs of life and cardiac activity. ALS cease or do not initiate resuscitation.
  • Patient has a valid DNR
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25
Q

What does the ‘THREAT’ acronym stand for?

***According to the ‘Hartford Consensus’ mnemonic that identifies principles for a FRO-based response to an active shooter incident.

A 
T-threat suppression
H- hemorrhage control 
RE- rapid extrication
A- assessment by medical providers
T- transport
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26
Q

How far do you stay back from transmission structures?

A

35’

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27
Q

How far is the personnel exclusion zone for Electrical Substation fires? (Non-essential personnel)

A

350-500’ for non-essential personnel

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28
Q

Air ambulance Launch request criteria? (Trauma)

Pg 30 in First Due Book

A

Step 1 trauma: GCS <14; Systolic BP < 90; or Respiratory rate < 10 or > 29 (<20 in infant < 1 yr)
Step 2 Trauma:
*Penetrating injuries to the head, neck, chest, or torso.
*Flail Chest
*two or more long bone fx
*Pelvic fx
*Open or depressed skull fx
*Paralysis
*Amputation proximal to wrist or ankle
*Time-sensitive extremity injury with vascular compromise

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29
Q

Air ambulance Launch request criteria? (Medical)

A
  1. Acute altered mental status with no improvement and no response to painful stimuli, unresponsive to 50% Dextrose or Narcan
  2. Respiratory arrest or severe respiratory compromise unresponsive to intervention.
  3. Cardiovascular case with hemodynamics instability, suspected acute myocardial infarction, life threatening dysrhythmia or or post resuscitation.
  4. Hypotension with acute signs and symptoms of hypoperfusion from blood or volume loss.
  5. Anaphylactic shock with unstable bronchospasm or hypotension unresponsive to Adrenalin or epinephrine.
  6. Status epilepticus
  7. Complications of childbirth (e.g. breech, abnormal presentation, massive blood loss, fetal distress)
  8. Acute cardiac arrest with acute hypothermia from environmental exposure.
  9. Unstable near drowning.
  10. Acute suspected stroke.
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30
Q

What do you not put on kern 66?

Investigations Policy 602.17

A 
Multiple choice answer***
The Company Officer’s Positions and Locations
(The other ‘correct’ choices)
*Cause Determination
*when and where you were dispatched 
*Sketch of the scene

————————————————-

(According to the policy)You do not sign the reviewing officer section.

The captain filling it out is the ‘reporting officer’
and
the BC is the ‘reviewing officer.’

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31
Q

Least/most amount of time to fix ISI?

A

Minimum Seven days after NOV

Maximum 30 days

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32
Q

ISI: For a serious life safety violation, what do we give the offender?

A

Disposition 4: Citation along with a Notice of violation (NOV). Refer to policy 301.20 for citation guidelines. Schedule the re-inspection for a maximum of 30 days after the court date.

Also show the inspection as Denied fire clearance.

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33
Q

ISI: What violation do we make them correct ASAP?

A

Blocked exit

Double check

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34
Q

Who can watch paramedics waste expired/unused narcotics?

A

Check on this. ????

Other paramedics???

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35
Q

Minimum hours of training for Narcan?

Per EMT provider policies and procedures 5001.00 pg 12

A

2 hours (initial)

Ongoing competency re-evaluation every 2 years

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36
Q

What do you do when you have contact with fentanyl?

How do you know?

A

?
Wash with soap and water
?
Document the exposure and call the safety officer

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37
Q

Three categories of structures for structure triage?

A

Non-threatened
Threatened Defensible
Threatened Non-defensible

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38
Q

Can you reload ammo at the station?

A

According to the Kern County Employee handbook pg 54 and the Kern County Safety Rules pg 3, no one will be permitted in County buildings and facilities that has in their possession firearms, ammunition, or articles of a similar nature unless they are a peace officer or has a valid license to carry a weapon in his/her duties and the written authorization of his/her Dept head.

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39
Q

Can you park a personal vehicle in the engine bay if vehicles have been getting vandalized?

A

No.

According to the rules and regulations of the KCFD.
Section 1053:
Parking of employee owned owned vehicles inside apparatus bays shall not be allowed. Boats, travel trailers, motor homes or other private vehicles shale not be parked at department facilities for storage.

(But they do park inside at station 34)

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40
Q

Who controls entry into confined space?

A

Entry supervisor ***

They also fill out entry permit

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41
Q

Learn the signs for usar building search

A

???

Add pictures here

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42
Q

What does a blue placard with a white flame mean?

A

Reactive with water

DOT Class 4 hazardous material (flammable solids)

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43
Q

What does a yellow 2 placard mean?

A

??

Violent chemical change

Check first due book under haz mat

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44
Q

What calls are media allowed on? What scenes?

Administrative Policy 106.90

A

They shall be allowed access to scenes of disasters, criminal investigations, and other emergency incidents.
Conditions:
1. Need to show their media credentials
2. May be prevented when their presence interferes with: emergency operations; crime scene investigations; any military or federal area (USFS excepted)

They also may be prevented from entering private property unless permission is given by the property owner.

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45
Q

When does liquid become flammable?

A

Flammable IA flash below73F & boil 100F & below
Flammable IB flash below 73F & boil 100F & above
Flammable IC flash at 73F and above & boil below 100F
Combustible class II - 100-140F (flashpoint)
Combustible class IIIA - 140-200F (flashpoint)
Combustible class IIIB - 200*F and above (flashpoint)

Flammable (less than 73F) vs. combustible (100F-200*F)

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46
Q

(Old question) IFSTA company officer at an arson fire; what don’t you do?

A

Determine cause

Choices: determine cause; secure scene; protect origin; call investigator

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47
Q

Capt recommends to FF to go do something

??

A

Highly recommend, mandatory

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48
Q

????
How many Engines needed at a house for structure protection?
(According to firescope)

A

1 active and 1 in reserve

Check for context

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49
Q

Rail Cars:

Pressurized and Non-pressurized

A

Pressurized

  • For flammable, non-flammable, toxic, and/or liquified compressed gasses
  • Protective housing
  • No bottom fittings
  • Pressures usually above 40 psi

Non-pressurized

  • For a variety of hazardous and non hazardous materials
  • Fittings and valves normally visible at the top of the tank
  • Some may have bottom outlet valve
  • pressures usually below 25 psi
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50
Q

Confined space:

What % of oxygen is considered hazardardous?

A

Less than 19.5%

Or more than 23.5%

According to KCFD Entry Permit

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51
Q

What should you check daily when on duty?

According to AP 101.80

A

Body armor; Defibrillator; Dept email; Target Solution Administrative Comms; Gas Monitors; SCBA/Ric Packs/PALs; Telestaff; Fuel Disbursement Record; Fuel Inventory Record; Knox Vehicle Daily Log

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52
Q

What size should a safety zone be?

A

4x flame height

From pg 8 in irpg

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53
Q

Trench rescue:

How do you approach the edge?

A

From ends, until edge protection is put in place

also cover the edge w/in 5’ of edge with plywood or ladder.

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54
Q

How often (%) do collapsed trenches collapse again?

A

50% collapse again

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55
Q

How far away are the zones for trench rescue?

Hot, warm, cold

A 
Hot = 0-50’ (exclusion)
Warm = 50-150’
Cold = 150-300’

Apparatus and ICP/Staging positioned beyond the outside edge of the cold zone

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56
Q

What do the swift water whistle blasts mean?

A

1 blast- attention/ look at me
2 blasts-attention upstream
3 blasts-attention downstream
3 boats repetitive- Distress/ need help

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57
Q

What are the strategic priorities for HazMat?

A

Life
Property
Environment

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58
Q

Active shooter:

What zone can RTF enter?

A

Warm zone

And cold zone

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59
Q

Child Protective Services
and
Elderly Protective Services

Process?

Investigations Policy 602.10

A

Paperwork,
Arson Notification (both kinds)
Procedure -

Child abuse report: *one report per victim

  • Fill out and Send original to Arson, Call Arson ASAP
  • (Hard copy) Needs to be submitted to KCSO within 36 hours of of receiving information concerning the incident.

Elder Abuse report:
*online, fire net forms

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60
Q

ESO (maybe imagetrend too):

What information is needed for transport or non-transport? (Medical aid)
AMA policy???

A

all of the above

History
Mental Status
Chief Complaint
Two sets of vitals

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61
Q

What are the criteria to establish an emancipated minor?

A

Not: prior marriage

Granted legally by State of CA
Active military
14, lives on own, financially independent
%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%
Courts.ca.gov says
Three ways to get emancipated:
1. Get married (takes permission from parents)
2. Join the armed forces (w/ parental permission)
3. Declaration of emancipation from a judge

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62
Q

How long to you have to resolve an issue before calling a mayday?

A

30 seconds

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63
Q

How should body armor be worn?

A

Not visible/covered

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64
Q

According to RP 501.30-

What tac channel is used for the incident when a mayday is declared on the fireground?

A

Tac V16

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65
Q

How long do you maintain ISI records for?

A

5 years, unless there are ongoing enforcement problems at that facility.

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66
Q

How is a fire extinguisher hung?

Per KCFD Company Inspection Manual.

A

Mounted not over 5 ft. to top of unit and more than 4” off the floor

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67
Q

What is a Haz Mat 1 response?

A

1 engine

Notification of the HMRT

Criteria: Release or threatened release of harmful materials, in limited or isolated amounts (drums, tanks with less than 55 gallons, boxes or bags), with no immediate danger to life or health (fuel, gas, oil, or sewage)

68
Q

What is a Haz Mat 2 response?

A 
1 engine
1 BC
1 HMRT
PIO
Safety Officer

Criteria: Release or threatened release of harmful materials, in moderate amounts (greater than 55 gallons, less than 1,000 gallons, multiple containers, boxes or bags), that may be immediately dangerous to life or health.

A: Unknown or not identifiable substance in limited amounts (drums, tanks less than 55 gallons, boxes, bags)
B: Chemical threat (Anthrax, Botulism, etc.)

69
Q

What is a Haz Mat 3 response?

A 
2 Engines
1 Truck (engine if truck isn’t available)
1 BC
1 HMRT
1 Ambulance 
PIO
Safety Officer
Notify - Duty Chief

Criteria: Release or threatened release of hazardous materials in significant amounts (more than 1,000 gallons), and/or materials that may be immediately dangerous to life or health. Determined by BC, HMRT, or by critical information provided to ECC

A. Decontamination is potentially needed
B. Large quantity of substance (tanker, rail, car, etc)
C. Pesticide drift
D. High hazard (gases, toxic)
E. Evacuation is required
70
Q

What is an Alert 1 response?

A

Criteria: Aircraft with minor difficulty

1 ARFF
1 BC

71
Q

What is an Alert 2 response?

A

Criteria: Aircraft with major difficulty.

2 engines
1 truck/engine
2 ARFF (1 ARFF standby if not at Meadows)
1 BC
1 Ambulance (code 2)
72
Q

What is an Alert 3 response?

A

Criteria: Aircraft has crashed.

3 engines
1 truck/engine
2 ARFF (1 ARFF on standby if not at Meadows)
1 BC
1 Ambulance
PIO
Safety Officer

Notify: Duty chief & Law Enforcement

73
Q

What are the six geographic zones for fire weather in Kern Co?

According to the ECC Dispatch Manual

A

Temblor- Temblor mountains along
western edge of county
Valley- The San Joaquin Valley floor
Mtn 1- Southern Sierra Nevada Mountains and
Tehachapi Mountains within Battalion 1
Mtn 5- Southern Tehachapi Mountains and
San Emigdio Mountains within Battalion 5
Mtn 7- Sierra Nevada Mountains within Battalion 7
Desert- The High Desert from Ridgecrest to Rosamond

74
Q

What is a KCFD Light task force?

A

3 - Patrols (t6)

2 - Engine (t3)

75
Q

What is a KCFD medium task force?

A

3 - engine (t3)

2 - patrol (t6)

76
Q

What is a KCFD heavy task force?

A

3 - engine (Type 2)

2 - engine (t3)

77
Q

What is a Vegetation A response?

Urban

A

1 - Engine (T2 or T3)
2 - Engine (T6 or T3)
Notify: BC Notify

*additional alarm will be the same as initial alarm

Criteria: Lot Fire within urban areas

78
Q

What is a Vegetation B response?

Metro

A

(Metro)

79
Q

Who is responsible for the coordination of fixed and/or rotary wing aircraft operating on a wildland fire?

A

Air Tactical Group Supervisor

80
Q

According to CA ICS, what unit does the meteorological specialist belong to?

A

Situation Unit

81
Q

What is the purpose of the probation period?

A

Final phase of the testing process for effective adjustment or elimination of employee whose work does not meet requires standard of performance (civil service rules).

82
Q

Hazard reduction:

What is the definition of defensible space?

A

Man-made and/or natural clearance between wildland fuels and homes or other improvements, which enables the firefighting forces to defend structures and improvements from wildland fires.

83
Q

Route a completed EDAR to the BC, it will be kept in the Battalion personnel file and can be removed after 1 year?
(T/F)

A

False

It stays in their permanent record.

84
Q

What NFPA standard relates to the buddy system?

A

NFPA 1500

85
Q

According to IFSTA, what are your initial management responsibilities (primary objectives) on an incident?

A

Life safety
incident stabilization
Property Conservation
(Note list of seven things; pick three)

86
Q

What incidents do you request an Arson Investigator?

A

(Not an accidental burn victim)

  • multiple sets or points of origin
  • unexplained odor or presence of an ignitable liquid
  • incendiary devices, inappropriate candle placement, trailers, destructive devices (Molotov cocktails)
  • vacant structures with no connected utilities
  • any fire fatality
  • potential for cost recovery
  • when a vehicle is NOT considered stolen, every effort should be made to determine cause. If unable to determine cause, call for an investigator.
  • SRA fires (investigator consult)

overhaul should not be started until cause determination has been made

87
Q

What is not included as a function of ‘leaders’s intent?’

A

Time given to complete task.

Leader’s intent:
Task, purpose, and end-state
IRPG page X

88
Q

What tanker containers have an oval shape for their cross sections?

A

Flammable or Combustible liquids.

Extra info:
DOT 406, TC 406, SCT 306,
MC 306, TC 306

Also has rollover protection at the top, bottom outlet valves.
MAWP 3-15 (maximum allowable working pressure)

89
Q

Which one of the following is not a dimension of leadership?

A

Fostering competitiveness

90
Q

According to the Civil Service rules, how is performance defined?

(Wording similar)

A

Ability multiplied by desire

91
Q

According to policy, all are correct in regards to wearing body armor except:

A

It should be worn visibly

AP 100.91: personal protective equipment: body armor
*Body armor SHALL NOT be worn in a fashion that enables it to be seen. Body armor should be covered by a medical aid jacket or turnout coat.

*They shall be worn when dispatched to:
Shooting; stabbing; civil unrest; protests/large crowds; code 2 to stage; when deemed appropriate by the company officer.

92
Q

When returning from an out of county assignment, after 1800 hours, who do you contact to determine if you are fit for duty?

A

Duty chief

93
Q

When providing ventilation, what is one thing it does not do?

A

Thermal balance

94
Q

What are the types of construction?

A 
Type 1 - fire resistive
Type 2 - non-combustible
Type 3 - ordinary
Type 4 - heavy timber
Type 5 - lightweight (conventional)
95
Q

What is not one of the command options at a high rise fire

A

Fire attack mode

Options include:
Investigative mode; Fast Attack mode, Command mode; Pass Command; and Transfer of Command

96
Q

What is not a type of hillside home construction?

A

Hillside

The three types are:
Ascending, descending, and cantilever

97
Q

What is not a term of structure triage?

A

Indefensible structure

The three types are:
Non-threatened
Threatened-defensible
Threatened-non-defensible

98
Q

What are the two wildland structure environments according to firescope?

A

Interface and intermix

99
Q

What does an ‘A’ circled with a line through it mean on a WUI placard?

A

No Type 1 access

100
Q

USAR:

What does a square drawn on the side of a building mean?

A

Structure is accessible and safe to enter.

101
Q

USAR:

What is in the right quadrant of the ‘x’ regarding search markings?

A

Personnel hazards

102
Q

USAR:

What does a circle with a ‘v’ in it mean?

A

Confirmed live victim

103
Q

USAR:

In a structure collapse scenario, what does one long blast (3 second) of the air horn mean?

A

All quiet

Resume work = 1 long, 1 short
Evacuate = 3 short blasts (repeat)

104
Q

How many people can a zumro decon trailer handle in one hour?

2 minutes for wash & 2 minutes for rinse

A

120

105
Q

What is not an operational objective of HAZMAT?

Might also say strategic instead of objective

A

Identification

106
Q

NFPA placard with a 2 in the yellow diamond. What does that mean?

A

Violent chemical change

1= unstable if heated
2= violent chemical change
3= shock and heat may detonate
4= may detonate (it goes bang!)
107
Q

NFPA placard with a number in the blue diamond. What does that mean?

A 
0= normal material
1= slightly hazardous
2= hazardous
3= extreme danger
4=deadly
108
Q

NFPA placard with a number in the red diamond. What does that mean?

A 
0= will not burn
1= above 200*F
2= below 200*F
3= below 100*F (combustible)
4= below 73*F (flammable)
109
Q

Which tank car does not haul hazardous materials?

A

?? Food/potable tank cars??

110
Q

Homeland Security:

Avoid using radios in what radius of suspected explosives?

A

Engine 100’

HT 50’

111
Q

Homeland Security:

What is not true about security at stations?

A

Station must leave front door unlocked during business hours.

112
Q

Your engineer choked your FF and now your FF is scared for his life even though you tried to handle. What is your next step?

A

??Notify BC??

??Possibly notify arson or Sheriff‘s Office??

113
Q

FMLA Time off allowed in a calendar year?

Unpaid leave, if probation is complete.

A

12 weeks in 12 months

114
Q

How long ahead of time do you notify the county of FMLA leave?

A

Generally 30 days, if that’s not possible then notify ASAP and follow the employers general procedures

115
Q

What is true about cell phone use in a KCFD vehicle?

A

Must use hands free

116
Q

How much time off can a captain give an employee?

A

1 hour

117
Q

Civil service rule pertaining to dismissal?

A

Civil service rule 1705

118
Q

Your FF wants to use a tool off of the patrol for routine station maintenance. Which of the following is true?

A

You cannot use tools off equipment on a routine basis

119
Q

You must shop at a grocery store in your station’s first in unless…

A

…you receive deputy chief approval.

120
Q

Radio:

What is the MU 16 channel for?

A

County wide OES and Mutual Aid channel

121
Q

When do you not do a roll call on a command channel when responding?

A

En route to a wildland incident

122
Q

What is the first thing you do when you find that your radio mic got wet on a structure fire?

A

???Drain using holes provided in mic housing

????Dry and clean contacts

123
Q

What form do you use to write up a business?

A

Notice of Violation - NOV

124
Q

When do you switch to tac and who can order an additional tac channel?

A

When the IC says so
&
IC orders additional channel through dispatch

125
Q

What needs to be in place for prep and defend structure protection?

A

Safety zone and/or TRA (yay!)

126
Q

When giving an EPR, what don’t you do?

A

Compare employee to another employee.

127
Q

Which is not a daily check?

A

OES use report.

128
Q

Time to report OSHA injury report?

A

8 hours

129
Q

What a good leader does not do in a difficult situation:

A
  1. Communicate
  2. Motivate
  3. Take Command
  4. Supervise
130
Q

C-spine policy

A

??

131
Q

Epi policy

A

??

132
Q

Hi quality cpr

A

???

133
Q

What is a Vegetation C Response?

A

(Rio Bravo) *additional alarm will be the same at the initial alarm

1-BC (notification)
1- T1/T2 engine
1- T3/T6 engine

134
Q

What is a Vegetation D response?

A
  • Standard non-fire season wildland response.
  • wildland response during “normal” weather patterns in all zones other than urban quadrants.
  • wildland response during “high” weather pattern in the Valley and Desert zones.
1- BC
Battalion 8 notification
1- T2/T3 engine
2- T3/T6 engine
1- hand crew

*additional alarm will be the same as the initial alarm.

135
Q

What is a Vegetation E response?

A
  • Standard fire season response*
  • wildland response during “high” weather pattern in all LRA other than “urban.” Includes the majority of the Valley zone.
  • Wildland response during “high” weather pattern for all of the “Temblor” zone including the SRA.
  • wildland response during “red flag” response weather pattern for Desert zone.
2- BC
Battalion 8 notification
1- T2/T3 engine
4- T3/T6 engine
1- water tender T2
1- hand crew
1- Dozer
1- helicopter (SRA in Temblor zone only)
1- Helitac Crew
1- Air Attack (SRA in Temblor zone only)
2- Air tankers (SRA in Temblor Zone only)
1- Safety officer
136
Q

What is a Vegetation F response?

A

Standard fire season response within SRA/FRA

  • wildland response during “high” weather pattern for all SRA other than the Temblor zone
  • wildland response during “high” weather pattern for all Mountain Zones (SRA, FRA, LRA)
2- BC
Battalion 8
5- T3/T6 engine
1- water tender T2
2- hand crews 
1- ST dozers (Lima)
2- Helicopters
1- Helitac crew
1- Air Attack
2- Airtanker
1- Safety officer (notification)
1- PIO (notification)

*no additional alarm, IC should consider based on need i.e. additional single resources, strike team/task forces, aircraft, etc.

137
Q

What is a vegetation G response?

A
  • increased response due to “red flag” conditions
  • for all FRA/SRA lands
2- BC
Battalion 8
7- T3/T6 engine
2- water tender T2
2- hand crews 
2- ST dozers (Lima)
2- Helicopters
1- Helitac crew
1- Air Attack
2- Air Tankers
1- Safety officer
1- PIO
  • no additional alarm, IC should consider based on need i.e. additional single resources, strike team/task forces, aircraft, etc.
138
Q

According to Civil Unrest OP 2020.19

What is a Task Force?

A 
1-BC
(Up to)3 engines
1- truck (or additional engine
1- ALS ambulance
2- law enforcement unit
  • the task force responds as a single unit and should not be separated when deployed during civil unrest event.
  • it will be at the discretion of the duty chief as to when a ‘task force’ is formed.
139
Q

Do you use lights and sirens in the area of civil unrest?

A

No

Shut off lights and sirens at least three blocks from the scene
Per OP 202.19 Civil Unrest

140
Q

According to AP 101.80,

How often does hose on the apparatus need to be used on a drill or incident?

A

Every four months / quarterly

141
Q

How much rope is contained in the (LAS) Large Area Search rope?

…and tether?

A

200’ of rope
Knots with rings every 20’ (knots show how far along the rope you are)

Tether- 20’ of retractable rope

142
Q

What is a point-to-point search?

Large Area Search

A

Using the TIC to formulate a search plan and using the TIC to clear areas clearly visible.
Used when the location of the victim/downed FF is known.

143
Q

What is a FAN search?

Large Area Search

A

One or two rescuers perform a 6 o’clock to 12 o’clock search at 10’ and 20’ on their tethers.
The main LAS rope is held taut at the ring past the search ring.

144
Q

Definition: progressive discipline

A

Any disciplinary action taken should begin at the at the least intrusive level that is commensurate with the unacceptable performance, and escalate or ‘progress’ until the employee performs within the standards or leaves their employment.

145
Q

‘ ‘ is a critical element in the process of discipline.

A

DOCUMENTATION is a critical element in the process of discipline.

146
Q

First step of progressive discipline?

A

Verbal counseling, may or may not be documented. Should be documented with multiple counselings.

147
Q

Second step of progressive discipline (after counseling)

A

Verbal Reprimand: Document reprimand by typing a memo describing the incident or unacceptable behavior, what the standard of performance is, then have the employee sign it after a counseling session.
Date and sign the memo and make note that a verbal reprimand was issued. The employee should sign it to indicate the standards are clearly understood.
Route it to the respective BC to be placed in the battalion personnel file. After a period of time (usually 1 year) with no further action, the memo can be discarded, leaving no record of the event.

148
Q

Third step in progressive discipline or document used after single serious infraction.

A

Employee Disciplinary Action Record (EDAR)
This only applies to infractions of the KCFD rules and regs, Civil Service Code, or Kern County Ordinance Code.

**This form creates a permanent record of the infraction.

In many cases, a Special Evaluation is used in conjunction with the EDAR. This allows goals to be set in addition to any corrective action assigned with the EDAR.

149
Q

What is the Performance Appraisal especially useful for documenting?

A

Trends of poor performance.

The performance appraisal is the mildest form of employee discipline.

Policy 102.60 Discipline: overview

150
Q

When does an employee receive a copy of the EDAR?

A

After processing.

The employee should be advised of the infraction, given corrective counseling, and asked to signs the form.
All three copies should be routed through channels to the Fire Chief.
**A memo noting the date, the infraction, and any action taken should remain in the employee’s file at the battalion level.

Then employee receives their copy…

151
Q

What are the possible outcomes of a Discipline Review Board?

A

Unfounded- the allegation was demonstrably false or there is no credible evidence to support the complaint.

Exonerated-the incident occurred but subject employees actions were lawful and proper

Unsustained-investigation failed to disclose sufficient evidence to prove or disprove the claim

Sustained- the allegation is supported su sufficient evidence

152
Q

According to OP 202.15 Emergency Activity: traffic incident management and safety,

How many general classes of duration are there regarding traffic incidents?

A

Three

  1. major- duration more than three hours
  2. Intermediate- duration of 30 minutes to 2 hours
  3. Minor - duration less than 30 minutes
153
Q

Who is responsible to have EMT and maintain EMT currency?

A

Safety section personnel shall have EMT and are required to keep it current on their own.

154
Q

What is the criteria for funding of gray book funds?

What objective for suppression

A

Supporting the objective of suppressing 95% of wildland fires at 19 acres or less.

155
Q

What makes a fire considered an ‘extended attack’ fire according to the Cal Fire AOP? (3)

A
  1. Fire cannot be contained within 2 hours within first report of fire;
    and/or
  2. Number if resources exceeds the pre-approved first and second Alex initial attack response level,
    or
  3. Fire cannot be controlled in the first burning period
156
Q

What constitutes a threat to SRA?

A

The existence of a wildfire within 1/2 mile of the SRA?

157
Q

What does FMAG (FEMA) stand for?

A

Fire Management Assistance Grant

Application submitted for a fire that is (1) uncontrolled and (2) directly threatening life and property
in order to qualify for reimbursement consideration

158
Q

What is the ‘higher-risk” level of exposure to COVID as determined by CDC?

A

Exposure report to be complete if employee is in “prolonged close contact” with a confirmed COVID individual.

A. ‘Prolonged’- is considered 15 minutes or more
B. Close contact’ - is considered 6’ or less
C. The 15 minute time is cumulative over a 24 hr period.

159
Q

What can you use instead of washing hands with soap and water?

(COVID hygiene/disinfection)

A

Hand sanitizer with 60% ethanol or 70% isopropanol

160
Q

What kind of disinfectant do we use on the SCBAs?

A

Per Honeywell, only soap and water to be used for cleaning/disinfecting the SCBA pack.

A bleach solution can be used on the SCBA mask.

No PH7 should be used on SCBA pack or masks.

161
Q

What ratio/mixture should be used to make a disinfectant solution with bleach and PH7?

A

Bleach: 1/3 cup per gallon of water
(Bleach mixture is only good for 24 hours)

PH7: 1/2 oz per 32 oz of water

162
Q

How long to apply PH7 to confirm disinfection of surfaces?

A

Surface must remain wet for 10 minutes

Prepare fresh solution daily

163
Q

Who does the Incident Meteorologist belong to?

A

The Situation Unit

164
Q

Where does the authority and training standards come from regarding HazMat?

A

Title 29 of Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 1910.120 Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response (HAZWOPER)

165
Q

What is the awareness level of Hazmat Response?

A

Responders must be trained to know the basic hazards and response information to be able to analyze the incident to determine the hazardous material present and implement protective actions and the notification process.

166
Q

What is the “operations” level of Haz Mat?

A

Includes the awareness level responsibilities
(plus)
Confining a release in a defensive fashion from a safe distance.

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