Captain’s Test Study Materials Flashcards

1
Q

Accountability Location

A

Alpha side of structure and where passports will be tracked until IC #2 arrives

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2
Q

Aid Unit vs. Ambulance

A

Aid unit is a fire service provider, ambulance is a private provider

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3
Q

Assembly Area

A

Pre-arranged meeting locations for Strike Teams or Task Forces to assemble before responding as a group to an incident

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4
Q

Emergency Traffic

A

Emergency conditions that affect safety such as firefighter down, missing, trapped, serious change in conditions requiring abandonment of the building, change in fire conditions, change in strategy, or identification of a hazard.

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5
Q

Fire Zone

A

A group of fire departments that comprise a specific geographical area in the county. Ex: 1, 3 5.

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6
Q

Group

A

A subdivision established to divide the IMS into functional areas of operation, assembled to perform a specific function

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7
Q

Exclusion Zone

A

The control zone designated to exclude all unauthorized personnel, responders, and equipment.

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8
Q

HazMat Team

A

Technician level team capable of Level-A entry, minimum of 9 technicians

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9
Q

LCAAN

A

Location, conditions, actions, air, needs

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10
Q

Level 1 staging

A

Maintain apparatus in a position to re-deploy based on the needs of command. Don’t over commit.

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11
Q

Level 2 staging

A

Formal staging area run by a staging area manager. Specific location designated by command

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12
Q

Liaison officer

A

Point of contact for representatives of other governmental agencies, private entities, etc. Member of the command staff

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13
Q

MCI incident

A

A medical incident that overwhelms the EMS resources of the primary agency’s initial response

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14
Q

MCI vehicle

A

Capable of treating at least 50 patients

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15
Q

Priority traffic

A

Usually considered bad news, example: uncontrolled fire in a concealed space, victim found, high heat, unable to complete assignment

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16
Q

Recycle

A

Process of exiting the hazard area, changing air, gross decon, hydrate, and return to the holder of their passport

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17
Q

Roof report

A

Type of roof, conditions stable/unstable, fire/smoke conditions, heavy roof loads, condition of attic, blueprint of building, actions taken

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18
Q

Second line vs. back-up line

A

Second line is taken to adjoining areas of the structure or the floor above. Backup line protects the egress of crews operating on the interior of the structure

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19
Q

Strike team vs. Task force

A

Strike team is resources of the same kind and type that have an established number of personnel, common communications, and a leader. Task force is any combination of resources of different kinds and/or types assembled to support a specific mission or operational need.

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20
Q

Wall report

A

May coincide with the Roof report when evaluating concrete tilt-up walls.

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21
Q

Water tender (tanker)

A

Fire vehicle used to transport 1000+ gallons of water with a large tank, pump, supply hose, portable folding tank, and tools

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22
Q

ALS Strike Team

A

2 medics, 1 MSO. MSO is strike team leader.

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23
Q

MSO

A

Medical Services Officer, designated as Strike Team Leader

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24
Q

Dispatch center for Zone 1

A

NORCOM

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25
Q

Dispatch center for Zone 3

A

Valley Com

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26
Q

Dispatch center for Zone 5

A

Seattle Fire Department Fire Alarm Center (FAC)

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27
Q

Abandon

A

An immediate and rapid exit, take only the tools, equipment, and hose lines necessary to permit emergency egress.

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28
Q

Withdraw

A

A planned or orderly withdrawal/removal of FF from the structure. Exit as a team with all hose, tools, and equipment

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29
Q

When is the abandonment order given?

A

Imminent building collapse, immediate explosion hazard, water supply is lost to interior crews, or other reason deemed necessary to save lives. No abandonment tones activated.

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30
Q

Dispatch steps for abandonment procedure

A
  1. Transmit high/low abandonment tones on talk group
  2. Announce abandonment instructions from IC a total of 3 times
  3. Restrict traffic on affected talk groups to emergency traffic only
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31
Q

Driver role for abandonment

A

Initiate air horn for 5, then a 5 second pause, a total of 3 times

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32
Q

Order to withdraw instead of abandon

A

Only when no imminent risk to firefighters

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33
Q

Zone 3 Mayday script

A

Command E345, Mayday, mayday, mayday

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34
Q

Dispatcher role when Mayday received

A

Broadcast the Mayday information and restrict talk group to Emergency Traffic only

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35
Q

Non-acknowledged emergency transition or EMER button activation

A

Considered a mayday situation by the IC

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36
Q

What happens when the EMER button is activated?

A

Automatically switches the user to the EMER talkgroup to establish a dedicated channel for direct communication with the dispatcher regarding their emergency. It will transmit an audible emergency alert.

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37
Q

What if your radio is out of range of the 800 MHz system and you can’t transmit a Mayday?

A

User must use a Simplex channel (state-ops) for communication and the EMER button will not work.

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38
Q

Fire ground benchmarks accounted over the radio to dispatcher

A
Establishment of Command/Command Post
Declaration of Strategy
Establishment of Standby or RIC
Transfer of Command
Establishment of staging area
Water on the fire
Fire under control
Tapped fire
Loss stopped
Initiation of interior FF operations
Primary search/nothing found
Secondary search/nothing found
"All clear" after secondary searches
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39
Q

4 Incident Priorities

A

Life safety
Incident stabilization
Property conservation
Environmental conservation

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40
Q

7 terms used as a guide to achieve incident priorities

A
RECEOVS
Rescue
Exposures
Confinement
Extinguishment
Overhaul
Ventilation
Salvage
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41
Q

What is a progress report?

A

A term used as the standard to request critical fireground information from any company working at an emergency incident.

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42
Q

Progress report format

A
LCAAN
Location
Conditions
Actions
Air (percent remaining)
Needs
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43
Q

How are levels below ground identified?

A

Floor 01, or Basement 1, etc.

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44
Q

When to consider using Branches?

A

Incident has two or more distinctly different operations and/or geographical locations (Ex: fire, medical, Hazmat, law enforcement)

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45
Q

Which talk groups must the IC monitor?

A

Primary tactical talk group, Direct Mode “State Ops”, Emergency channel, Second tactical talk group if needed, command/logistics channel if needed

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46
Q

What is a Hot Wash of the incident?

A

Debrief the incident and prepare for the next operational phase

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47
Q

What does a demobilization plan entail?

A

Decon of personnel, Rehab, order of unit release, release of move-up units

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48
Q

When must rehab be used?

A

Following the use of a 30 or 45 minute SCBA bottle or 40 minutes of hard work without an SCBA

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49
Q

Normal vital signs required to be released back to duty:

A
GCS 15
HR 55-110
BP Systolic <160 and/or Diastolic <100
O2 Sat >92%
CO <5%
Temp 98.6 to 100.6
No symptoms
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50
Q

How long must FF remain in rehab if normal vital signs are not met?

A

At least 10 minutes

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51
Q

Recommended water intake for dehydration on a fire

A

1 liter per hour

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52
Q

What is a “Rehab Capable” unit?

A

Equipped to establish a Rehab area for up to 40 personnel for up to 2 hours

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53
Q

What is the pressure of a natural gas line on the consumer side of the meter?

A

1/4 to 2 psi

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54
Q

What is the pressure of a natural gas line on the supply side of the meter?

A

35 psi or greater

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55
Q

Natural gas vapor density

A

Low, will rise in air. Beneficial in exterior but must be considered when interior or near a structure.

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56
Q

Natural gas leak areas to check

A

Ceiling areas, void spaces in dropped ceilings, elevator shafts, upper floors, stairwells.

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57
Q

What is concerning about an underground natural gas release/leak?

A

The Mercaptan may be scrubbed out and an odor may not be detectable.

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58
Q

Natural gas is composed of mainly what?

A

94% methane

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59
Q

Flammability range of natural gas

A

3-15% gas to air mixture

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60
Q

Vapor density of natural gas

A

0.6 (40% lighter than air and will rise)

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61
Q

What is mercaptan?

A

An odorant that is added before natural has reaches the consumer which contains sulfur that creates a distinct rotten egg odor detectable at extremely low levels

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62
Q

Minor natural gas leak

A

Involves a broken gas line or known leak with a diameter less than 2”, or may describe a leak in a residential structure

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63
Q

Major natural gas leak

A

Involves a broken gas line with a diameter of 2” or greater, or may describe a leak in a commercial or multifamily structure

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64
Q

Combustible gas indicator (aka “4 gas” or “5 gas” detector) will recognize which 4 things?

A
FOCH
Flammable range
Oxygen deficiency
Carbon monoxide
Hydrogen sulfide
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65
Q

When will the gas indicator alarm?

A

10% of LEL

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66
Q

Hot zone of natural gas leak

A

20% LEL or odor

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67
Q

Action zone of natural gas leak

A

Up to 50% LEL

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68
Q

How to mitigate a natural gas leak

A

Do not extinguish unless protecting life, must eliminate at the source

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69
Q

Small/medium/large natural gas leak

A

< 2” residential with 1/4 psi
< 2” commercial/multi-family with 2 psi
>2” with 35 psi+

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70
Q

Initial actions on natural gas leak

A

Stop 300 feet away and establish isolation perimeter.
Gather info from responsible party.
Report number of structures, proximity to structure.
Request appropriate resources (PSE, HazMat, etc.)
Obtain a water supply and assign units to stage for hose deployment

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71
Q

What do carbon monoxide readings result from?

A

Incomplete combustion

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72
Q

Where to shut natural gas off?

A

Lowest acceptable risk - at the meter or appliance, never in the street (PSE only)

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73
Q

Ignition sources on a natural gas incident

A

Light switches, flashlights, elevators, cell phones, PPV fan

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74
Q

Confined space definition

A

A space large enough that a person can enter and perform assigned work, with limited or restricted means for entry or exit, not designed for continuous human occupancy

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75
Q

Rescue Group Supervisor responsibility

A

Responsible for direct supervision of the rescue team operations

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76
Q

Rescue unit

A

A response unit staffed with a minimum of 2 tech level trained persons in rope, confined space, trench, structural collapse, and machinery rescue

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77
Q

Technical Safety Officer responsibility

A

Monitor safety within the hazard zone

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78
Q

What is KC Call?

A

Hailing/Announcement channel, not to be used as a tactical channel

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79
Q

Who is the primary monitoring agent for radio systems in King County?

A

Seattle Fire FAC. NORCOM is secondary.

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80
Q

What is an Electronic Serial Number (ESN)?

A

A unique electronic identification number embedded by the manufacturer in an 800 MHz portable radio.

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81
Q

Primary passport

A

White, kept with team leader

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82
Q

Back-up passport

A

Red, stored visibly on the officer’s side of the apparatus

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83
Q

Reserve passport

A

Green, used for multiple alarm shift changes and temporary replacement for lost passports

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84
Q

BR designator

A

Brush

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85
Q

CDT designator

A

Cadet

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86
Q

CFR designator

A

Crash Fire Rescue

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87
Q

CMT designator

A

Community Medical Technician

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88
Q

I designator

A

Inspector/investigator

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89
Q

MAR designator

A

Marine

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90
Q

MCU designator

A

Mobile Command Unit

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91
Q

MSA designator

A

Medical Services Administrator

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92
Q

SUP designator

A

Support Unit

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93
Q

UAS designator

A

Unmanned Aircraft System (drone)

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94
Q

UT designator

A

Utility Unit

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95
Q

When must the CO turn the driver’s name tag right side up on the passport?

A

When all members of the unit enter the hazard zone

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96
Q

Which buildings are of the highest concern for structural collapse?

A

Un-reinforced masonry (URM) and concrete tilt-up buildings, both very common in the Puget Sound region

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97
Q

Structural Collapse “Pyramid of Life”

A

50% injured but not trapped (spontaneous rescue)
30% non-structural entrapment (light rescue)
15% voice space, non-structural (medium rescue)
5% emtombed (heavy rescue)

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98
Q

King County Zone 1 location

A

North and east King County

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99
Q

King County Zone 3 location

A

South King County

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100
Q

What disciplines are Zone 3 Rescue Technicians certified in?

A

Structural collapse, confined space, high angle rope rescue, swift water rescue with dive capability, trench rescue

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101
Q

EOC

A

Emergency Operations Center

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102
Q

ECC

A

Emergency Coordination Center

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103
Q

CBRNE

A

Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear, Explosive

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104
Q

2x2 square with no markings on a structure

A

Safe to enter

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105
Q

2x2 square with a single slash on a structure

A

Structure is significantly damaged but limited entry is possible after bracing, shoring, or eliminating falling hazards

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106
Q

2x2 square with an X on a structure

A

Structure is not safe, DO NOT ENTER

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107
Q

Arrow marking on a structure

A

Points to the entry point

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108
Q

HM on a structure

A

Indicates the presence of hazardous materials

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109
Q

When marking a search, what does the left quadrant of the X indicate?

A

Search team identifier

Time and date of entry

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110
Q

When marking a search, what does the top quadrant of the X indicate?

A

Time and date of exit

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111
Q

When marking a search, what does the right quadrant of the X indicate?

A

Any hazards found

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112
Q

When marking a search, what does the bottom quadrant of the X indicate?

A

Number of live and deceased victims still inside the structure. A small “x” is placed if there are no victims

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113
Q

When marking a search, what does the box below the X contain?

A

Multiple floors, specific information of search activities

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114
Q

Interior Search Markings

A
When you enter, a large single slash.  After search, a second large slash to form an "X".  Team and time information are not placed on interior search markings.
List hazards (right) and victims (bottom)
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115
Q

Victim Marking initial

A

Large V (2x2) near the location of any potential victim. Mark name of search team in the top part of the V

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116
Q

When a victim is confirmed to be alive, how do you indicate it?

A

Circle the V, and use an arrow pointing towards the victim

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117
Q

When a victim is confirmed to be dead, how do you indicate it?

A

A horizontal line through the middle of the V. Mark total number of victims below the V.

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118
Q

After all victims have been removed, how do you indicate it?

A

Paint an X through the confirmed victim symbol

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119
Q

DMAT

A

Disaster Medical Assistance Team

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120
Q

MCI definition

A

The presence of multiple patients at an incident affects the treatment decisions of individual patients

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121
Q

Golden Hour rule

A

Victims of trauma need to have surgery within one hour of the injury to maximize survivability

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122
Q

Purpose of a transportation corridor

A

Facilitate rapid patient transport

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123
Q

MCI triage

A

Sick/Not Sick
Sick: red
Not sick: yellow or green

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124
Q

ACF (MCI plan)

A

Alternate Care Facility: serves to expand the capacity of a hospital in order to accommodate or care for patients when an incident overwhelms local hospital capacity

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125
Q

Base (MCI plan)

A

Designated parking area for apparatus that are assigned a task

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126
Q

White flagged patient

A

Decontaminated/clean

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127
Q

DMCC (MCI plan)

A

Disaster Medical Control Center (Harborview will be primary DMCC for King. County. Overlake Hospital is backup)

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128
Q

Extraction

A

The process of removing patients from the hot zone into the treatment and transport areas

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129
Q

ABC Field Triage

A

An algorithm which allows for the rapid triage of patients. Awake, Breathing, and Circulation

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130
Q

RPM Triage

A

A form of triage which evaluates a patients status based on Respirations, Pulse, and Mentation

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131
Q

START Triage

A

An acronym for Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment, a method to effectively and efficiently evaluate all of the victims during an MCI

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132
Q

MCI unit

A

A mobile unit which contains large quantities of medical supplies that can be dispatched to an MCI and treat 50 or more patients

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133
Q

Medical responsibilities on an MCI

A

Triage, Extraction, Treatment, Transportation, Green Patient Area, Medical Staging, Morgue Team

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134
Q

4 main EMS dispatch center in King County

A

Norcom (Zone 1)
Valley Com (Zone 3)
Seattle Fire Alarm Center (Zone 5)
Port of Seattle (Seatac Airport)

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135
Q

MCI IRR and size-up to include:

A

Unit, location, basic impression, hazards, cause if known, patient estimate, command designator and command post location.

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136
Q

MCI Follow-up report to include:

A

Transportation corridor, initial actions and assignments, base and staging locations

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137
Q

Recon (MCI plan)

A

A rapid reconnaissance of the entire MCI site to establish the scale and scope of the incident. Speed over specificity.

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138
Q

Two separate staging areas on an MCI

A

One for personnel/equipment immediately available for use.
Separate ambulance staging area established for apparatus that will be used to transport patients (personnel not to leave their vehicles)

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139
Q

Transportation corridor

A

Must be established early and clearly

Exact entry point, exit point, direction of flow must all be determined and communicated

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140
Q

Treatment area managed by:

A

A senior ALS member

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141
Q

FTS (MCI plan)

A

Field Treatment Site: can be as simple as extended use of the treatment areas at the incident or as complex as transporting patients to an ACF opened to EMS.

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142
Q

MIRF’s on an MCI

A

Individual MIRFs are not required during an MCI. No permission is required to “cease efforts”

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143
Q

First arriving Medic unit on an MCI

A

Assign to role of Treatment and Transport.

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144
Q

MSO assignment on an MCI

A

Medical Group Supervisor

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145
Q

BLS Units on MCI for 10, 20, 30, 40, 50 Patient MCI

A

5, 8, 12, 16, 18 AEL

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146
Q

Medic Units on MCI for 10, 20, 30, 40, 50 Patient MCI

A

2, 3, 4, 4 +1 strike team, 4 +2 strike team

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147
Q

AMB units on MCI for 10, 20, 30, 40, 50 Patient MCI

A

5, 10, 15, 20 +1 bus, 25 +2 bus

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148
Q

Chiefs on MCI for 10, 20, 30, 40, 50 Patient MCI

A

1, 2, 3, 3, 4

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149
Q

Active Shooter Incident

A

An event in which one or more people use deadly force on others and continue to do so while having access to additional victims

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150
Q

Area Cleared (scenes of violence)

A

Indication by LE that an area has been tentatively swept but still requires force protection. Likely in the warm zone.

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151
Q

Area Secured (scenes of violence)

A

Indication by LE that an area has been swept and secured and does not require force protection. Likely in the cold zone.

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152
Q

Casualty Collection Point (scenes of violence)

A

A secure area designated for the temporary gathering, triage, medical treatment of casualties during an MCI

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153
Q

Concealment (scenes of violence)

A

A barrier that prevents a provider from being seen but that offers no ballistic protection

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154
Q

Contact Teams (scenes of violence)

A

Teams of LE whose responsibility is to find and neutralize the threat

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155
Q

Cover (scenes of violence)

A

A barrier that offers some ballistic protection

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156
Q

Evacuation Area (scenes of violence)

A

Area where EMS can safely treat and transport patients that does not require LE presence for safety issues

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157
Q

Force Protection (scenes of violence)

A

The escorting of Fire/EMS by armed LE in and out of a warm zone

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158
Q

Rescue Task Force (scenes of violence)

A

Multidisciplinary (LE and Fire/EMS) task force designed to enable entry of Fire/EMS into the warm zone escorted by LE to extract patients

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159
Q

Safety Corridor (scenes of violence)

A

Access path to and from patient locations in the Indirect Threat (warm zone) to the Evacuation Area (cold zone)

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160
Q

STAM (scenes of violence)

A

Staging Area Manager, responsible for all activities within the staging area.

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161
Q

Indirect Threat (Warm) Zone (scenes of violence)

A

Area with potential hostile threat to persons but threat is not direct and immediate. Area of operation for the Rescue Task Force

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162
Q

Direct Threat (Hot) Zone (scenes of violence)

A

Area where there is a direct and immediate threat to people.

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163
Q

Cold Zone (scenes of violence)

A

Areas where there is little or no threat, where the RTF delivers extracted victims. Fire/EMS conducts treatment and transport operations. Unified Command also located here

164
Q

Transition Period (scenes of violence)

A

A recognition between LE and Fire that a hot zone has become a warm zone and directs rescue teams to enter an area and rescue patients/victims.

165
Q

Unified Command (UCP = Unified Command Post) (scenes of violence)

A

A co-located authority structure in which the role of incident commander is shared by two or more individuals, each having authority over a different responding agency or discipline.

166
Q

ATC (pandemic plan)

A

Alternate Treatment Center, alternative sites set up to care for patients with pandemic illness. Schools, churches, public buildings set up through the public health authority to care for the sick.

167
Q

CAD

A

Computer Aided Dispatch

168
Q

CBD

A

Criteria Based Dispatch

169
Q

MSG (pandemic plan)

A

Medical Support Group, provides medical intelligence to public safety responders

170
Q

Plan P (pandemic plan)

A

Standing orders specific to the EMS response to pandemic patients

171
Q

Pandemic EMS Alert Levels

A

EMS-3 - pandemic exists somewhere in the world, no cases in King Co.
EMS-2 - pandemic cases identified in King Co., no significant impact on EMS
EMS-1 - human pandemic has achieved rapid transmission with increased morbidity and mortality, overwhelming impact on EMS

172
Q

Time from exposure to onset of symptoms of COVID-19

A

2 to 14 days, with an average of 5 days

173
Q

Donning Sequence of PPE

A

Mask, Eye Pro, Gown, Gloves, Mask Patient

174
Q

Removal Sequence of PPE

A

Gloves, Gown, Hand Cleaner, Eye Pro, Mask, Hand Cleaner

175
Q

What is a “purple” patient according to the Pandemic Plan?

A

Infectious disease patient in need of care and comfort measures, palliative care. Seriously ill with little or no chance of survival.

176
Q

Branch

A

The organizational level having functional or geographical responsibility for major aspects of incident operations.

177
Q

Code Yellow Response

A

Normal roadway driving, following all local driving rules and regulations

178
Q

What are Critical Factors?

A

The basic items an IC must consider when evaluating tactical situations

179
Q

Division

A

The organizational level having responsibility for operations within a defined geographic area

180
Q

ETN (Zone 3 command procedures)

A

Elapsed Time Notifcation: when an offensive working fire or HazMat incident is declared, the dispatcher will begin an ETN over the tactical talk group every 10 minutes until the incident is placed under control

181
Q

Exit

A

Order given to units directing them to leave their hose line in place and take tools with them so subsequent crews operating in the same area can utilize their hose line

182
Q

High-rise pack

A

A pre-loaded bundle of 1 3/4” attack hose with a nozzle and gated-Y attached, usually 150 ft long

183
Q

Level 1 staging

A

After command is established, all other 1st alarm units will Level 1 stage (stop) in their direction of travel 1 block from the scene not passing their last tactical option

184
Q

Level 2 staging

A

A formal staging area run by a staging area manager. Location designated by command. Usually the first arriving engine officer on the 2nd alarm will establish SAM duties.

185
Q

NIMS Type 1 incident

A

Federal deployment requiring large amount of resources

186
Q

NIMS Type 2 incident

A

Federal deployment requiring small to medium amounts of resources

187
Q

NIMS Type 3 incident

A

State level deployments not involving the federal government

188
Q

NIMS Type 4 incident

A

Local deployment requiring two or more agencies to mitigate

189
Q

NIMS Type 5 incident

A

Local deployment requiring one single agency to mitigate

190
Q

Priority traffic

A

Radio communications that could alter the IAP, usually considered bad news. Ex: uncontrolled fire in a concealed space, victim found, high heat, unable to complete assignment.

191
Q

Recycle

A

Process of a crew exiting the hazard area, changing air cylinders, gross decon, hydrate, and returning to the holder of their passport

192
Q

Rehab

A

An assignment to a formal rehab location where units will be deconned, medically evaluated, rehydrated, and be provided rest

193
Q

Risk Management Plan (RMP)

A

We will risk our lives a lot to save savable lives.
We will risk our lives a little to save savable property.
We will not risk our lives, at all, for lives or property that are already lost.

194
Q

5 sections in a large, long-term incident, per the NIMS

A
SLOAP
Safety
Logistics
Operations
Admin
Planning
195
Q

Tactical Priorities on an Offensive Fire

A

Fire Control
Life Safety
Loss Control/Property Conservation
Customer Stabilization

196
Q

What is the command when primary and secondary searches are complete?

A

“All Clear”

197
Q

What is the command when the fire is under control?

A

“Under Control” or “Tapped Fire”

198
Q

What is the command when the property loss is controlled?

A

“Loss Stopped”

199
Q

Tactical Priorities on a Defensive Fire

A

Define the hot zone
Establish cut-offs (forward progress stopped)
Search exposures (primary and secondary “all clears”)
Protect exposures (“Fire control”, “Loss stopped”)

200
Q

Withdraw

A

A planned or orderly withdrawal/removal of firefighters from the hazardous zone or structure. Firefighters should exit as a team with all hose, tools, and equipment.

201
Q

Command Function 1

A

Deployment

202
Q

Define command function 1, deployment

A

Provide and manage a steady, adequate, and timely stream of appropriate resources

203
Q

Residential Fire Response

A

3 E, 1 L, 1 A/E, 2 BC

204
Q

Commercial Fire Response

A

3 E, 1 L, 1 A/E, 2 BC

205
Q

High-Rise Fire Response

A

5 E, 2 L, 1 Aid, 1 Medic, 1 MSO, 2 BC

206
Q

Balancing a 1st alarm

A

IC must fill out or balance the 1st alarm before requesting additional resources greater than a 1st alarm.

207
Q

“Working Fire” resources

A
Medic Unit
MSO
Addt'l BC's
Administrative Chief Notification
Fire Investigator
Law Enforcement
Chaplain
Local Utility Company
Rehab Unit
Zone Coordinators notified for move-ups
10-minute timer
208
Q

3 uses of Fire 7

A
  1. “Travel channel” for strike team coordination
  2. Level 2 staging talk group
  3. Communications of Storm Procedure dispatching
209
Q

2 radio frequencies the IC must also monitor on a fire incident

A

State Ops 1 Direct

Zone 3 Emergency Talk Group

210
Q

Command Function 2

A

Establishing Command

211
Q

When must command be formally declared?

A

On all incidents where 3 or more units are dispatched

212
Q

Declaring Level 1 Staging

A

“Command, E1 is Level 1”

If not acknowledged in a timely manner, contact Command utilizing the Order Model.

213
Q

Maximum depth into a structure

A

175 feet, based on air supply

214
Q

3 ways to maintain crew continuity in the hot zone

A

Voice (radio)
Vision (TIC)
Touch (hose line)

215
Q

When must a formal PAR be conducted?

A

Changing from offensive to defensive operations
Abandonment
Missing members
Mayday
Sudden, unexpected events in the hot zone
Any time the IC deems it necessary
When a company exits the hot zone

216
Q

4 IMS functions that utilize passports

A

Divisions
Groups
Staging
Rehab

217
Q

Minimum number of individuals to commence interior firefighting operations

A

4

218
Q

One exception to 2 in/2 out

A

Rescue Mode in which there is a known rescue situation where immediate action could prevent the loss of life or serious injury. A minimum of 3 individuals must be present and equipped.

219
Q

3-deep deployment model

A

Concept where an IC always has a steady stream of workers.

220
Q

3 layers of 3-deep deployment model

A

First - initial arriving companies who have been assigned into and are working in the hot zone
Second - companies in the on-deck position, a rapidly assignable source
Third - companies in Level 1 or Level 2 staging

221
Q

What is the purpose of an on-deck crew?

A

A relief crew

222
Q

Information to relay to an on-deck crew when exiting the structure

A

Interior conditions
Routing instructions
Interior obstructions
Additional tools/resources required

223
Q

Top factors involved in firefighter deaths and injuries

A
Improper risk assessment
Lack of IC
Lack of accountability
Inadequate communications
Lack of SOP's or failure to follow them
224
Q

3 command options

A

Investigative
Fast Attack - rescue mode or fire attack awaiting a standby team
Command

225
Q

Investigative command option

A

Moving around and evaluating conditions while trying to identify the incident problem. Use a portable radio.

226
Q

3 operational levels at the scene of a fire

A

Strategic
Tactical
Task

227
Q

5 steps of a command transfer

A
  1. Transmit that your unit is on scene initiating a 360.
  2. Conduct 360.
  3. Contact IC #1 and initiate a command transfer.
  4. Verify the position and function of all hot zone resources with IC #1, assume Command and reassign IC #1 based on needs.
  5. Contact and confirm the command transfer with Dispatch, announce the CP location, current strategy, and make a resource determination.
228
Q

Command Function 3

A

Situation Evaluation

229
Q

Define Command Function 3, situation evaluation

A

Develop a regular approach to size-up using standard information management forms that identify the incident’s major critical factors

230
Q

8 Critical Factors

A
BOLAFRAS
Building Type
Occupancy
Life Safety
Arrangment
Fire
Resources
Action
Special Circumstances
231
Q

Explain the “Arrangement” critical factor

A

Distance of exposures, combustibility of exposures, value of exposures, time estimate of fire effect on exposures, barriers to operations, multiple buildings

232
Q

Explain the “Fire” critical factor

A

Size, extent, location, stage of fire

233
Q

Explain the “Resources” critical factor

A

Staffing and equipment on scene, responding, in reserve, response time, number and location of hydrants, water supply, fire protection

234
Q

Explain the “Action” critical factor

A

Effect current action is having, things that need to be done, tactical priorities

235
Q

Explain the “Special Circumstances” critical factor

A

Time of day/night, day of week, season, holidays, special events, weather, hoarder house, drug house

236
Q

What are critical fire ground factors?

A

The basic items an IC must consider when evaluating tactical situations. A checklist of major elements associated with size-up, decision-making, etc.

237
Q

3 Fixed Critical Factors

A

Building
Occupancy Type
Arrangement

238
Q

5 Variable Critical Factors

A
Life
Fire
Resources
Action
Special Circumstances
239
Q

What is the purpose of an Elapsed Time Notification?

A

Re-evaluate conditions, the current strategy, and consider the length of time FF have been in the hot zone

240
Q

Command Function 4

A

Strategy and Incident Action Planning

241
Q

When is a reverse water supply utilized?

A

When large volumes of water are required on the fire ground, usually later in the attack operation when master streams are in operation.
When the distance from an attack pumper is longer than 300 feet to a fire hydrant.
Overhauling a supply is not feasible.
When conditions near a structure risk potential collapse.

242
Q

When is a relay supply utilized?

A

When a supply source exceeds 1000 feet, or is unable to maintain effective pressures, or needed to overcome elevation gains by placing a pumper between an attack pumper and the water supply source

243
Q

What are the 3 main components to a water shuttle operation?

A

Nurse tender
Travel time
Fill site

244
Q

What does a nurse tender do?

A

Provides an uninterrupted water source to the attack pumper

245
Q

What does the IC report after a secondary search is complete of the structure?

A

“All clear”

246
Q

What are the 7 sides of a fire?

A

Interior/inside
Top (ceilings, joist spaces, attics, floor above)
Bottom (floor below, crawl spaces, basements)
All 4 sides (adjacent rooms, occupancies, other buildings, concealed spaces)

247
Q

What does “tapped fire” mean?

A

Main body of fire has been controlled in a unit’s assigned geographic work area, but the 7 sides of the fire have not been checked

248
Q

What does fire “under control” mean?

A

Main body of fire is extinguished and all 7 sides of the fire have been confirmed to have no extension

249
Q

What does “loss stopped” mean?

A

All areas have fire control, primary and secondary searches complete, no other resources required to complete the remaining tactical priorities

250
Q

How to communicate a “withdraw” notification

A

All units operating at Main St Command, withdraw from the structure and report PAR on exit.

251
Q

Rule of thumb for defensive apparatus placement

A

Masonry or wood structures: 1x the full height of the building away from the structure (minimum of at least 30’ away)
Tilt wall structures: 1.5x the full height of the wall away from the building

252
Q

Command Function 5

A

Communication

253
Q

Only 4 terms to be used when describing fire conditions

A

Nothing showing
Smoke showing (where and describe)
Fire showing (where and describe)
Defensive fire conditions

254
Q

3 different basement types

A

Walk-out (daylight basement)
Look-out (small windows at your feet, usually interior stairs)
Walk-up (exterior stairs)

255
Q

Progress reports should be given in what form?

A
LCAAN
Location
Conditions
Actions
Air (percent remaining)
Needs
256
Q

5 major types of communication to the IC

A
Routine traffic
Priority traffic
Emergency traffic
Mayday traffic
Status changes
257
Q

What is a status change used to communicate?

A

Non-urgent change
Completion of an assignment
Other need to contact the IC with no impact to IAP

258
Q

What does a roof report entail?

A
Type of roof
Condition of roof
Fire or smoke conditions
Location of fire walls
Unusual heavy roof loads
Conditions in the attic
Tilt wall report
Action taken
259
Q

What are examples of priority traffic?

A

Urgent need requiring additional resources
Something that will impact IAP
Unable to access assigned work area
Unable to complete task/objective
Victims encountered
Sudden, significant incident events not impacting safety of others
Working concealed space fires not easily controlled

260
Q

What are examples of emergency traffic?

A

Urgent need to the IC impacting the overall safety of others

Will impact the IAP or incident strategy

261
Q

Abandonment sequence by IC

A

Announce abandonment message on tactical frequencies 3 times
Contact dispatch with “emergency traffic” and state that the structure, portion of structure, or area must be abandoned
Request abandonment tone be transmitted

262
Q

Command Function 6

A

Organization

263
Q

3 organizational levels that function at the scene of every hazard zone

A

Strategic: designed around the IC, operating in the Command position, coordinating the activities necessary for overall operational control
Tactical: done by assigning division/group responsibilities
Task: where the work is performed by assigned companies

264
Q

Division vs. Group

A

Division: geographical subdivision
Group: functional work group not tied to a specific location

265
Q

Command Function 7

A

Review, Evaluate, Revise

266
Q

Command Function 8

A

Continue, Support, and Terminate Command

267
Q

What is the Logistics section responsible for?

A

Rehab, staging, supplies, equipment, future resources, communications equipment, fuel, repairs, food

268
Q

What is the Planning section responsible for?

A

Evaluate current strategy and plan, span of control, forecast outcomes, future resource requirements, technical assistance

269
Q

What is the Administrative section responsible for?

A

Procurement of services from sources within and outside the department, financial costs, cost recovery, legal risk, liaison with city and county officials, litigators

270
Q

What is the Subdivision between command and Divisions and Groups called?

A

Branch

271
Q

When should Command consider implementing Branches

A

Major event needing many Divisions and Groups
Two or more large, distinct components (HazMat, medical, etc.)
Incident covers a large geographical area

272
Q

Difference between “Initial 2-out” and Standby Team

A

Standby Team is a formal assignment for a dedicated unit that can remain in place for the duration of the incident, and can perform critical functions, door control, assist with hose advancement, in position and ready to be assigned into the hot zone

273
Q

Staging area on a high rise fire

A

2 floors below the fire

274
Q

Recycle area on a high rise fire

A

1 floor below the fire

275
Q

Medical Group Supervisor responsibilities

A

Triage, treatment, and transport of patients

276
Q

High rise AFA and SWFA response

A

2 E, 1 L, 1 BC

277
Q

How is a High Rise defined?

A

75 feet or higher and/or high hazard

278
Q

High Rise Response - 1st alarm

A

5 E, 2 L, 2 BC

279
Q

High Rise Response - Working Fire Upgrade

A

Add 1 Aid, 1 BC, 2 Medic, 1 MSO, 1 Rehab, 1 Air, BC All Call

280
Q

High Rise Engine 1

A
Size-up, IRR
Meet with security/maintenance
Use FACP to determine floor and problem
Ascend with personnel and equipment to fire floor for investigation
Report findings to Command
281
Q

High Rise Ladder 1

A

Establish Lobby Control, crew is initial standby

282
Q

High Rise Engine 2

A

Assemble equipment and ascend to fire floor to assist with fire attack (driver assists E1 with FDC and pump in series)

283
Q

High Rise Engine 3

A

Entire crew to fire floor to assist with fire attack.
Become Division Supervisor and Standby Crew.
Become RIC when relived by Chief Officer.

284
Q

High Rise Ladder 2

A

Investigate and search floor above, check for extension, considers ventilation options for fire floor, building, and stairwells

285
Q

High Rise Engine 4

A

Assist with fire attack

286
Q

High Rise Engine 5

A

CO to establish Staging. Crew to assist with fire attack

287
Q

High Rise Medic 1

A

Establish Fire Medical, Rehab Area Manager

288
Q

High Rise MSO 1

A

Assigned to Medical Branch or MGS

289
Q

High Rise Aid Car 1

A

Assigned to Fire Medical (assist with rehab in staging)

290
Q

High Rise Fire 2nd alarm companies shall…

A

Respond on the Travel/Logistics channel

291
Q

What does Lobby Control do on a high rise fire?

A

Manage the lobby area, assign personnel to control access to stairwells and elevators in order to maintain accountability

292
Q

What is the Base Area Manager responsible for on a High Rise fire?

A

Direct all companies arriving on scene. Base location at least 200 feet from structure

293
Q

Limited Access Roadways

A

LAR: generally considered freeways

294
Q

Lane numbering

A

Numbered from the outside lane (lane adjacent to the shoulder = 1) to the inside lane (lane adjacent to the median)

295
Q

AIRMAJ

A

Accident involving a large aircraft, potential for multiple patients

296
Q

AIRMIN

A

Accident involving a small aircraft, potential for multiple patient substantially small

297
Q

AIRSBY

A

Airports only. Aircraft precautionary standby

298
Q

Alert 1 (aircraft)

A

Aircraft approaching with difficulty, safe landing expected

299
Q

Alert 2 (aircraft)

A

Aircraft approaching with major difficulty, pilot declared emergency, difficult or crash landing may be expected

300
Q

Alert 3 (aircraft)

A

Aircraft is involved in an accident on/off airport, or pilot indicated that the aircraft may have crash landed

301
Q

AOA (aircraft)

A

Aircraft Operating Area - a restricted area in which any movement of aircraft or vehicles is controlled by the airport tower

302
Q

Low Impact Event (aircraft)

A

Aircraft crash in which there is not catastrophic damage and the fuselage or parts of the fuselage are intact.

303
Q

High Impact Event (aircraft)

A

Aircraft crash which results in catastrophic damage to the aircraft with little or no probability of survivors.

304
Q

Offensive strategy (aircraft)

A

Associated with low impact crash, personnel will be assigned to interior for rescue, extrication, etc.

305
Q

Defensive strategy (aircraft)

A

Associated with high impact crash, personnel will not be entering the interior of the aircraft and efforts are associated with exterior fire suppression, protection of exposures

306
Q

Top 3 operational priorities of any emergency

A

LIP
Life safety
Incident stabilization
Property conservation

307
Q

Main objective of initial fire attack on an aircraft crash

A

Secure and maintain evacuation routes and support the rescue of occupants trapped inside the aircraft

308
Q

Aircraft orientation (name the sides)

A
From sitting in the pilot seat:
Alpha = front left
Bravo = front right
Charlie = rear right
Delta = rear left
309
Q

Type of foam used on aircraft fires

A

Class B

310
Q

Safety area on an accident involving military aircraft

A

Set up upwind and 45 degrees off the port or starboard wing (avoid being in line with weapons stations and within the ejection hazard area)

311
Q

PSF Captain Competencies

A
Coaching/Mentoring/Teaching
Cultural/Relational
Customer Service
Honesty/Integrity/Ethics
Interpersonal Skills
Leadership
Personnel Supervision and Development
Problem Solving
Responsibility
Self-Management
Teamwork
312
Q

PSF Purpose

A

Professionally and compassionately helping people.

313
Q

PSF Vision

A

To be a trusted resource for building safe and healthy communities.

314
Q

PSF Mission

A

To provide effective and sustainable services that meet the needs of a changing community with the resources entrusted to us.

315
Q

PSF Values

A

Integrity
Innovation
Inclusion
Service

316
Q

4 PSF Strategic Goals

A

Meet the community’s need for service.
Connect with our community.
Develop organizational sustainability and resiliency.
Promote the wellness and professional growth of our team.

317
Q

How soon must the Union meet with new hires?

A

Within 30 days, allowed to have 1 hour

318
Q

To return to duty after resignation or retirement, how soon must one apply?

A

2 years

319
Q

Required number of PFT’s in RFA

A

1 per shift

320
Q

How often will members aged 50+ receive a medical eval?

A

Annually

321
Q

How often will members aged 40 to 49 receive a medical eval?

A

Every 2 years

322
Q

How often will members aged 30 to 39 receive a medical eval?

A

Every 3 years

323
Q

How often will members aged 20 to 29 receive a medical eval?

A

Every 4 years

324
Q

How often will members on the HazMat team receive a medical eval?

A

Every year

325
Q

How many hours each year are apprentices granted as time off from their regular duty shifts to attend classes for JATC?

A

57 hours

326
Q

Average regularly scheduled work week for personnel assigned to 24 hour shifts

A

47.53 hours

327
Q

How does the debit schedule work?

A

3 year debit schedule

328
Q

When can one become an AIC Engineer?

A

After completing JATC Module 3A

329
Q

Admin OT minimums

A

3 hours for in person if not at the beginning or end of a shift
1 hour for online/virtual

330
Q

Holiday hour accruals years 1-4

A

84

331
Q

Holiday hour accruals years 5-9

A

96

332
Q

Holiday hour accruals years 10-14

A

108

333
Q

Holiday hour accruals years 15+

A

120

334
Q

Maximum holiday hours

A

120 hours

335
Q

OT on proclaimed holidays

A

Suppression shift employees shall receive 4 hours straight time pay in addition to regular pay for working on holidays

336
Q

Sick Leave Accruals for Suppression

A
12 days (288 hours) per year for first 4 years of service.
8 days (192 hours) per year after 4 years of service.
337
Q

Sick Leave Accruals for Day Shift

A

8 days per year for first 4 years of service.

6 days per year after 4 years of service.

338
Q

Maximum sick leave accrual

A

1440 hours

339
Q

What happens to sick leave hours above the maximum level?

A

They will be cashed out at 25% of the employee’s base wage and placed into the members HRA/VEBA account.

340
Q

When is proof of a visit to a physician’s office required to return to duty?

A

When in excess of 14 calendar days are taken

341
Q

Required notice for sick leave

A

2 hours

342
Q

Maximum sick leave donation

A

11 suppression shifts for shift personnel.

22 days for day shift personnel.

343
Q

Vacation accrual years 1-4

A

5.5 shifts

344
Q

Vacation accrual years 5-9

A

7.5 shifts

345
Q

Vacation accrual years 10-12

A

9.5 shifts

346
Q

Vacation accrual years 13-16

A

10.5 shifts

347
Q

Vacation accrual years 17-19

A

11 shifts

348
Q

Vacation accrual years 20-24

A

11.5 shifts

349
Q

Vacation accrual years 25+

A

12.5 shifts

350
Q

Vacation slots available per day

A

7 per calendar date, with 8 on 7 major holidays (7/4, TG, XMas eve, Xmas, NYE, NYD)

351
Q

Minimum number of hours taken on vacation

A

2 hours

352
Q

Maximum vacation accrual

A

792 hours

353
Q

Vacation leave cash out

A

Cashed out at regular rate of pay at termination

354
Q

Bereavement leave shifts

A

Two 24 shifts without charge to sick leave, and up to 3 additional shifts with pay charged to sick leave

355
Q

2 Medical Insurance Plans Offered

A

PPO Medical Plan

High Deductible Plan (HRA)

356
Q

RFA contribution to Union Retiree Medical Savings Plan

A

$75 per pay period

357
Q

RFA contribution to 457 deferred compensation program

A

3% of a member’s annual base pay

358
Q

Firefighter pay step increases

A
Probationary = 75%
3rd Class = 84%
2nd Class = 91.5%
1st Class = 100% ($110,091)
Engineer = 105%
Captain = 117%
359
Q

Longevity Pay

A

2% for each 5 years of service

360
Q

Specialty Pay

A

3% for HazMat, Ladder, Rescue

2% for Aid Car/CARES officer

361
Q

Standby Pay Rate

A

$5.00/hour

362
Q

Age requirement for Salary Savings Program

A

53 years old at the date of retirement and age plus years of service must equal 78 or higher.

363
Q

Maximum number of salary savings spots

A

12 per year plus 3 more for eligible members at/over the age of 60.

364
Q

Comparable jurisdictions for contract negotiations

A
Tacoma
Everett
South King
Kirkland
Eastside
Renton
Central Pierce
Snohomish 1
365
Q

JATC length of Apprenticeship

A

36 months (6000 hours)

366
Q

What percentage of JATC objectives must be completed with a hard bar Company Officer?

A

50%

367
Q

When do JATC appeals not apply?

A

During the 12 month probationary period

368
Q

Annual requirement of RSI hours

A

144 hours

369
Q

Theme of each JATC Module

A
Basic FF
Aid car driver/EMS
Intermediate FF
Department/special operations
Driver/Engineer
Aid Car/Engine Officer
370
Q

Minimum passing score on JATC written

A

80%

371
Q

Which JATC modules are evaluated by SKCFTC

A

1A, 1B, 2B, 3B

372
Q

JATC retest requirements

A

At least 2 full shifts after the original test date and prior to the anniversary date

373
Q

What frequency do communications between Valley Com and the unit handling STORM calls take place on?

A

Fire 7

374
Q

SERVIC call type

A

Minor flooding, trees down over roadway

375
Q

Dispatching of stacked incidents

A

These incidents are not dispatched by Valley Com and stacking will not generate tones/pages

376
Q

DOC (storm procedures)

A

Department Operation Center

377
Q

Call type KFSTRM

A

Puget Sound RFA storm call

378
Q

Stacked calls in Tiburon

A

Bottom left of the screen.
Red for new unviewed calls.
Green when calls have been reviewed.

379
Q

After handling a STORM call

A

Do not use “Avail on scene” or “in service” buttons. Use the command line at the bottom left, type “C S” in the command line and click “Send”.

380
Q

ACM (WAC)

A

Asbestos-containing material

381
Q

CBRN (WAC)

A

Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear

382
Q

Confined Space definition

A

Large enough and arranged so an employee can enter and perform work.
Limited means for entry and exit.
Not designed for continuous employee occupancy.

383
Q

Exclusion Zone

A

The control zone designated to exclude all unauthorized personnel, responders, and equipment.

384
Q

Range of oxygen concentration to be considered a hazardous atmosphere

A

Below 19.5% or above 23.5%

385
Q

Other Potentially Infectious Materials

A

OPIM
Bodily fluids other than blood
Any unfixed tissue or organ from a human
HIV containing cell or tissue cultures

386
Q

RIC (WAC definition)

A

Team of at least 2 members designated, dedicated, and equipped to effect an immediate rescue of FF

387
Q

Swift water rescue

A

The removal of persons from threat from water moving faster than walking pace (1 knot or 1.15 mph)

388
Q

Trench

A

A narrow excavation made below the surface of the ground. Depth is greater than the width, but the width of a trench is not greater than 15 feet.

389
Q

Work/Rest ratio WAC requirement

A

One hour of rest for every two hours in work status

390
Q

WAC requirement for reporting injuries

A

Within 24 hours after the incident

391
Q

How often must fit testing be completed?

A

Once every 12 months

392
Q

All apparatus over what weight must use wheel chocks on an emergency scene?

A

20,000 lbs GVW

393
Q

Which WAC dictates 2 in/2 out rules?

A

WAC 296-305-05002(4)

394
Q

How often must FF be provided live fire training?

A

Every 3 years

395
Q

For structures built before _____, assume painted surfaces contain lead.

A

1978

396
Q

Rule of thumb for workers falling trees

A

Work at least 2 tree lengths apart at all times

397
Q

Initial Stage Initial Two Out

A

IC and Pump Operator

398
Q

Stand by crew vs. RIC

A

Low risk incident vs. high risk incident

399
Q

What is the purpose of the ERC?

A

Reduce redundancy and consolidate commonly used employee resources

400
Q

What did the ERC replace?

A

Intranet

401
Q

4 main sections of the ERC

A

View
Submit
Request
Navigate

402
Q

What is under the View section of the ERC?

A

News, announcements, memos
Documents, policies, guidelines
Media, webinars

403
Q

What is under the Submit section of the ERC?

A

Training requests
Eval forms
Injury reports
HR forms

404
Q

What is under the Request section of the ERC?

A

Logistics support
IT support
Facilties support
Admin support

405
Q

What is under the Navigate section of the ERC?

A

External links
Social Media
Helpful resources

406
Q

4 PSF Core Values

A

Integrity
Innovation
Inclusion
Service

407
Q

5th floor or above, must use what handline?

A

2.5” hose line with solid bore nozzle