CAPM Flashcards
What are the CAPM Assumptions?
Perfect and Complete capital markets
Rational agents with homogenouos mean-variance preferences
No Transaction Costs/Tax
No credit constraints
Unlimited Shorting
Roll’s Critique (1977)
- Mean Variance Tautology
Any mean-variance efficient portfolio necessarily satisfies the CAPM equation exactly–> given a proxy for the Market portfolio testing CAPM equivalent to testing for mean-variance efficiency–>assuming Mean-variance efficiency implies CAPM holds (tautology) - Market Portfolio unobservable–>involves all possible assets, can’t be observed so CAPM untestable
Problems w/ interpreting findings
1.Cannot directly observe Beta
If B changes over time, evidence against CAPM may be result of mis-measuring Beta
- Cannot observe expected returns directly
Even if Beta is perfect measure of risk and CAPM is accurate actual returns may not reflect expected returns - Market proxy not comprehensive enough
S&P 500 or FTSE 250 not a valid proxy for US stock market –> investors hold broader portfolio of assets including foreign stocks, real estate, commodities, jewellery, etc…
Empirical Evidence re: CAPM
- Data suggests SML is flatter in real life than model–> (rm-rf) is less than expected–> potentially due to mispecification of the market portfolio or underestimation of risk free asset. (Fama)
- CAPM explains 70% of returns data
Excess Returns
- Size effect (Fama & French, 1983) - lower cap stocks have higher ave. returns
- Value Effect (F&F, 83) - Stocks with higher BV/MV have higher ave returns –> BV = Shareholder Cap + Retained Earnings; MV = Share Price x Shares Outstanding
- Momentum Effect - Stocks w/ past high returns tend to continue to have high ave. returns–> suggests momentum strategy is viable–> contradicts EMH
Data Snooping Bias
Large enough sample with enough characteristics can generate spurrious relationships out of pure coincidence–> easy to identify characteristics that appear to be correlated with the error term
Risk Factors or Mispriced stock
(Fama & French, 1983)
Value effect due latent risk -> firms w/ high book to value have assets undervalued by market–> increased financial risk–> req r goes up
David & Titman (1997) –> suggest OVB, third factor driving high alpha –> OVB not captured by prices–>Even controlling fo for financial distress increasd in BV/MV leads to increase in
Implications of aplha =/= 0
- Investors are systmatically ignoring profitable opportunities.
If CAPM comutes risk premiums, but investors keep ignoring suggests:information assymetries (ignorance of opportunity);
transaction costs sufficiently high (net benefit of implementing strategy is neg)
Fama & French and Fama, French & Cahart
3FM explains over 90% of diverfsified portfolicio
returns
FF extend model in 2015 to add two more regressors: profitability and investment
Empirical model–> purely descriptive/inductive–>relies on premise of time invariance–>future same as past
Grossman-Stiglitz Paradox (1980)
Perfect information is impossible w/ information costs
If prices reflect all information then there are no gains from gathering information–>prices based on information so w/o info market unwinds
Info required to to compensate for cost of acquiring info and trading–> degree of information assymetry determines extent of effort market will be willing to put into info garthering and trading on info.
David and Titman (1997)
suggest OVB, third factor driving high alpha –> OVB not captured by prices–>Even controlling for financial distress increases in BV/MV leads to increase Exp r
Fama (1970) - Joint Hypothesis Problem
Market efficiency must be tested in the context of expected return. The joint hypothesis problem states that where a model produces a return significantly different from actual returns, one cannot be certain whether it is a result of ineffeciency in the market or ineffeciency in the model.
Fama (1991)
Testing for market effeciency in itself in not possible. EMH can only be testing with a model of equilibrium, in such as an asset pricing model
APT Assumptions
- Arbitrage is impossible in a market equilibrium
- Securities returns are functions of macro factors
- Large number of traded assets
So arbitrage opportunity = asset mispriced
In reality stocks can face independent idiosynchratic shocks–> diversified away. So Arbitrage not completely riskless strictly speaking–> still specific risk.
APT Limitations
Lacks theoretical framework
Difficult to identify omitted variables –> you never know when you’ve had enough
Incentive to ask regressors may have inflated R^2