Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EGKA > CAP493 > Flashcards

CAP493 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the objectives of Air Traffic Services?

A
  1. Prevent collisions between aircraft
  2. Prevent collisions between aircraft on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area
  3. Expedite and maintain and orderly flow of air traffic.
  4. Provide advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights.
  5. Notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid, and assist such organisations as required.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the action to be taken when a captive balloon breaks free?

A

Pass the following info to the appropriate ACC

  1. The type of balloon and if anyone is on board
  2. Position of balloon site
  3. Direction and speed of drift
  4. Last observed height
  5. Length of cable attached to balloon
  6. Balloon operators name and telephone number.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When can 1 minute departure separation be applied?

A

Provided that the aircraft fly on tracks diverging by 45° or more immediately after take-off.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When can 2 minute departure separation be applied?

A

If:

  1. The preceding aircraft has filed a TAS of 40kts or more faster
  2. Neither aircraft is cleared to execute any manoeuvre that would decrease the 2 minute separation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When can 5 minute departure separation be applied?

A

If the preceding aircraft has filed a TAS of 20kts or more faster

or

Provided that the 5 minuted separation is maintained up to a reporting point within or adjacent to a control zone or terminal control area and the aircraft will subsequently be separated wither:

  1. Vertically
  2. By 30° diverging tracks
  3. By Radar
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What Departure separation should be used if 1, 2 or 5 minutes can’t be used?

A

10 Minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a clearance limit?

A

The point to which an aircraft is granted an ATC clearance and shall be specified by naming:

  1. An aerodrome
  2. A reporting point
  3. A CAS boundary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What phraseology should be used if an emergency arises involving fuel?

A

MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY FUEL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What shall an ATC clearance include?

A
  1. Aircraft identification
  2. Clearance limit
  3. Route
  4. Levels of flight for the entire route or part thereof and changes of levels if required
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What shall a conditional clearance contain?

A
  1. Callsign of the aircraft or vehicle being given the clearance
  2. The condition “behind”
  3. Identification of the subject of the condition
  4. The clearance
  5. A brief reiteration of the clearance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

CAT A flight priority

A

Aircraft Emergency
Police Emergency
Air Ambulance/Medical Aircraft where safety of life in involved

This can now also include medical flights that are transporting harvested organs, biological equipment and medical equipment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

CAT B Flight priority

A

SAR or other Humanitarian flights
Open Skies flights
Normal priority police flights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

CAT C Flight Priority

A

Royal Flights

Flights carrying visiting heads of state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

CAT D Flight priority

A

Flights Carrying the:

Prime Minister
Chancelllor of the Exchequer
Home Secretary
Foreign Secretary

Also visiting Heads of Government notified by the CAA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

CAT E Flight priority

A

Time or Weather critical Calibration flights

Other flights authorised by the CAA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Normal Flight priority

A

Flights which have filed a flight plan in the normal way

Exam flights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

CAT Z Flight priority

A

Training/Non Standard flights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When does Transfer of Control take place?

A
  1. At an agreed reporting point
  2. On an estimate for an FIR boundary
  3. AT or passing and agreed level
  4. While the aircraft is climbing or descending to a previously agreed level provided that the transferring controller has ensured that separation will exist for the remainder of the climb or decent.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In All classes of airspace, when is a formation considered to be a single unit?

A

Military aircraft: 1nm laterally and 100ft Vertically

Civilian aircraft: 0.5nm laterally and 100ft vertically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What should aerodrome control co-ordinate with approach control? [CAP 493]

A
  1. Departing IFR flights
  2. Arriving aircraft which make their first call on the tower frequency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What shall approach control co-ordinate with aerodrome control? [CAP 493]

A
  1. Aircraft approaching to land (if necessary a landing clearance)
  2. Arriving aircraft which are to be cleared to visual holding points.
  3. Aircraft routeing through the traffic CCT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the VFR minima for aircraft operating in Class D airspace?

A

Ground visibility - 5km

and/or

Cloud ceiling of 1500ft

(Day and Night)

23
Q

What are the 9 items of Essential Aerodrome Information?

A
  1. Construction work or maintenance on the manoeuvring area
  2. Rough or broken portions of the manoeuvring area and weather marked or not
  3. Failure or irregular functioning of the aerodrome lighting system.
  4. Failure or irregular functioning of approach aids
  5. Aircraft parked close to the runways or taxiways engaged in ground running of engines
  6. water, snow, slush, ice or frost on a runway, a taxiway or an apron
  7. (Snow conditions) information concerning sweeping and/or sanding of runways and taxiways
  8. Bird Formations or individual large birds
  9. Location and operational status of arrester gear installation.
24
Q

What is a Basic Service?

A

Basic Service is a type of UK FIS provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights. This may include weather information, changes of serviceability of facilities, conditions at aerodromes, general airspace activity information and any other information likely to affect safety.

The avoidance of other traffic is solely the pilots responsibility.

25
Q

What information shall be given when a pilot requests start-up or taxi clearance?

When can this information be omitted?

A
  1. Runway in use
  2. Surface wind speed and direction, including significant variations
  3. Aerodrome QNH
  4. Outside air temperature
  5. Significant Met conditions

Items of this information may be omitted when it is known that the pilot has received it from another source.

26
Q

What services does Aerodrome Control provide?

A
  1. Aerodrome Control service
  2. Basic Service
  3. Alerting Service
27
Q

What are the responsibilities of aerodrome control?

A

Aerodrome Control shall issue information and instructions to aircraft under its control to achieve a safe, orderly and expeditious flow of air traffic with the objective of:

(1) Preventing collisions between:
(a) aircraft flying in, and in the vicinity of, the ATZ;
(b) aircraft taking-off and landing;
(c) aircraft and vehicles, obstructions and other aircraft
on the manoeuvring area.

(2) Assist in preventing collisions between aircraft on
the apron.

28
Q

What are the specific responsibilities of aerodrome control? (6)

A
  1. Notifying emergency services as per local instructions
  2. Informing aircraft under its control of any depletion of the aerodrome emergency services.
  3. Providing an approach control service when carrying out functions delegated by approach control.
  4. Supplying the following information to approach control and where necessary approach radar control:
    (a) Pertinent data on IFR, SVFR and VFR traffic
    including departures, Missed apps and Overdue
    aircraft.
    (b) Appropriate items of essential aerodrome
    information
  5. Informing the aerodrome operator when it becomes apparent that there is a deterioration in the state of the aerodrome or its associated facilities for which the aerodrome operator is responsible
  6. Initiating overdue action at aerodromes where no approach control unit is established
29
Q

When may a take-off Clearance be issued?

A

When an aircraft is at or approaching the holding point

30
Q

What are the conditions for multiple line-ups using different points of the runway?

A
  1. It is during daylight hours
  2. All aircraft are continuously visible to the aerodrome controller.
  3. All aircraft are on the same RTF freqency
  4. Pilots are advised of the number ahead in the departure sequence, and the position/runway from which they are going to depart
  5. The physical characteristics of the runway do not render the preceding aircraft in the departure sequence invisible to the succeeding aircraft on the same runway.
31
Q

How might Aerodrome control expedite the departure of aircraft?

A
  1. Suggesting a take-off direction which is not into wind
  2. Alter the order in which aircraft are cleared for take-off
  3. Clear a departing IFR flight to climb VMC maintaining own separation until a specified time, location or level

These are all subject to co-ordination with Approach control. No.3 is subject to the presence and approval of Approach control.

32
Q

What is the phraseology for Cancelling take-off?

A

Take-off run commenced:

“[C/S] Stop immediately I say again, [C/S] Stop Immediately, acknowledge”

Take-off run not yet commenced:

“[C/S] Hold position, cancel take-off, I say again cancel take-off, acknowledge”

33
Q

What are the conditions for a landing aircraft to touch down before the preceeding landed aircraft has vacated the runway?

(Land After Procedure)

A
  1. The runway is long enough to allow safe separation between the two aircraft and there is no evidence to indicate that braking may be adversely affected.
  2. It is during daylight hours
  3. The preceding landing aircraft is not required to backtrack in order to vacate the runway.
  4. The controller is satisfied that the landing aircraft will be able to see the preceding aircraft, clearly and continuously, until it has vacated the runway
  5. The pilot of the following aircraft is warned (responsibility for adequate separation rests with the pilot of the following aircraft)
34
Q

What are the low approach height/altitude restrictions?

QNH vs QFE

A 
QNH = 400ft + Threhold elevation rounded up to the 
            nearest 50ft (e.g. : EGKA 450ft)

QFE = 400ft

35
Q

In the event of a runway change, who should the aerodrome controller inform?

A
  1. Aircraft under his control
  2. Aerodrome fire service
  3. Contractors working on the aerodrome, who will be affected by the change
  4. Other agencies according to local instructions
36
Q

What is the aerodrome operator responsible for, in relation to restricted operations/ closures of aerodromes?

A
  1. Routine operational limitations, e.g. runway maintenance
  2. Unforeseen hazards to aircraft operations, specifically making decisions regarding:
    a. The closure/re-opening of the aerodrome
    b. The withdrawal or return to use of runways,
    taxiways and associated lighting aids.
    c. The revision of declared distances
    d. Any marking associated with the above
    e. Initiating NOTAM action to promulgate changes in
    serviceability
37
Q

What should a working party be briefed on when performing work on the manoeuvring area?

A
  1. Methods of access to the work area
  2. The area in which the vehicles may operate
  3. The runway-in-use and the effects of any changes
  4. Methods of obtaining permission to cross the runway
    in use
  5. Signals of methods of indicating the vehicles and
    personnel must leave the manoeuvring area
38
Q

When may RFFS remission be applied?

A

Where the number of movement of the aeroplanes in the highest category using the aerodrome is less than 700 in the busiest consecutive three months

39
Q

Who does the 250kt speed limit not apply to?

A
  1. Flights in Class A and B airspace
  2. IFR flights in class C airspace
  3. Exempted VFR flights in Class C airspace
  4. Exempted flights in Class D airspace
  5. Test flights according to specified conditions
  6. Aicraft taking part in flying displays when authorised by the CAA
  7. Aircraft subject to a written permission granted by the CAA
  8. State aircraft
40
Q

Describe the VMC minima for Class D Airspace

A

At and Above FL100:

Cloud : Horizontal: 1500m, Vertical: 1000ft
Flight Viz: 8km

Below FL100 and above 3000ft:

Cloud : Horizontal: 1500m, Vertical: 1000ft
Flight Viz: 5km

At or Below 3000ft:

Cloud : Horizontal: 1500m, Vertical: 1000ft
Flight Viz: 5km

41
Q

What is the VMC minima for FW aircraft flying at or below 3000ft and at 140 kts ias, when transiting Class D airspace remaining outside the ATZ and traffic pattern?

A

Remain clear of Cloud and with the surface in sight

5km Flight visibility

42
Q

What is the VMC minima for Helicopters flying at or below 3000ft and at 140 kts ias, when transiting Class D airspace remaining outside the ATZ and traffic pattern?

A

Remain clear of Cloud and with the surface in sight

1500m Flight visibility

43
Q

Can an aircraft depart and aerodrome if any of its lights are unserviceable?

A

No

44
Q

If in flight, can an aircraft continue if it’s anti collision light fails?

A

In Class A-D airspace, YES, provided the aircraft will remain inside controlled airspace for the duration of its flight.

If leaving, or flying outside, controlled airspace, The pilot should be instructed to land as soon as possible

45
Q

What is the most recent version of CAP 493

A

Version 10

March 2022

46
Q

How many SI’s are current?

A

8

47
Q

What is the most recent SI?

A

Flight Priorities Table

48
Q

What should a pilot include in an Airprox Report over the frequency?

A
  1. The words “Airprox Report”
  2. Position at time of incident
  3. Time of incident
  4. Altitude/Flight Level
  5. Heading
  6. Brief details of incident including first sighting and miss distance
  7. Weather Conditions
49
Q

What information should be included in a windshear report?

What should then be done with this information?

A
  1. A warning of the presence of windshear
  2. The height or height band where the shear was encountered
  3. The time at which it was encountered
  4. The effects of the windshear e.g. Speed gain or loss, Vertical speed tendency, Change in drift

This information should be placed onto the ATIS as reported and amplified to pilots if necessary until it is clear that the condition no longer exists.

50
Q

What are the current CAP 493 SIs that are in effect?

A
  1. Re-deignation of Airways below FL245 to Control Areas (CTAs)
  2. Application of Wake Turbulence Separation Minima
  3. Royal Flights in fixed wing aircraft
  4. Lasers, Searchlights and Firework displays
  5. Alternative Departure Separations
  6. Regional Pressure Setting
  7. Use of Co-operative Surveillance Systems in Support of Flight Information Service Provision
  8. Flight Priorities Table
51
Q

What are some of the conditions which are conducive to windshear?

A
  1. The presence of frontal/squall/thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of the aerodrome
  2. The presense of low level inversions where the surface wind will be significantly different from that at only a few hundred feet above the ground.
  3. Local terrain or buildings considered in relation to wind speed and direction; such large obstructions can cause windshear as well as the more usual turbulence and gusts.
52
Q

What should be done in the event of an aircraft fails to land within 5 minutes of the expected landing time after commencing an approach?

A
  1. Alert Approach Surviellence control where available
  2. Request other aircraft to be on the lookout
  3. Excercise caution when authorising the movement of aerodrome traffic
  4. Alert the emergency services iaw MATS pt. 2
  5. Check with other aerodromes in the vicinity
  6. Send an RQS if appropriate
  7. Advise the ACC Supervisor
53
Q

What are the contents of an emergency transmission?

(9)

A

MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY / PAN PAN PAN
Name of the station addressed
Callsign
AC type
Nature of emergency
Intention of the PIC
Position, level, heading
Pilot Qualifications
Any other information

EGKA (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions