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Caps 391 > Caps 391 > Flashcards

Caps 391 Flashcards

1
Q

What part of the ear has no cartilage?

A

The ear lobe has no cartilage

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2
Q

About how big is the External acoustic meatus? Where does it start and end?

A

It is about one inch, and it starts at eh auricle and ends at the ear drum.

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3
Q

What is the purpose of the ear wax?

A

Ear wax prevents insects from entering the ear.

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4
Q

The middle ear is in the _________ bone and ______ to the ear drum.

A

The middle ear is in the temporal bone and medial to the ear drum.

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5
Q

The tympanic membrane is about a 2 squared cm. True or False

A

False the tympanic membrane is about a square centimeter.

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6
Q

Is the ear drum convex or concave to the middle ear?

A

The tympanic membrane is convex to the middle ear.

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7
Q

The cavity of the middle ear can also be referred to as tympani cavity. True or false

A

true, the middle ear can be referred to as the tympani cavity.

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8
Q

What is attached to the tympanic ear drum?

A

the handle of the malleus is attached to the tympanic membrane.

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9
Q

Right the order of how the middle ear is attached (conveys sound)?

A

The tympanic membrane is convex to the middle ear and attached to the handle of the malleus, which is then attached to the incus, and the incus is attached to eh stapes.

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10
Q

the synovial joints of the middle ear bones are the least vulnerable joints. True or False

A

False, the joints are actually the most vulnerable to develop arthritis, because of how much they are used.

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11
Q

What happens as you develop arthritis in the middle ear?

A

As the joints become less able to carry sound, you loose your hearing. As they become more solid the more hearing you loose.

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12
Q

Why is infection of the middle ear taken so seriously?

A

An infection of the middle ear can cause you to loose your hearing, because the three bones (malleus, stapes and incus) start to fuse.

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13
Q

If the bones are broken you only loose up to 60% of your hearing. True or false

A

False, if this system is broken by arthritis or head injury, you will only loose 40% of your hearing.

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14
Q

What are the two windows of the middle ear? and which is superior (connected to the stapes)?

A

The two windows of the middle ear are the oval and the round window. The round window is inferior to the oval window, which is attached to the stapes.

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15
Q

What muscle is attached to the malleus, that when activated it tenses the tympanic membrane?

A

The tensor tympani is the muscle attached to the ear drum , and when activated it tenses it.

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16
Q

What is the purpose of tensing the ear drum?

A

The purpose of tensing the ear drum is to target what frequency of sound it wants to receive.

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17
Q

What is the purpose of the stapedius?

A

This is quite a large muscle, that doesn’t appear large because the rest is hidden in another cavity. The muscle is attached to the stapes and pulls it away from the the oval window, thereby minimizing the vibrations on the window, and protecting all the delicate receptors in the inner ear.

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18
Q

Name both the muscles of the middle ear and state their innervation.

A

The stapedius and the tensor tympani are the muscles of the middle ear. Both are innervated by cranial nerve seven (facial nerve).

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19
Q

The middle ear is connected to the pharynx via the _____ tube.

A

The middle ear is connected to the nasopharynx via the auditory tube.

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20
Q

What part of the sephnoid is quite thin?

A

The petrous covering the middle ear is quite thin.

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21
Q

The ducts of the inner ear are in the __________ ___________.

A

the ducts of the inner ear are in the membranous labyrinth.

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22
Q

The cochlea, semicircular canals and ________ make up the inner ear.

A

The cochlea, semicircular canals, and the vestibule make up the inner ear.

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23
Q

The vestibule can be found in what?

A

The vestibule is within the boney labyrinth.

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24
Q

What two main parts form the vestibule of the membranous labyrinth?

A

The utricle and the saccule form the vestibule of the membranous labyrinth.

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25
Q

How do the semicircular canals connect to the vestibule?

A

The semicircular canals connect to the vestibule via the utricle and the saccule.

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26
Q

The term given to the section were the semicircular ducts dilate while connecting to the membranous labyrinth is the?

A

Ampulla or plural ampulae

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27
Q

Cristae can be found within the ampulla. what is its function?

A

Cristae are receptors sitting within the ampullae.

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28
Q

What are the receptors called sitting with in the vestibule?

A

The receptors sitting within the vestibule are referred to as maculae.

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29
Q

Is there a fluid within the boney labyrinth or the membranous labyrinth?

A

There is fluid within the membranous labyrinth.

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30
Q

What does the fluid within the membranous labyrinth do?

A

The fluid within the membranous labyrinth moves with the head and stimulates the receptors.

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31
Q

The cochlear duct is also referred to as the ______ _____

A

The cochlear duct is also referred to as the spiral organ.

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32
Q

The vibrations within this organ gives you a sense of hearing?

A

spiral organ also called the cochlear duct.

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33
Q

What names are given to the fluid within the boney labyrinth and the membranous labyrinth? Where is their source?

A

Perilymph is within the boney labyrinth and the endolymph is within the membranous labyrinth. The source of the two fluids is from the endolymphatic sac.

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34
Q

What lies deep to the dura mater and produces two fluids for the inner ear?

A

The endolymphatic sac.

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35
Q

what is the name of the branch that carries the signal of sound to the brain?

A

The cochlear branch of cranial nerve 8 (vestibulocochlear nerve)

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36
Q

The lumen of the boney cochlear wall is divided in to three compartments. What are the three compartments?

A

The three compartments are scala vestibuli, scala tympani, and cochlear duct.

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37
Q

Indicate which membranes separate which compartments in the inner ear?

A

The vestibular membrane separates the cochlear duct from the scala vestibuli. The Basilar membrane separates the cochlear duct from the scala tympani. The tectorial membrane separates the scala tympani and scala vestibuli (and some what the cochlear duct).

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38
Q

Which fluids from the endolymphatic sac fill scala tympani, scala vestibuli, and cochlear duct?

A

Endolymph fills teh cochlear duct and perilymph fills the scala.

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39
Q

The ______ ganglion come together to form the end of the ______ branch of the vestibulocochlear nerve.

A

The spiral ganglion come together to form the end of the cochlear branch of the vestibulocochlear nerve.

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40
Q

Write the path sounds waves travel to the brain.

A

Sound first hits the tympanic membrane, sends a wave to the handle of malleus –> incus –> stapes –> oval window –> scala tympani –> scala vestibuli activating nerve endings.

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41
Q

The beginning of the cochlea is more sensitive to ______ frequency sounds, while the back is more sensitive to ______ frequency sounds.

A

The front is more sensitive to higher frequency sounds, while the back is more sensitive to lower frequency sounds. Coming from the oval window.

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42
Q

What is the purpose of the round window of the ear?

A

The purpose of the round window is to let the sound waves die, or else it would bounce back and you would hear doubles.

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43
Q

How many components make up the ear?

A

The ear is composed of three components the outer ear, the middle ear and the inner ear.

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44
Q

What makes up the outer ear?

A

The auricle, lobule, and external acoustic meatus.

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45
Q

What is the auricle?

A

The auricle is a elastic cartilage with contours that direct sound waves towards the external acoustic meatus.

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46
Q

What is the lobule?

A

The lobule is the lower border of the ear without cartilage, which contains loose connective tissue loaded with fat.

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47
Q

What is the external acoustic meatus?

A

The external acoustic meatus starts at the auricle and ends at the tympanic membrane. It funnels sound to the tympanic membrane and contains glands that secrete cerumen.

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48
Q

What is the purpose for the mucosal membrane of the external acoustic meatus?

A

The mucosal membrane contains sebaceous glands that produce cerumen, that functions to lubricate the membrane and prevent insects from creating nests.

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49
Q

what is another name for the auditory tube?

A

the eustachian tube.

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50
Q

Chronic infection of the middle ear can lead to meningitis and encephalitis how?

A

When the middle ear is infected it can break down the petros, leading to direct access to the cranial cavity. This can feed the development of meningitis and encephalitis.

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51
Q

Where does the malleus ossicle attach?

A

The malleus ossicle attaches to the center of the tympanic membrane.

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52
Q

Which quadrant of the ear contains the least number of blood vessels?

A

the superior left quadrant.

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53
Q

Why are there parts of the temporal bone carved into tunnels?

A

parts of the temporal bone are carved into tunnels for parts of the inner ear.

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54
Q

The endolymphatic sac penetrates the ______ and lies deep to the ____ ______.

A

The endolymphatic sac penetrates the petrous and lies deep to the dura mater.

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55
Q

Ducts are embedded within the boney labyrinth and contain _________ fluid. What is the purpose of this fluid?

A

Endolymph fluid moves and stimulates receptors when you move your head.

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56
Q

Cristae, receptors found within the ampulla do what?

A

The receptors or cristae indicate the position of the head and neck in space.

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57
Q

The vestibule of membranous labyrinth comprised of ______ and ______, contain what receptors?

A

The utricle and the saccule contain maculae receptors

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58
Q

What comprises the roof and floor of the cochlear duct?

A

The roof of the cochlear duct is composed of the tectorial membrane and the floor is the basilar membrane.

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59
Q

what is another name for the spiral organ?

A

Organ of corti

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60
Q

The cortex that receives sense of hearing is different if females and male. true or false? if true explain.

A

True, in males the dominant cortex receives the sense and for females both hemispheres receive sense of hearing.

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61
Q

How are sound waves passed through the inner ear from the oval window?

A

The sound waves pass from the oval window to scal vestibuli and then to scala tympani. These waves cause vibrations on the membranes (especially basilar) which create electrical impulses by organ of corti.

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62
Q

The round window covers the end of the scala ______ and damps sound waves so they dont echo back.

A

scala tympani

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63
Q

Why is there a lot of fat that embedded around the eye?

A

The function of the fat around the eye is for protection for the eye.

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64
Q

What fat is the first to be absorbed when you are stressed or hungry?

A

The fat around the eyes are the first to be absorbed when you are hungry or stressed.

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65
Q

Why does the eye lid not wrinkle?

A

The eye lid does not wrinkle because there is a tarsal plate in it.

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66
Q

There are no glands in the eyelid itself. True or false

A

False, there are oil/sebaceous glands in the eyelid that release to the root of the eyelashes keeping them moist and oily.

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67
Q

What does the cornea do?

A

The cornea helps alter the light

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68
Q

what is the conjunctiva? what does the conjunctiva sac do?

A

The conjunctiva covers the inner surface of the lower and upper eyelid, which is also continuous with the skin of the eyelid. The sac collects tears.

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69
Q

The eye is about 1.5 inches in every direction and weighs about 7 grams. True or False

A

False the eye is about 1 inch in every direction and weighs about 7 grams.

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70
Q

The eyeball has different layers, what makes up the outer most part of the eyeball?

A

The sclera is the outer most layer made up of dense connective tissue.

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71
Q

What is the sclera act as?

A

The sclera acts as a attachment and protector of the other structures of the eye.

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72
Q

The anterior one sixth of the eye is not the sclera anymore, so what makes up this section?

A

The anterior one sixth is the cornea.

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73
Q

What is the second most outer layer and what is its function/structure?

A

The second layer is the vascular layer carrying a lot of blood vessels called the choroid.

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74
Q

The front part of the choroid gives rise to the ______ body and the _____.

A

Gives rise to the ciliary body and the iris.

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75
Q

How is the ciliary body attached to the lens? what do they do?

A

The ciliary body is attached to the lens via suspensory ligaments, which change the convex of the lens.

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76
Q

What is the purpose of the iris?

A

The iris covers the anterior side of the lens, which has a opening called the pupil.

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77
Q

Describe the third layer of the eyeball?

A

The third layer of the eyeball is the nervous layer called the retina that makes up the posterior 3/4 of the eyeball. The retina has a pigment layer that lays closest to the choroid, separating it from the nervous layer. The pigmented layer covers the ciliary body giving rise to the colour of the eye.

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78
Q

What is the Ora serrata?

A

Ora serrata is the border line, which indicates when the pigmented layer continuous without the nervous layer.

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79
Q

What is so unique about the optic disc?

A

The optic disc is also called the blind spot because it does not have any photo receptors, making it unique. It carries the optic nerve.

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80
Q

What is lateral to the optic disc that is vital to seeing?

A

The macula lutea is lateral to the optic disc, which is the part that receives most of the light and therefore the most active part.

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81
Q

What is the part of the eye that receives most of the light on the back of the retina?

A

The macula lutea receives most of the light and is the most active part.

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82
Q

There is a dark spot in the middle of the macula lutea called the fovea optica. True or false

A

False, the dark part is called the fovea centralis.

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83
Q

How many main spaces are there in the eye?

A

There are three main spaces in the eye. the anterior, posterior, and vitrous chamber.

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84
Q

Are the chambers of the eye continuous? Explain

A

The posterior space and the anterior space are continuous, therefore both have aqueous humor.

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85
Q

What produces the aqueous humor?

A

The ciliary body produces teh aqueous humor.

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86
Q

What is the space called behind the eye? what is it filled with?

A

behind the lens you have the vitreous chamber that contains a jelly like substances called the vitreous humor.

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87
Q

What is the function of the vitreous body?

A

The function of the vitreous body is to maintain shape.

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88
Q

What happens as we age in the vitreous humor?

A

As we age the vitreous humor forms small crystals that accumulate at the floor.

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89
Q

Explain what is happening with regards to the lens and ciliary body when looking at something far away compared to something close?

A

Ciliary muscles of the ciliary body are arranged in a concentric manner. Constriction of the
ciliary muscle (controlled by parasympathetic nervous system) decreases the diameter of
the opening that houses the lens, causing the suspensory ligaments to relax and the lens
become more rounded (relaxed), allowing for near vision (35 – 40 cm). For far vision
(above 40m), ciliary muscles relax (controlled by the sympathetic nervous system), causing
the suspensory ligaments to stretch and the lens to stretch

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90
Q

What nervous system is working when you are looking far away? how about close?

A

The sympathetic nervous system is active when you look at something far away but the parasympathetic nervous system is in control when you are looking at something close.

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91
Q

How many muscles fibers does the iris have? Provide a discriptor

A

The muscles of the iris run circular like a sphincter and other set are radial.

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92
Q

What are the muscles of the iris?

A

The muscles of the iris are the sphincter pupillae and the dilator pupilae.

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93
Q

The _________ constricts and the ________ dilates the pupil.

A

The parasympathetic constricts and the sympathetic dilates the pupil.

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94
Q

What is the function of the aqueous humor?

A

The function of the aqueous humor is for supplying nutrition and oxygen to the cornea, and it collects waste product, thereby acting as a sewage system for the cornea.

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95
Q

Where does the waste product drain from the cornea?

A

The waste drains in the sclera at eh corneal-sclera junction.

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96
Q

The large veins at the corneal-sclera junction are referred to as scleral venous sinus. What happens if the sclera venous sinus is obstructed?

A

You will get glaucoma.

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97
Q

The _______ gland secretes tears _________, and is controlled by CN _____.

A

The lacrimal gland secretes tears continuously, and is controlled by cranial nerve seven (facial nerve).

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98
Q

Describe the path of a tear.

A

The tear will be produced by the lacrimal gland and be washed over the eye by the eyelid. The tear then is collected at the lacrimal canaliculus, which carries it to the lacrimal sac. The sac opens in the nasolacrimal duct which brings the fluid to the inferior meatus.

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99
Q

Inflammation in what sinus can cause pressure pain in the eye?

A

The maxillary sinus

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100
Q

What is the function of the levator palpebrae superioris? What causes drooping of the eyelid?

A

The levator palpebrae superioris moves the upper eyelid and is innervated by cranial nerve 8 (vestibulocochlear nerve) and the sympathetic nervous system. When the sympathetic nervous system is malfunctioning it causes drooping of the eyelid.

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101
Q

The sebaceous glands are in the tarsus plate, what happens when they become inflamed?

A

When inflamed they form a stye.

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102
Q

The choroid is a fibrous layer? true or false.

A

True

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103
Q

What does the sclera provide?

A

The sclera offers mechanical protection and provides site of attachment for extra ocular muscles.

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104
Q

The cornea makes up the anterior ___ of the outer eye. What does what?

A

Cornea, which helps focus light.

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105
Q

The ciliary body and iris are what type of muscle?

A

The are both smooth muscles.

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106
Q

The iris is a ____ covering the _______ side of the lens.

A

The iris is a disk covering the anterior side of the lens.

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107
Q

What do axons of the cones and rods form?

A

the optic nerve

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108
Q

The scleral venous sinus can also be called what?

A

canal of schlemm

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109
Q

Whats is the lacrimal apparatus?

A

The lacrimal apparatus is composed of glands and ducts.

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110
Q

which muscle will open the lacrimal canaliculi duct?

A

orbicularis oculi

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111
Q

The exocrine gland produces ______ ______ cells. How is it different then Endocrine gland, when releasing its content?

A

The exocrine gland produces white blood cells, and releases them to a duct. The endocrine gland releases directly to the blood stream.

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112
Q

The endorcine gland arises from the thalamus and the exocrine arises from epithelium. True or false

A

False, they both arise from epithelium.

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113
Q

What is the master of the endocrine system, which sits below and anterior to the thalamus and is part of the diencephalon (anterior part of the third ventricle)?

A

The hypothalamus.

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114
Q

Where is the pineal gland located and what is its function?

A

The pineal gland is located on the posterior wall of the third ventricle and its function is to secrete melatonin regulating skin, sexual behavior, and circadian rhythms.

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115
Q

which gland cooperates with the hypothalamus to mediate it with other glands of the endocrine system?

A

The pituitary gland.

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116
Q

Which gland is not really an endocrine gland but is considered part of the system?

A

The thymus is considered part of the endocrine system but really it is for the immune system.

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117
Q

Which gland sits anterior to the larynx and has 4 smaller glands embedded within itself?

A

The thyroid has 4 smaller glands embedded within itself.

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118
Q

What hormone regulates white blood cells?

A

Thymocin regulates white blood cells.

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119
Q

What is the difference between testis and the ovaries, in regards to hormone production?

A

Testis produces testosterone and the ovaries produce estrogen.

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120
Q

What regulates most of the endocrine system and ways only half a gram?

A

The pituitary gland.

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121
Q

Where does the pituitary gland sit?

A

The pituitary gland sits below the hypothalamus within the sphenoid bone.

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122
Q

what connects the pituitary gland to the third ventricle?

A

The infundibulum connects the pituitary to the third ventricle.

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123
Q

Nerve bundles pass through the _______ that come from the hypothalamus, and connects to the ________ pituitary. Which is physically connected to the __________.

A

Nerve bundles pass through the infundibulum that come the hypothalamus, and connects to the posterior pituitary. Which is physically connected to the hypothalamus.

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124
Q

The anterior part of the pituitary can be divided into a few sections, which are? Define each anatomically

A

the pars tuberalis which wraps around the infundibulum, and the pars distalis. They are both endocrine.

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125
Q

What is the name of the third part of the pituitary gland which we do not know to much about yet?

A

The third part of the pituitary gland is called the intermedia.

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126
Q

What is a signal indicating a tumour is in the pituitary?

A

The lose of a visual fields.

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127
Q

In the hypothalamus the PVN and SON are closely related to the pituitary. What do the acronyms stand for?

A

the paraventricular nucleus and the supra optic nucleus are both closely related to the pituitary.

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128
Q

The paraventricular nucleus can stimulate the anterior pituitary by a indirect pathway. Explain?

A

The PVN causes the release of IHs and RHs (inhibitor hormone and releasing hormone) into a venous system that supplies the anterior pituitary and eventually drains the anterior pituitary. The anterior pituitary releases many stimulating hormones (SHs, TSH, ACTH, HGH, PRL, LH, FSH, and MSH) into the venous drainage.

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129
Q

The posterior pituitary is supplied by a normal _______ and receives axons directly from which of the two nuclei: Paraventricular or Supra Optic?

A

The posterior pituitary is supplied by normal capillaries and receives axons directly from both the SON and the PVN, but mainly from the SON.

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130
Q

What supplies the posterior pituitary with electrical signals more so?

A

The Supra optic nuclei supplies the posterior pituitary more so.

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131
Q

Where do the hormones OT and ADH originate from? What is this pathway referred to as?

A

Originally the hormones OT and ADH come from the hypothalamus, brought to the posterior pituitary via axons from SON and PVN. This is the direct pathway.

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132
Q

State which organs are targeted by the anterior pituitary and posterior pituitary: adrenal, pineal, gonad, thyroid, liver, skin, breast, uterus, and kidney.

A

The posterior pituitary targets the kidney and uterus

The anterior targets the adrenal, pineal, gonad, thyroid, liver.

Both posterior and anterior target the skin and breast.

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133
Q

What connects the two lateral lobes of the thyroid gland?

A

The isthmus

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134
Q

Which two branches of the circulatory system supply the thyroid gland?

A

The subclavian and the external carotid.

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135
Q

How is the thyroid drained?

A

The thyroid is drained by one vein.

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136
Q

What does the parathyroid gland secrete? Which does what?

A

The parathyroid secretes parathyroid hormone, which increase the level of calcium in the body.

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137
Q

Will taking calcium you should also take ________.

A

estrogen, which controls the uptake of calcium.

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138
Q

How does the left and right adrenal gland differ in shape?

A

The left adrenal gland is crescent shape and the right is pyramidal.

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139
Q

The adrenal glands have a medullary part. True or False.

A

True

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140
Q

The cortical part of the adrenal gland produces a hormone involved with?

A

The hormone is involved in balancing minerals sodium and glucose.

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141
Q

What part of the adrenal gland are part of both sympathetic and parasympathetic systems?

A

The medullary part.

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142
Q

____________ fibers that go to the center of the medulla are modified and are miss placed _____. When are the hormones of the adrenal medulla activated?

A

The preganglionic fibers that go to the center of the medulla are modified, they are referred to as miss placed ganglion. The hormones are activated by the nervous system.

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143
Q

Exocrine releases ______ through ____.

A

Exocrine releases enzymes through ducts.

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144
Q

Who does the endocrine system cooperate with to maintain homeostasis?

A

The nervous system.

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145
Q

Melatonin is involved in regulating the distribution of what hormone?

A

melanin

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146
Q

The pituitary gland can also be referred to as _________.

A

hypophysis

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147
Q

what is the part of the sphenoid bone called where the pituitary gland sits?

A

the pituitary fossa or also referred to as sella turcica.

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148
Q

The pars ________ of the anterior lobe wraps around the ___________ and is continuous with the pars _____, which is the major part of the _______ lobe.

A

The pars tuberalis of the anterior lobe (of the pituitary) wraps around the infundibulum and is continuous with the pars distalis, which is the major part of the anterior lobe.

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149
Q

Why are pars tuberalis and distalis the important parts?

A

Because they are the real endocrine tissues.

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150
Q

The anterior part of the pituitary is referred to as ____________.

A

adenohypophysis

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151
Q

Explain both the direct and indirect pathway of the hypothalamus and pituitary complex.

A

the indirect pathway anterior pituitary: PVN of the hypothalamus releases Receiving Hormones (RH) and Inhibiting Hormones (IH) into a
capillary network to be delivered, via a hypophyseal portal vein, to a secondary capillary
network in the anterior pituitary. When hormones reach this second capillary network, they
leave to target the glandular tissues of the anterior pituitary. In response to RH and IH, the
anterior pituitary releases stimulating hormones (e.g. TSH, ACTH, HGH, PRL, LH, FSH, and MSH)
back into the second capillary network to be distributed to the various targets in the body.

The direct pathway between the hypothalamus and the posterior pituitary:Posterior pituitary receives axons directly from the hypothalamus (mostly from SON, but some
PVN). These axons carry hormones produced by the hypothalamus to be stored in the posterior
pituitary (e.g. OT and ADH)

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152
Q

The indirect pathway can be referred to as what?

A

A portal system, it is supplied and drained by the veins.

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153
Q

What is the primary delivery network for the indirect pathway of the pituitary gland?

A

The hypophyseal portal vein.

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154
Q

what are the two arteries that supply the thyroid gland, and where do they come from?

A

The inferior thyroid artery coming from the subclavian artery and the superior thyroid artery coming from the external carotid artery supply the thyroid gland.

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155
Q

Where is the blood of the thyroid gland drained to via the thyroid vein?

A

It is drained into the left brachiocephalic vein.

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156
Q

What hormones are secreted by the thyroid and what are their function?

A

Hormones t3 and t4 are involved with balancing metabolism, and calcitonin cooperates with the parathyroid glands to balance the calcium levels.

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157
Q

Do parathyroid glands receive their own blood supply and their hormones counter act that of calcitonin?

A

Yes the parathyroid receives its own blood supply and its hormone increase calcium levels.

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158
Q

The thymus is more apart of the immune system than the endocrine gland, but what does it secrete?

A

The gland secretes thymoxine.

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159
Q

Describe the pancreas in relation to the endocrine system?

A

The pancreas is more known as a exocrine gland but has some endocrine components. The Islets of Langerhans are endocrine cells and function to balance the level of sugar in the blood.

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160
Q

Islets of Langerhans only make up about 4% of the pancreatic tissue. True or False

A

False, the islets of langerhans make up 2% of pancreatic tissue.

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161
Q

Medulla can be considered a miss placed ganglion, which chromaffin cells release which two hormones (controlled by sympathetic nervous system)?

A

Epinephrine and norepinephrine

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162
Q

What structure passes the fertilized eggs cell to the uterus?

A

The uterine tube passes the fertilized egg to the uterus

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163
Q

The peritoneum covers the _______ and reflects the superior surface of the ______ surface. In regards to the female reproductive system.

A

The peritoneum covers the uterus and reflects the superior surface of the urinary surface.

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164
Q

The uterus is retro peritoneal. True or false

A

False the uterus is intra peritoneal.

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165
Q

What are the pouches that the peritoneum creates about the female reproductive system? What is the deepest peritoneal cavity?

A

The two pouches created by the peritoneum are the uterovesical pouch, anterior to the uterus, and the posterior pouch called the rectouterine pouch or the douglas pouch. The douglas pouch is the deepest part in the peritoneal cavity.

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166
Q

Which pouch is anterior to the uterus and which is posterior: Uterovesical pouch and rectouterine pouch. What is another name for the rectouterine pouch?

A

The uterovesical pouch is anterior and the rectouterine pouch is posterior. The rectouterine pouch can also be called the Douglas pouch

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167
Q

There is just one peritoneal pouch in males, what is its name?

A

Rectovesical pouch

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168
Q

Where does all the puss and blood accumulate when there is an infection in the peritoneum?

A

It will collect in the rectovesical or rectouterine pouch, because it is the deepest pouch of the peritoneum.

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169
Q

What is the broad ligament?

A

The broad ligament is a double layer of peritoneum, for which the ovary attaches to the posterior layer.

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170
Q

The ovary attaches to the ______ layer of the double layered peritoneum broad ligament.

A

The ovaries attaches to the posterior layer of the double layered peritoneum broad ligament.

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171
Q

What part of the female reproductive system is in the abdominal cavity?

A

the ovaries

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172
Q

How does the egg pass to the fallopian tubes?

A

The egg passes from the fallopian tubes from the ovaries by staying between the two layers of the broad ligament.

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173
Q

The ovary is attached to the ____ of the broad ligament

A

the ovary is attached to the back of the broad ligament.

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174
Q

Which female reproductive structure is the only one in the peritoneum cavity?

A

The ovary

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175
Q

What are the finger like projections in a female?

A

the finger like projections are referred to as fimbriae

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176
Q

Two of the fimbriae are attached to the ovary. True or False

A

False only one of the fimbriae are attached to the ovary.

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177
Q

What movement is stimulated at the time of ovulation?

A

The fimbriae are stimulated to do a grasp release excel movement at the time of ovulation.

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178
Q

What is the net part at the end of the uterine tube?

A

the infundibulum

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179
Q

Where is the site of fertilization?

A

The ampulla is the site of fertilization.

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180
Q

What happens as you move closer and closer to the uterus from the ampulla?

A

The lumen becomes smaller and smaller to about 1 mm.

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181
Q

what is the name given to the part of the uterus above the entry of the isthmus?

A

this part is called the fundus.

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182
Q

The body of the uterus tapers out until it joins with the cervix. True or False

A

False the uterus tapers down till it joins with the cervix.

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183
Q

If the top is called the fundis then the lower part below the entry is called the _____.

A

The body

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184
Q

the cervix inserts into the vagina creating a circular space called the ________.

A

the fornix.

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185
Q

the cervix is a ring, therefore can be referred to as ________, ________, and ________.

A

The cervix is a ring therefore it can be referred to as posterior, anterior and lateral.

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186
Q

How long will the semen stay in the fornix before entering the uterus?

A

20-30 mins.

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187
Q

The narrow point before the cervix is called the internal _______. What about the otehr side?

A

The internal os, and the other side is called the external os.

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188
Q

which structures make up the mesosalpinx?

A

The ovarian blood vessels, suspensory ligament of the ovary, and the part of the broad ligament make up the mesosalpinx.

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189
Q

Another subdivision of the broad ligament is called the _______.

A

Mesovarium.

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190
Q

What planes do the mesovarium run?

A

The mesovariums run along the transverse plane and coronal plane.

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191
Q

Name all the ligaments for the female reproductive structures?

A

The ligaments that hold the female reproductive structures in place are the mesometrium, uterosacral, lateral cervical, ovarian, and round ligament.

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192
Q

which is the most important ligament stabilizing the uterus?

A

The round ligament.

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193
Q

The ________ canal serves as a passage for the round ligament, so it can insert into connective tissue below.

A

The inguinal canal.

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194
Q

What are the two angles that must be maintained for fertility, and what is their corresponding angle?

A

The two angles that are important for fertility are the anteflexion angle 120-125 degress, and the anteversion angle which is roughly 90 degrees.

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195
Q

Which two ligaments maintain the anteflexion and the anteversion angles of the uterus?

A

the round ligament and the uterocervical ligament

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196
Q

The round ligament pulls the body _____, while the uterocervical ligament pulls the body _____.

A

The round ligament pulls forward, while the uterocervical ligament pulls backward.

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197
Q

You can identify 3 pairs of skin folds that are mainly composed of fat. True or False

A

False you can identify 2 pairs of skin folds, which are mainly composed of fat.

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198
Q

The mons _____ is _____.

A

The mons pubis is fat.

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199
Q

The labia minora is outside while the labia majora are inside. False or True

A

False the labia majora are outside while the labia minora are inside.

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200
Q

What are the two openings on either side of the vagina? What are their function?

A

the two openings on either side of the vagina are openings for vestibular glands, which secrete a lubricating fluid.

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201
Q

What is equivalent to the scrotum for females?

A

Labia majora

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202
Q

The root of the clitoris _____ of the _______ don’t merge, and they are ________ tissue.

A

The root of the clitoris bulb of the vestibules don’t merge and they are erectile tissue.

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203
Q

What is the other erectile tissue found in women (besides the nipples)?

A

the crus of the clitoris.

204
Q

The breast is simply a modified what?

A

The breast is simply a modified sweat gland.

205
Q

How does the breast tissue sit with respect to skin?

A

The breast sits within the superficial fascia deep to the skin.

206
Q

The ducts of the breast cells carry to the ______.

A

The ducts of the breast cells carry to the nipples.

207
Q

After the first pregnancy what happens to the areola?

A

the areola stays dark after the first pregnancy.

208
Q

The __________ duct of the breasts have a bulge called the ________ sinus that ends to the ducts.

A

The lactiferous duct have a bulge called the lactiferous sinus that ends to the ducts.

209
Q

The female gametes produced in the ovaries? What hormones are produced here?

A

Ovum, estrogen and progestogen

210
Q

Originally the ovaries are within the broad ligament, and then they migrate out. True or False

A

True

211
Q

when is estrogen highest?

A

At time of ovulation.

212
Q

What is the infundibulum?

A

It is the funnel-shaped lateral end of the uterine tube that hangs over the ovary.

213
Q

Fundus is above the entrance of the _____ ____.

A

fallopian tube.

214
Q

Since the uterus is covered the peritoneum it can be referred to as?

A

an intraperitoneal organ

215
Q

What is anterior to the uterus and between the uterus and bladder?

A

The uterovesicle pouch.

216
Q

The uterus connects to the cervical canal via the ______ __, while the cervix opens to the vagina via the ________ ___.

A

The uterus connects the the cervical canal via the internal os, while the cervix opens to the vagina via the external os.

217
Q

The round ligament is equivalent to ________ deferens.

A

Ductus deferens

218
Q

Subdivision of the broad ligament and their plane.

A

mesosalpinx is in the coronal plane and the mesovarium is in the transverse plane, and both are between the ovaries and the uterinetube but above the ovarian ligament. Mesometrium is below the ovarian ligament and the mesosalpinx and mesovarium.

219
Q

what attaches the cervix to the sacrum?

A

Uterosacral ligament.

220
Q

what attaches the cervix and vagina to the lateral wall of the bony pelvis in the coronal plane?

A

Lateral cervical or cardinal ligament.

221
Q

what is the vestibule of the vagina?

A

it is a cleft between the labia minora that receives the openings of the urethra and vagina.

222
Q

the crus of the clitoris arises from where and forms what?

A

The crus arises from the inferior ramus of pubis and forms the corpora cavernosa in the body of the clitoris.

223
Q

Mammary glands can be found in the ______

A

the breast

224
Q

What suspends and anchors the breasts in place and divides it into four lobes?

A

Septums from the pectoralis major fascia entering the breasts as a suspensory ligaments divides the breast into lobes and suspends and anchors the breasts.

225
Q

Roughly how many lobes are in each breast?

A

16.

226
Q

where abouts do the breasts sit and what are they innervated by?

A

breasts sit anterior to ribs 2-6, and they are innervated by intercostal nerves of t2-t6

227
Q

what drains the lymphatic vessels of the breasts?

A

Axillary lymph nodes drain the lymphatic vessels of the breasts.

228
Q

Which spinal segment innervates the ureter?

A

Spinal segmetns from t11 to L1

229
Q

Where is the dermatome of L11-L12?

A

The dermatome of l11-l12 is below the belly button, hypogastric and external genitalia.

230
Q

Kidney stones usually gets stuck in a restricted area, such as the _____ of the ______

A

Lumen of the ureter

231
Q

What are ureters?

A

Ureters are muscular tubes that are about cm long.

232
Q

How many constrictions do ureters have on their course?

A

ureters have three constrictions on their course.

233
Q

Describe the locations of the constrictions of the ureters?

A

The first constriction is at the beginning of the start, at level 1 of L1. It passes over the common iliac artery to get into the pelvis, at which the second constriction occurs. This is at the level of the SI joint. The third constriction is at the level of S2.

234
Q

the first constriction is at L3, the second at the SI joint, and the third at S3. True or false?

A

False, the first constriction of the ureter is at L1, the second at the SI, and the third at S2 level.

235
Q

What are the four coverings of the kidneys?

A

The four coverings of the kidneys are pararenal fat, renal fascia, perirenal fat, and renal (fibrous) capsule.

236
Q

What is another name for Perirenal Fat?

A

Perinephric fat

237
Q

Kidneys are surrounded by ___ layers.

A

Kidneys are surrounded by 4 layers.

238
Q

What do the Paranephric and perinephric layers do functionally?

A

These layers cushion and insulate the kidneys, to prevent severe fluctuation of temperature in the kidneys.

239
Q

You have to have the kidneys at the right temperature for them to function. True or False

A

True

240
Q

What is the purpose of the renal fascia?

A

The renal fascia anchors kidneys in place.

241
Q

The kidney is comprised of the ____ and ______. The apex of the ______ is always directed towards the _____.

A

The kidney is comprised of the cortex and the medulla. The apex of the medulla is always directed towards the hilum.

242
Q

What are the renal columns extensions of?

A

The renal columns are extensions of the cortex.

243
Q

What opens up into the minor calyx? What does the minor calyx give rise to? Do all calices merge to form something? if so what?

A

The renal papilla opens up into minor calyx which gives rise to major calyx. All major calices merge together to form the renal pelvis.

244
Q

What is within the renal sinus?

A

The renal sinus contains the minor and major calyx, and the renal pelvis.

245
Q

How many lobes and pyramids does the kidney have?

A

Each kidney has about 1-20 lobes and pyramids.

246
Q

Approximately how many nephrons are in a kidney?

A

1 million per kidney

247
Q

How much kidney could you survive on?

A

You could survive on 1/3rd of one kidney.

248
Q

When the kidney stone is rough and gets stuck in a calyx what happens? How about the ureter?

A

If it gets stuck in the calyx it blocks excretion of urine from that area resulting in a build up that damages the tissue, and you feel no pain. When a kidney gets stuck in the ureter it is very painful.

249
Q

What can be found right above the pubic symphysis?

A

The apex of the urinary bladder can be found right above the pubic symphysis.

250
Q

The urinary bladder is not part of the true pelvis. True or False

A

False the kidney is part of the true pelvis.

251
Q

What lies posterior to the bladder?

A

Seminal vesicles and the rectum lie posterior to the bladder.

252
Q

The inferolateral surface of the bladder lay with relation to which structures?

A

The pelvic floor and prostate.

253
Q

In females how does the surface differ in relation to structures?

A

In females the bladder is inferior to the uterus and above the vagina.

254
Q

are kidneys retroperitoneal or intraperitoneal?

A

The kidneys are retroperitoneal.

255
Q

The kidneys are related to the diaphragm, ______ abdominus, quadratus _________, and the ____ major muscle

A

The kidneys are related to the diaphragm, transverse abdominus, quadratus lumborum, and the psoas major muscle.

256
Q

The left and right kidney differ in anatomical relation. True or False?

A

True, the right is lower because of the liver and the left is by the pancreas and spleen. Right is by rib 12 and the left is rib 11 and 12.

257
Q

The medial border is convex and the lateral border of the kidney is concave. True or False?

A

False, the medial is concave and the lateral is convex.

258
Q

What is the difference between the right renal vein vs the left renal vein?

A

The right renal vein is shorter than the left renal vein because the inferior vena cava shift.

259
Q

list the layers of coverings of the kidneys from inside to out?

A

From inside to out the kidney is covered by the renal fibrous capsule –> perirenal (nephric) fat –> Renal fascia –> pararenal (nephric) fat.

260
Q

Which layer of the kidney is loose connective tissue?

A

the renal fascia is the loose connective tissue.

261
Q

Renal papilla opens up into ______ calyx.

A

minor calyx.

262
Q

What structure is sometimes referred to as the main functional unit of the kidney?

A

The renal lobe

263
Q

Are the ureters retroperitoneal or intraperitoneal?

A

they are retroperitoneal.

264
Q

What structure eventually becomes the ureter?

A

The renal pelvis, which is part of the hilum.

265
Q

List the three constrictions from beginning to the end, in the urinary system?

A
  1. Beginning, where it arises from the renal pelvis (LI)
  2. When it passes over the common iliac artery to enter pelvis sacroiliac joint
  3. At the end, when it enters the urinary bladder (SII)
266
Q

Referred pain due to the kidneys can be subjected to where?

A

referred pain can be at dermatomes below the umbilicus to external genitalia.

267
Q

What is it called when a kidney stone becomes lodged in the kidneys calices increasing the pressure and damaging tissue?

A

Hydronephrosis

268
Q

What is the maximum capacity of the urinary bladder?

A

700-800ml

269
Q

when are the warning signals for going pee? What happens at the final signal?

A

there are three warning signals, the first being at 150 ml, the second at 300 ml, and the third at 500 ml.At the last signal the internal sphincter opens voluntarily putting too much pressure on the external sphincter causing it to open.

270
Q

What name is given to the mucosal folds on the bladder, which permit it to expand?

A

Rugae.

271
Q

What is the special feature of the Urinary trigone?

A

It is an inverted triangular surface that does not have folds, at the base of the bladder.

272
Q

Which structure of the bladder that does not have folds?

A

The urinary trigone.

273
Q

How is it that when the bladder fills urine does not move back into the ureters?

A

The ureters travel for a few cm within the wall of the bladder, entering at the superior corners of the trigone. Since there are not sphincters at the end of the ureters, when pressure builds in the bladder it compresses the ureters to close.

274
Q

Where does the ligaments anchor the bladder?

A

The ligaments anchor the bladder to the posterior surface of the anterior abdominal wall.

275
Q

what is unique about lateral umbilicus and median umbilicus?

A

Both these structures are remnants of structures used when in the womb. The lateral is a remnant of umbilical arteries, and the median is a remnant of an embryonic structure.

276
Q

Describe the muscle that forms the internal sphincter?

A

the detrusor muscle forms the internal sphincter, which is a smooth muscle.

277
Q

What composes the external sphincter of the urinary system?

A

The voluntary external sphincter is composed of the muscles of the pelvic floor.

278
Q

List both the female and the male urethral segments?

A

The male segments start at the preprostatic (just before entering the prostate), prostatic (portion passing through the prostate), membranous (passing through muscular membrane of the pelvic floor), Spongy/penile/phalic is the portion passing through the penis.

The female urethra is embedded within the anterior wall of the vagina and is shorter than compared to males.

279
Q

What keeps the urethra moist in females?

A

the paraurethral gland.

280
Q

Why do the testes level the abdominal wall?

A

because their function requires cooler temperature.

281
Q

What is the name of the thick layer of connective tissue that surrounds the testes, and divides septum’s entering the testes into smaller segments?

A

Tunica Albuginea

282
Q

What contains 2/3 seminiferous tubules?

A

Testicular lobules

283
Q

________ _________ is a short duct that drains sperm produced in the ________ tubules.

A

efferent ductules are short ducts that drain sperm produced in the seminiferous tubules.

284
Q

What are the rete testes?

A

Rete testes are a complex network of ducts on the posterior testes that drains into the epididymis.

285
Q

Where is the head tail and body of the epididymis located, and what is its function?

A

The head is located ontop of the testes, the body is posterior to the testes, the tail is on the end of the testes. The function of the epididymis is maturation of sperm

286
Q

How long does it take to travel 5m length for sperm?

A

64 days.

287
Q

what do the testes descend through in utero?

A

The inguinal

288
Q

What structure begins after the epididymis and connects to the prostatic urethra?

A

The Vas deferens

289
Q

The vas deferens ends as a ampulla. True or false?

A

True, the vas deferens end as a dilation (Ampulla).

290
Q

What does the spermatic cord contain?

A

The spermativ cord contains the vas deferens, blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic vessels.

291
Q

The seminal vesicle is a storage unit for sperm. True or false?

A

False seminal vesicles are glands that produce the semen and secrete it.

292
Q

What does the seminal vesicles secrete?

A

mainly fructose

293
Q

What is embedded within the prostate and opens to the prostatic urethra? When is it formed?

A

The ejaculatory duct is embedded within the prostate that forms when the vas deferens and the seminal vesicles unit.

294
Q

What structure contains enzymes that can denature the proteins that surround and protect the head of the sperm?

A

The prostate produces semen fluid that does this.

295
Q

Where is the bulbourethra located and what is its function?

A

The bulbourethra are pea sized glands embedded in the muscular layer of the pelvic floor that releases secretions to the penile urethra that lubricate the urethral lumen.

296
Q

What components make up the root of the penis?

A

The corpora cavernosa (crus of the penis), attaches to the ischiopubic ramus on each side, and the corpus spongiosum, attaches to the muscular membrane on teh inferior aspect of the pelvic floor, make up the base of the penis.

297
Q

The shaft of the penis consists of ____ erectile tissues formed by tiny __________ chambers.

A

The shaft of the penis consists of three erectile tissues formed by tiny interconnected chambers.

298
Q

How many cylinders are found within the root and shaft of the penis? Where?

A

There are three columns found within the shaft and base of the penis. 2 on the posterior aspect and 1 on the anterior aspect of the penis. The posterior are called corpora cavernosa and the anterior is corpus spongiosum.

299
Q

What is the name given tot eh tissue that invest erectile tissue together?

A

Tunica albuginea

300
Q

What forms the glans of the penis? What are their function?

A

The reflection of the corpus spongiosum onto the corpora cavernosa form the glans of the penis, which are sebaceous and keep the skin moist.

301
Q

The digestive system is divided into two main parts, which are?

A

The digestive system is divided in the alimentary canal and the accessory digestive organs.

302
Q

Explain what comprises the two main parts of the digestive system?

A

The alimentary canal is a muscular tube from the mouth to the anus. Therefore it is comprised of the pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestines, and large intestines. The accessory digestive organs tongue, teeth, salivary glands, liver, gallbladder and pancreas.

303
Q

The oral cavity has an anterior, roof, floor, and dental row. True or false.

A

False, the oral cavity has a anterior border, floor, roof, and a dental arch.

304
Q

What are the attachments that prevent excess movement of the lips and tongue?

A

they are attached to a gingiva, called superior and inferior labial frenulum . The tongue is attached to linguinal frenulum.

305
Q

The roof is formed by the hard palate and soft palate, describe both here?

A

The hard palate makes up the anterior 2/3 of the roof, and the soft palate make sup the posterior 1/3. The soft palate form s a palatoglossal and a palatopharyngeal fold, which are formed by skeletal muscles from the soft palate. They function for swallowing.

306
Q

The skeletal muscles that make up the soft palate are innervated by which nerve?

A

Cranial nerve ten the vagus nerve.

307
Q

The __________ muscle makes up the floor of the oral cavity.

A

The suprahyoid muscle makes up the floor of the oral cavity.

308
Q

How may the oral cavity be divided into two compartments? Name both.

A

By clenching the teeth you will have a vestibule outside the teeth and the mouth proper or oral cavity proper inside the teeth.

309
Q

What houses the palatine tonsils?

A

Tonsil cavities or the tonsil fossa house the palatine tonsils.

310
Q

From an histological point of view list the structures of tooth.

A

The tooth anatomically are composed of enamel, dentin, and cementum.

311
Q

Cementum covers the dentin above the root and enamel covers the dentin above the root. True or false.

A

False, cementum covers dentin in the root.

312
Q

Anatomically the tooth is composed of ?

A

the neck, crown, root.

313
Q

Describe the pulp cavity and any other structures associated.

A

The pulp cavity is a hollow space containing loose connective tissue, nerves, and blood vessels. The root canal is an extension of the pulp cavity into the roots to allow passage of the structures.

314
Q

What nerve innervates the teeth?

A

Cranial nerve five or the trigeminal nerve supplies the teeth.

315
Q

What is the name of the ligament that holds the teeth in place?

A

the periodontal ligament.

316
Q

Aveolar bone is part of the teeth in the root. True or False

A

False. aveolar bone is part of the maxilla and mandible that the root sits in.

317
Q

How many muscles make up the tongue?

A

19 muscles make up the tongue.

318
Q

What is the terminal sulcus and what does it tell us?

A

The terminal sulcus is the v shaped line that divides up the tongue, which both segments came from different embryonic sites and are innervated by different nerves.

319
Q

How does the posterior one third and the anterior one third of the tongue differ?

A

The posterior one third also called teh pharyngeal part of the tongue is occupied by lymphoid nodules that are encapsulated (linguinal tonsils), and the anterior two thirds are (body, oral part) have linguinal papillae.

320
Q

What are the two types of lingual papillae in the anterior 2/3rd of the tongue?

A

The two types of lingual papillae found on the front anterior 2/3rds are circumvallate papillae, foliate papillae, fungiform papillae, filiform papilla.

321
Q

Circumvallate papillae are are by ______ _______, the foliate papillae are on the______ and ______ side of the tongue, the fungiform papilla are on the ______ side of the tongue, filiform papilla are the _______ and function to increase ______.

A

Circumvallate papillae are are by terminal sulcus, the foliate papillae are on the left and right side of the tongue, the fungiform papilla are on the dorsal side of the tongue, filiform papilla are the smallest and function to increase friction.

322
Q

What are the nerves that innervate the tongue for taste and movement?

A

cranial nerve 9 or the glossopharyngeal nerve collects sense of taste from the posterior 1/3rd, cranial nerve 5 trigeminal nerve collect general sensory from anterior 2/3rds, cranial nerve 7 facial nerve collects sense of taste for anterior 2/3rds, and the hypoglossal or cranial nerve 12 is the motor nerve for the tongue.

323
Q

Where does the esophagus begin and end?

A

The esophagus starts at the laryngopharynx or cervical vertebra 6 and ends at thoracic vertebra 11 or the stomach.

324
Q

The esophagus passes through the ______ then the _________ mediastinum, and then through the diaphragm at level _______ ______.

A

The esophagus passes through the anterior then the posterior mediastinum, and then through the diaphragm at level thoracic vertebra 10.

325
Q

This is a serous membrane that surrounds the alimentry canal components found within the abdominal cavity.

A

Peritoneum

326
Q

What is the function of the peritoneum?

A

The function of the peritoneum is to produce fluid to lubricate surfaces and facilitate the movement of surfaces against each other.

327
Q

What lines the inner surface of the abdonimopelvic cavity?

A

the parietal peritoneum.

328
Q

___________ peritoneum are reflections of ________ peritoneum that come into contact with the abdominal _______.

A

The visceral peritoneum are reflections of parietal peritoneum that come into contact with the abdominal viscera.

329
Q

what is the difference between a retroperitoneal organ and a intra peritoneal organ?

A

Retroperitoneal organs are only partially covered by peritoneum , when intraperitoneal are organ s completely covered by peritoneum.

330
Q

Which organs are intraperitoneal?

A

liver, stomach, ileum, jejenum, transverse and sigmoid colon, and the appendix.

331
Q

What are peritoneal reflections?

A

Peritoneal reflections are 2 layers of peritoneum that connect 2 abdominal viscera together. The are usually named by the organs they connect together.

332
Q

Omentums are reflections of that are attached to the stomach and another viscera. True or False

A

True

333
Q

How is the greater omentum so crucial to preventing spread of infection?

A

The greater omentum hangs like an apron and will move towards and wraps itself around inflamed organs and tumours to prevent spreading.

334
Q

What are the reflections called that bind different segments of the of the small and large intestines to the posterior of the abdominal wall?

A

Mesentery or mesocolon. Mesentery connects the majority of small intestines, and mesocolons do the large intestines mainly.

335
Q

The peritoneal cavity is a narrow space and consists of _______ and ________ _____.

A

peritoneal cavity is a narrow space and consists of lesser and greater sacs.

336
Q

Where does the lesser sac sit?

A

the lesser sac sits posterior to the liver and stomach, and may extend into the greater omentum but this is unusual.

337
Q

The stomach is usually 25cm long and 12 cm wide, and holds 2-3 litres. True or False

A

False the stomach usually only holds 1-1.5 litres

338
Q

What anatomical regions does the stomach occupy?

A

the left hypochondriac, epigastric and the umbilical regions.

339
Q

This structure is a physiological sphincter just above the stomach?

A

The cardia sphincter.

340
Q

Name all the parts of the stomach and give a brief description of them?

A

There are three sections of the stomach the fundus, body, and pyloric part. The fundus is above the imaginary line drawn from the cardia sphincter (the roof) . The Body is below this horizontal line. The pyloric part is a narrow funnel shaped region.

341
Q

What does the pyloric part of the stomach consist of?

A

The pyloric part of the stomach consists of the antrum, canal, and the pylorus with the pyloric sphincter.

342
Q

Name the structures food passes by once it passes the pharynx?

A

It travels down the esophagus, pass the cardia into the body, and then pass through the pyloric part. From here it goes into the doudenum, the jejenum, and finally the ileum of the small intestines. Entering into the large intestines at the cecum. From the cecum it travels to the ascending, then the transverse and decending, ending in the sigmoid at the rectum and anal canal.

343
Q

Rugae are longitudinal folds that allow the stomach to expand. True or False?

A

True

344
Q

What is the name of the peritoneum covering the stomach?

A

Serosa

345
Q

How many parts make up the small intestine and approximately how long are they?

A

the small intestines are comprised of three parts the duodenum, jejenum and ileum. The small intestines are approximately 5-7 m in length.

346
Q

The duodenum is anatomically close to the head of the pancreas. What are the four segments of the duodenum?

A

The duodenum consists of four segments: the superior/first segment, descending segment, transverse/horizontal/inferior segment, and the ascending segment.

347
Q

Why is the first segment at a increased risk of peptic ulcers?

A

The first segment or the superior segment is at a increased risk of a peptic ulcer because the pancreatic juices are not received until the second segment or the descending segment.

348
Q

The jejenum mainly resides in the ________ region and the ileum in the _________ region.

A

The jejenum mainly resides in the umbilical region and the ileum in the hypogastric region.

349
Q

What is teh name of the sphincter that regulates passage from the ileum to eh cecum?

A

the ileocecal valve.

350
Q

How many parts make up the large intestines?

A

Five parts make up the large intestines: the cecum, ascending, transverse, descending and sigmoid.

351
Q

What structure is attached to the cecum of the large intestines that produces antibodies before age ten?

A

the vermiform appendix attaches to the base of the cecum.

352
Q

Where does the ascending large intestine end?

A

The ascending large intestine ends at the hepatic flexure/ R colic flexure, and it touches the liver.

353
Q

What is the significance of the right colic flexure/hepatic flexure?

A

This marks the spot where the ascending part of the large intestine touches the liver and ends.

354
Q

The transverse part of the large intestine is the smallest of the five, and ends at the left colic flexure. True or False

A

False, the transverse section is the longest part, but it does end at the left colic flexure.

355
Q

What is another name for the left colic flexure?

A

The splenic flexure.

356
Q

The _______ of the large intestines ends at the _____ and ______ canal.

A

The sigmoid of the large intestines ends at the rectum and the anal canal.

357
Q

What is unique about the sigmoid?

A

The sigmoid is s shaped.

358
Q

Within the anal canal there are structures that connect the portal system with the caval system. What are they?

A

Hemorrhoidal veins are within the anal canal, which connect the portal system with the caval system.

359
Q

How many sphincters are in the anal canal?

A

There are two sphincters in the anal canal

360
Q

Which sphincter of the anal canal is involuntary and voluntary?

A

the external anal sphincter of the anal canal is voluntary. the internal anal sphincter is involuntary and made of smooth muscle.

361
Q

How many types of salivary glands are there?

A

There are three types of salivary glands: parotid gland, submandibular gland, and sublingual gland.

362
Q

What are the functions of salivary glands?

A

The functions of salivary glands are to moisten food, assist in taste, and prevent tooth decay.

363
Q

What salivary gland is the biggest, produces 30% of saliva, and is innervated by cranial nerve 9 or glossopharyngeal nerve?

A

The parotid gland

364
Q

What nerve innervates the parotid gland?

A

cranial nerve 9 or the glossopharyngeal nerve.

365
Q

Where is the parotid located and how does it secrete its saliva into the oral cavity?

A

The parotid is located immediately in front of the ear on the masseter muscle, and secretes its saliva via a duct. The duct passes through the muscles and empties into the vestibule of the oral cavity.

366
Q

How much saliva does the submandibular gland secrete? what nerve innervates it? and where is it located?

A

The submandibular gland produces 40% of saliva, is innervated by cranial nerve 7 or the facial nerve, and is located deep to the mandible where the ramus joins the body.

367
Q

Where does the saliva enter the oral cavity for the submandibular gland?

A

The saliva enters on the floor by the incisors of the oral cavity proper.

368
Q

The secretions of this gland are released by numerous ducts that individually open to the floor of the oral cavity proper. It also contributes the other 30% of saliva.

A

The sublingual gland, which is innervated by facial nerve or cranial nerve 7.

369
Q

The liver being 3lbs usually occupies the ______ ______ region mainly, and extends to the _______.

A

The liver being 3lbs usually occupies the right hypochondriac region mainly, and extends to the epigastric region. Sometimes it extends into the left hypochondriac region.

370
Q

What are the five surface of the liver?

A

The five surfaces of the liver are anterior, posterior, superior, right and inferior/visceral.

371
Q

Which ligament of the liver is not formed by peritoneum?

A

The round ligament

372
Q

what are the three ligaments of the liver?

A

The three ligaments of the liver are coronary ligament, falciform ligament, and the round ligament.

373
Q

Why is there a bare area on the right side of the liver?

A

The coronary ligament parts are far apart creating a bare area that is not covered by peritoneum on the right top surface of the liver.

374
Q

The coronary ligament attaches the liver to what?

A

The coronary ligament attaches the liver to diaphragm.

375
Q

The ___________ ligament of the liver divides the liver into two lobes anteriorly.

A

The falciform ligament of the liver divides the liver into two lobes anteriorly.

376
Q

How does the falciform ligament anchor the liver?

A

The falciform ligament anchors the liver to anteriorly to the posterior wall of the anterior abdominal wall.

377
Q

The round ligament is a special ligament of the liver why?

A

The round ligament is remnant of an umbilical structure, that is invested between the two layers of the falciform. Its stretches from the liver and ends just behind the belly button.

378
Q

What is partially embedded within the liver inferiorly?

A

The inferior vena cava

379
Q

How many lobes of the liver are present?

A

There are 4 lobes of the liver that are present.

380
Q

the caudate lobe is left to eh gall bladder and the quadrate lobe is left to the inferior vena cava. True or False

A

False, the caudate is left to eh inferior vena cava, and the quadrate lobe is left to the gall bladder.

381
Q

What is the porta hepatis?

A

The porta hepatis is the passage for three major structures into the liver. The hepatic portal vein, the hepatic artery proper, and the common bile duct.

382
Q

The capacity of the gall bladder is 150 ml. True or False.

A

True.

383
Q

What is the function of the gallbladder?

A

The gall bladder is intraperitoneal and it concentrates pile produced by the liver.

384
Q

Where abouts is murphys point?

A

Murphys point is at the notch of the ninth rib, and it is where the gallbladder sits.

385
Q

What are the three parts of the gallbladder?

A

The three parts of the gallbladder are the fundus (which sticks out of the liver), the body, and the neck.

386
Q

Which part of the gallbladder is continuous with the cystic duct?

A

The neck is continuous with the cystic duct.

387
Q

Which two ducts join together to form the common bile duct?

A

The left and right hepatic duct come together to form the common bile duct.

388
Q

The common hepatic ducts joins together with _______ duct and to form what? Where does this newly form duct open into?

A

The common hepatic ducts join together with the cystic duct to form the common bile duct, which opens into the second segment of the duodenum.

389
Q

what are the early and late indicators of a gallstones?

A

Inflammation affects the visceral peritoneum which has sympathetic nervous system innervation, therefore early onset you have dull pain. In the later stages, the fundus becomes inflamed which touches the parietal peritoneum on the anterior abdominal wall, which has somantic innervation. Therefore the patient would feel a sharp pain about murphys point and right shoulder pain.

390
Q

The pancreas is an ____________ organ that is classified as being both a endocrine and _______ organ.

A

The pancreas is an retroperitoneal organ that is classified as being both a endocrine and a exocrine organ.

391
Q

What are the anatomical relations of the pancreases body, neck, head, and tail?

A

The tail and the neck are related to the spleen, the head is related to the duodenum, and the body is related to the stomach.

392
Q

What supplies the pancreas with nerves and blood?

A

The celiac artery and the celiac plexus.

393
Q

How are the pancreatic juices drained?

A

The pancreatic juices are drained by 2 ducts. The main pancreatic duct joins the common bile duct which drains into the duodenum by the major duodenal papilla; and the accessory duct which is smaller and drains either into the duodenum itself or joins the pancreatic duct.

394
Q

What are the two pancreatic ducts?

A

The main pancreatic duct and the accessory duct.

395
Q

What are the components of the lymphatic system?

A

The component of the lymphatic system are lymph, lymphatic vessels, and lymphatic organs.

396
Q

What is the difference between the plasma of blood and lymph?

A

The lymph has less protein.

397
Q

Where can you not find lymphatic vessels?

A

Lymphatic vessels are every where but the central nervous system, eyeball, the inner ear and cartilage.

398
Q

How much interstitial fluid is picked up by the lymphatic system and then returned to circulation?

A

15%

399
Q

Large lymphatic vessels, also called lymphatic ______, merge to form lymphatic _______ that drain into the __________ _________.

A

Large lymphatic vessels, also called lymphatic trunks, merge to for, lymphatic ducts that drain into the venous system.

400
Q

What are the three major lymphatic organs? Where can the rest be found?

A

spleen, thymus, and tonsils. Lymphocytes can be found throughout the circulatory system and respiratory system.

401
Q

What is the purpose of lymph nodes?

A

The purpose of lymph nodes are to receive lymph from afferent lymphatic vessels and filter it.

402
Q

What happens at the hillum of lymph nodes?

A

At the concave border, the hillum 1-2 efferent vessels merges.

403
Q

Each node is surrounded by a _______ and has sinuses that extend into the ________ of the node, carrying lymph from __________ vessels to _______ vessels.

A

Each node is surrounded by a capsule and has sinuses that extend into the medulla of the node, carrying lymph from afferent vessels to efferent vessels.

404
Q

Where do b-lymphocytes proliferate?

A

B-lymphocytes proliferate at a germinal center found in lymphoid follicles/nodules.

405
Q

Where can you find b-lymphocyte germinal centers?

A

You can find them in lymphoid follicles or nodules.

406
Q

When does the thymus disappear?

A

The thymus disappears by age 25-30

407
Q

The left and right thymus can be found in the superior and posterior mediastina. True or False

A

False, it can be found in the anterior and superior mediastina

408
Q

What is the function of the thymus?

A

The thymus is the site for maturation of t-lymphocytes.

409
Q

The spleen is the ________ lymphatic organ that sits in the _______ _________ region. Close to which ribs?

A

The spleen is the largest lymphatic organ that sits in the left hypochondriac. It sits close to rib 9-11

410
Q

Where is the hilum of the spleen? What enters here?

A

The hilum of the spleen is on the medial side (visceral side), and is the site where the nerves (enter and leave), blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels enter.

411
Q

What is the function of the spleen?

A

The function of the spleen is too remove old and damaged red blood cells from circulation.

412
Q

The are major inlets for bacteria?

A

Tonsils

413
Q

What are the three tonsils and their location? What is their objective?

A

The three tonsils are the pharyngeal found on the ceiling of the nasopharynx, the palatine tonsils found on either side of the oropharynx, and lingual tonsils on the posterior one third of the tongue. The function of these are to fight against bacteria and produce antibodies.

414
Q

What is the name of the tube that balances pressure in the middle ear? What is the significance of this with regards to infection of a tonsil?

A

The auditory or eustachian tube. When the pharyngeal tonsils become infected they may infect the middle ear.

415
Q

Which lymphatic vessel structure receives most of the vessels at the level of the lumbar?

A

Cisterna chyli

416
Q

Which two trunks merge to form the cisterna chyli?

A

The intestinal and the lumbar trunks of the lymphatic system merge to form the cisterna chyli.

417
Q

The cisterna chyli empties into this duct, which is the largest duct in the lymphatic system?

A

The thoracic duct.

418
Q

What is the significance of the throacic duct?

A

The thoracic duct drains into the left subclavian veins and left internal jugular.

419
Q

Before draining the thoracic duct receives which trunks?

A

The thoracic duct receives the left bronchomediastinal, left subclavian, and left jugular trunks

420
Q

Group of lymph nodes on the anterior surface of the aorta?

A

pre-aortic lymph nodules.

421
Q

On either side of the aorta; collects lymph from the viscera of the posterior abdominal wall?

A

Para-aortic lymph nodules

422
Q

Predominantly receives lymph from lower limb, but also receives lower quadrants of anterior abdominal wall?

A

Inguinal lymph nodules.

423
Q

This one predominantly receives lymph from upper limbs and the thoracic wall (especially breasts)?

A

Axillary lymph nodules.

424
Q

What does the axillary lymph nodules do in the breast structurally? where is cancer predominately found?

A

The axillary lymph nodules divide the breast into 4 quadrants. Cancer is usually found associated with the upper lateral axillary LN.

425
Q

When you have a mastectomy what usually occurs?

A

Severe edema in the upper limb

426
Q

List the steps of drainage in the lymphatic system?

A

First the left and right sides of the body are divided into two different drainage systems.

Right side starting from the head goes right head and neck lymphatic nodules drain to the right jugular which drains into the right lymphatic duct. From the arm the right upper limb drains to the axillary lymphatic nodule, to the right subclavian, which then drains into the right lymphatic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains the right upper limb, head, and neck.

The left neck, head, upper limb, and both lower limbs drain into the thoracic duct. Starting from the head it goes from the left head and neck to the left jugular to the thoracic duct. The left limb starts at the left upper limb to the axilllary lymphatic nodule, to the left subclavian which drains to the thorcic duct. The lower limbs drain to the inguinal lymphatic nodule (r and l respectively) to the pelvic lymphatic nodules, to the lumbar trunk which drains into the cisterna chyli. The posterior abdominal wall drains into the para-aortic lymphatic nodule which drains into the lumbar trunk. The Gastrointestinal tract drains into the ore-aortic lymphatic nodule, tot eh intestinal trunk. The lumbar and intestinal trunk drain into the cisterna chyli, which drains into the thoracic duct via the Brachiomediastinal trunk.

427
Q

what two structures merge to form the lumbar trunk?

A

The para-aortic lymphatic nodule and the pelvic lymphatic nodule.

428
Q

What is the difference between how the respiratory system is divided up between a physiological point of view and a anatomical one?

A

Through a physiological it is divided into conductive vs respiratory.

Through an anatomical point of view it is divided into upper vs lower.

429
Q

What divides upper respiratory from lower respiratory?

A

larynx down is lower and anything above is upper.

430
Q

What is the physiological function of the conductive component?

A

The conductive component is a conveying system that moistens, filters, and thermoregulates the air.

431
Q

What parts of the the lung system are part of the respiratory component?

A

The terminal ends of the bronchi and the lung tissue (alveoli).

432
Q

The nose is comprised of the _______ nose and _______ cavities.

A

The nose is comprised of the external noise and the nasal cavities.

433
Q

What forms the ala of the external noise?

A

ala cartilage.

434
Q

List the structures that make up the walls of the nasal cavities?

A

the roof of the nasal cavity is composed of the ehtmoid bone, the floor is made of the maxilla and palatine bone, the lateral walls are made by maxilla, ethmoid, and palatine bones; the medial wall is made by the nasal septum of the ethmoid and vomer.

435
Q

Segments immediately above nostrils?

A

nasal vestibules

436
Q

where can you find the nasal apertures? Whats another name for them?

A

The nasal apertures or choanae are between the nasal cavity and pharynx.

437
Q

There are _______ nasal conchae on the ________ wall that separate parts of the space from the ________ _______. What are the three?

A

There are 3 nasal conchae on the on the lateral walls that separate the parts of the space from the nasal cavities. The three nasal conchae are the superior, middle and inferior nasal conchae.

438
Q

The nasal conchae help form the nasal ______ or _______. Why do these increase function? The have openings to ________ _____.

A

The nasal conchae help form the nasal meatuses or meati (superior, middle, inferior). These increase function by increasing the surface area to warm, filter and moisten air. The have openings to the paranasal sinuses.

439
Q

what are the names of the four paranasal sinuses? What do they do?

A

The frontal, ethmoid, maxillary and sphenoid sinuses make the skull lighter. They increase surface further for respiratory muscosa. The also effect the resonantion of the voice.

440
Q

Where does the pharynx begin and when does it become continuous with the esophagus?

A

The pharynx starts at the base of the skull and ends at cervical vertebrae 6, where it continues as the esophagus.

441
Q

What are the three main subdivision of the esophagus?

A

The three main subdivisions are nasopharynx, oropharynx, and the laryngopharynx.

442
Q

The nasopharynx contains _________ tonsils and is the site of the opening of the ___________ tube that functions to ______ ________ between the middle ear and pharynx.

A

The nasopharynx contains the pharyngeal tonsils and is the site of the opening of the pharangotympanic (auditory/eustachian) tube that functions to equalize pressure between the middle ear and pharynx.

443
Q

Behind the larynx and continues to the esophagus?

A

The laryngopharynx

444
Q

In the larynx how many intrinsic muscles alter the tension of the cartilage? What is the purpose of this?

A

The larynx has 9 intrinsic muscles that alter tension of the cartilage to change the tension on the vocal cords.

445
Q

How many cartilages exist in the larynx? Do they differ?

A

There are nine cartilages, in which there are 3 pairs and 3 singles.

446
Q

Name all three single cartilages?

A

The three single cartilages of the larynx are epiglottis, thyroid cartilage, and cricoid cartliage.

447
Q

The epiglottis is below the hyoid bone. True or False

A

False, it is above the hyoid.

448
Q

What are the significant features of the thyroid cartilage?

A

The thyroid cartilage is composed of two plates that are fused together on the anterior side. This eminence is called the laryngeal eminence

449
Q

How is the larynx connected to the hyoid?

A

The larynx is connected to the hyoid through its thyroid cartilage. The superior horns of the cartilage connect via a ligament called the thyrohyoid ligament. The plates join via a membrane called the thyrohyoid membrane.

450
Q

How do the cricoid cartilage and the thyroid cartilage interact?

A

The thyroid cartilage inferior horn articulates with the cricoid inferiorly, and are attached via a cricoidthryoid ligament.

451
Q

The anterior aspect of the cricoid cartilage is larger. True or False?

A

False, the posterior aspect is wider.

452
Q

the ____________ ligament connects the cricoid to the ________ cartilages.

A

The cricoidtracheal ligament connects the cricoid to the tracheal cartilages.

453
Q

What are the three paired cartilages of the larynx?

A

The Arytenoid, corniculate, and the coneiform cartilage are the paired cartilage of the larynx.

454
Q

The two ligaments that are covered in a muscosal membrane that stretch from the arytenoid cartilage to the thyroid are significant in what way?

A

The two ligaments produce two folds one true fold and one false fold. The true fold is called the vocal folds and the false fold is the vestibular fold. The vestibular folds do not vibrate therefore they do not produce sound, when the opposite is true for true folds or vocal folds.

455
Q

What is the space called between the vestibular fold and vocal fold? How is it significant?

A

The space between the two is called the ventricle, and size of the ventricle changes the sound of your voice.

456
Q

The infraglottic region is above the folds and the vestibule is above the folds. True or False.

A

False the infraglottic is below the folds and the vestibule is above the folds.

457
Q

Sound is produced when the vocal cords are sitting close together?

A

True, the vocal cords need to be close to produce sound.

458
Q

What makes up the glottis?

A

The glottis is comprised of the folds and the fissure between the folds

459
Q

The trachea is composed of how many c shaped cartilages that are not continuous?

A

20

460
Q

How are the c shaped cartilages connected?

A

The c shaped cartilages are connected posteriorly by a fibromuscular membrane.

461
Q

Where does the trachea start and end?

A

The trachea starts at the level of cervical vertebrae 6 and ends at the level of the disc between the thoracic vertebrae 4 and 5.

462
Q

What is significant at the end point of the trachea? What special cartilage is here?

A

the end point of the trachea bifurcates, and has a special v shaped cartilage here called carina.

463
Q

Special v shaped cartilage at the end of the trachea?

A

carina

464
Q

State the division of the bronchi from the point of bifurcation?

A

First the trachea gives rise to the primary/main bronchi, then the secondary/lobar bronchi, and finally the tertiary/segmental bronchi.

465
Q

The left bronchi is shorter than the right, and is more aligned with the trachea. True or False

A

False, the right is shorter and more aligned

466
Q

What is the clinical significance of the right trachea?

A

Since it is shorter and more aligned obstacles will more likely than not get logged here.

467
Q

There are just as many lobar/secondary bronchi branches on the left as the right. True or False?

A

False the right has three and the left has two

468
Q

Why does the right have three secondary and the left have two?

A

The left has two and the right three because of the number of corresponding lobes.

469
Q

What are the three lobes in the right lung?

A

the superior, inferior and middle lobe

470
Q

Both lunges have 10 segmental/tertiary branches of bronchi. True or False? (explain)

A

True, each one does have 10 segmental branches because both of the the two lobes in the left has 5 segments each and the right one has 3 for the superior, 2 for middle and 5 inferior

471
Q

What is the difference between bronchi and bronchioles?

A

The bronchioles have no cartilage, when the bronchi do

472
Q

The beginning of the bronchioles do not exchange gas, but rather only the alveolar sacs do. True or False

A

False, the terminal segments/branches of bronchioles can exchange gas because they are thin enough.

473
Q

How many layers of pleura surround the lungs?

A

2

474
Q

At which point are the two layers of pleura continuous?

A

At the point of the hilum of the lungs

475
Q

The layer that is in touch with the lungs?

A

visceral pleura

476
Q

the layer which is in touch with the chest wall, diaphragm, and pericardium?

A

Parietal pleura.

477
Q

This space is lubricated to facilitate movement of the lungs?

A

Pleural cavity

478
Q

The lower border of the lungs inferiorly at rib 6, laterally rib 8, and posteriorly at rib 10. True or False

A

True

479
Q

Describe the costodiaphragmatic recess?

A

The costodiaphragmatic recess is the most inferior border of the pleural cavity located inferiorly at rib 6, laterally at rib 10 and posteriorly at rib 12.

480
Q

Infection of the pleural cavity with will accumulate where?

A

the puss and fluid will accumulate at the costodiaphragmatic recess.

481
Q

The structure is the lowest part of the pleural cavity, at the level of rib 9, 10, and 12 anteriorly, laterally and posteriorly respectively?

A

The costodiaphragmatic recess.

482
Q

The visceral surface of the pleura is innervated by _______ nerves and the parietal pleura is innervated by _________ nerves.

A

The visceral surface of the pleura is innervated by sympathetic nerves, and the parietal pleura is innervated by somatic nerves.

483
Q

The type of pain can be a indicator of what? with regards to lung infection.

A

Since the pleura is innervated differently on the visceral side and the parietal side, it can give two types of pain. Since visceral nerves carry dull pain and the somatic carry sharp pain. Therefore when you have dull pain it is just the beginning and sharp pain means later stages.

484
Q

Where is the cardiac notch

A

at the level of the 4th and 5th intercostal space, 1 inch from the sternum.

485
Q

Lymphatic vessels get larger and large until they enter _______ ______ and after that the vessels form ________ ________.

A

The lymphatic vessels get larger and larger until they enter the lymph nodes, and then after that the vessels for lymphatic trunks.

486
Q

Lymphatic system drains into the arterial system. True or False.

A

False the lymph drains into the venous system

487
Q

What is the main center for producing d-lymphosides?

A

lymphatic nodules or follicles.

488
Q

The nasal cavity is almost twice as small as the external nose. True or False

A

False, it is almost twice as large.

489
Q

Nasal _________ are the passages.

A

Nasal meatuses are the passages of the nose.

490
Q

What can be found 1 inch above the clavicle and at the middle third?

A

The apex of the lungs.

491
Q

what surfaces are sharp and which are not, in regards to the lungs?

A

The anterior and inferior borders of the lungs are sharp and the posterior is blunt.

492
Q

On the medial side of the lungs what fissures can you see?

A

The left lung you can only see one fissure called the oblique fissure, but on the right lung there are 2 the transverse/horizontal fissure and the oblique fissure.

493
Q

The lateral surface of the lungs can also be called _____.

A

The lateral surface of the lungs can also be called the costal surface.

494
Q

The cardiac notch can be found on which lung?

A

The left lung.

495
Q

Gas exchange happens at the branches of the terminal brochioles called the respiratory branches. True or False

A

True

496
Q

The muscular tube is called the ___________ canal.

A

The muscular tube is called the alimentary canal.

497
Q

The primary canal includes what structures?

A

The primary canal includes the pharynx to the anus.

498
Q

The transitional part of the lips is called the ________.

A

Vermilion

499
Q

Supra-hyoid muscles make up the floor of the oral cavity. True or False

A

True

500
Q

which two arches of the mouth evoke swallowing? What is between the two?

A

The palatopharyngeal arch and the palatoglossal arch. Between the two arches is a tonsilar fossa or cavity.

501
Q

What part of the heart is intouch with the esophagus?

A

The left atrium.

502
Q

What is to the left of the esophagus as it passes t4 and t5?

A

the arch of the aorta.

503
Q

The lesser sac is ______ from the other abdominal cavities.

A

separated

504
Q

What composes the abdominopelvic cavity?

A

The greater and lesser sac.

505
Q

The smooth muscles along the length of the large intestine are called ______ ____. The form sacs called what?

A

taenia coli, for sacs called haustrum.

506
Q

What are the four lobes of the liver?

A

The caudate lobe is the middle lobe, and you have the right lobe and left lobe. There is also a quadrate lobe, which seems attached to caudate lobe.

Caps 391 (1 decks)

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