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1 st year CAP questions > CAP QUESTIONS > Flashcards

CAP QUESTIONS Flashcards

1
Q

During which stage of embryogenesis are the germ layers formed?

A

Gastrulation

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2
Q

How many units does 1L of 40% proof spirits contain?

A

40 units

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3
Q

What can be used to differentiate between mild and moderate community acquired pneumonia?

A

The CURB 65 score

- e.g resp rate

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4
Q

Is there an increase or a decrease in the circulating blood volume in sepsis and why is this?

A

A decrease in the circulating blood volume due to endotoxins causing vasodilation and intravascular fluid leaking into adjacent tissue

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5
Q

What conversion takes place to provide the energy for the production of lactic acid?

A

NADH is converted to NAD+

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6
Q

If one parent has had a cancer, what will the childs risk most likely be?

A

Slightly above the population risk

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7
Q

Increasing venomotor tone increases venous return to the heart. True/False?

A

True

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8
Q

Which artery is located inferior to the retroinguinal space?

A

The femoral artery

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9
Q

What is the most useful test to do for RIF pain in a patient following previous gynaecological surgery?

A

Laparoscopy - this type of pain suggest either ovarian or appendix pathology which this test will be able to look for

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10
Q

Increasing intake of omega 3 fatty acids and reduction of trans fatty acids helps to improve survival post MI. True/ False?

A

True

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11
Q

Uncontrolled proliferation of mucous gland cells in the lower 1/3rd of the oesophagus is suggestive of what?

A

Adenocarcinoma (due to Barrett’s Oesophagus)

  • ‘Uncontrolled proliferation’ = cancer
  • Mucous gland cells = adenocarcinoma arises from gland cells
  • Adenocarcinoma is most likely to affect the lower 1/3rd of the oesophagus while squamous cell carcinoma is more likely to affect the upper 2/3rds of the oesophagus
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12
Q

Why is adenocarcinoma most likely to affect the lower 1/3rd of the oesophagus?

A

Due to acid reflux - chronic inflammation

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13
Q

What kind of shock is meningitis a classical cause of?

A

Septic shock

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14
Q

What is the treatment of choice for severe community acquired pneumonia?

A

IV co-amoxiclav and IV clarithromycin

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15
Q

What is the antibiotic management of COPD exacerbation in a patient with a penicillin allergy?

A

Doxycycline

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16
Q

What is the best test for looking at pancreatic function?

A

Faecal elastase

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17
Q

OGD (esophogastroduodenoscopy) and duodenum biopsy can be used to diagnose which two conditions

A

Coeliac disease and giardia

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18
Q

Haemoglobin is a tetramer. True/ False?

A

True

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19
Q

What is the life span of an enterocyte?

A

120 days

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20
Q

Which has a greater affinity for haemoglobin - oxygen or carbon monoxide?

A

Carbon monoxide

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21
Q

What is an accessory muscle of respiration which is attached to rib 1?

A

The scalenus anterior muscle

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22
Q

What is the most common type of malignancy arising in the colon and the rectum?

A

Adenocarcinoma

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23
Q

Why might a lung cancer patient present with green sputum/ signs of infection?

A

Lung cancer can cause pneumonia

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24
Q

What does a low Km indicate?

A

High affinity of an enzyme for its substrate

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25
Q

Branching to give the terminal bronchioles occurs during which stage of lung maturation?

A

Pseudoglandular stage

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26
Q

Branching to the level of the lobar bronchi occurs in which stage of lung maturation?

A

Embryonic

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27
Q

Terminal sacs form and capillaries become closely associated with at what stage of lung maturation?

A

Saccular

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28
Q

Alveoli mature during which stage of lung maturation?

A

Alveolar (continues into childhood)

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29
Q

Healthy start vitamins can be provided to low-income pregnant women to reduce the prevalence of which condition?

A

Rickets/ Osteomalacia

the vitamins contain folic acid and vitamin C and D - essential for calcium absorption

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30
Q

When is the valsava manoeuvre used and when is carotid sinus massage used?

A

Valsava manoeuvre is first-line for SVT

Carotid sinus massage is done for young patients who are at low stroke risk *N/B it is therefore not appropriate in patients with hyper cholesterol/ smokers

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31
Q

A woman is known to carry a mutation in the factor VIII gene that causes X-linked haemophilia. She experienced haemorrhage following surgery, What is the most likely mechanism here?

A

Normal X-inactivation

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32
Q

Increased pulmonary vascular resistance and right ventricular afterload is a result of hypoxic pulmonary arterial vasoconstriction. True/ False

A

TRUE

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33
Q

What process does airway remodelling and irreversible airway obstruction occur as a result of?

A

Collagen deposition in the brochial basement membrane and submucosa due to repair of chronic eosinophil inflammation

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34
Q

The most common cause of anaemia with no other symptoms in patients in their fifties and older is colorectal cancer. What investigation should be done for this?

A

Colonoscopy

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35
Q

Anaemia, weight loss and early satiety are alarm symptoms for upper GI malignancy. What test should be done for this?

A

Gastroscopy

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36
Q

a young patient develops anaemia. They have been travelling in Russia for several months. What is the best investigation?

A

Distal duodenal biopsy as this can investigate for both coeliacs disease and for giardia

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37
Q

What is the most common cause of renal failure in children under 5 years old?

A

E.Coli

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38
Q

E.Coli has a very low infecting dose. True/False?

A

True

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39
Q

A sarcoid like granulomatous infiltrate may be a reaction to nearby malignancy. True/ False?

A

True

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40
Q

What does infectious mononucleosis refer to?

A

Glandular fever/ Epstein-Barr virus

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41
Q

What is the best test for infectious mononucleosis?

A

Monospot test

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42
Q

How does infectious mononucleosis present?

A
  • Young patients
  • Spread by saliva
  • May involve a rash but this often doesn’t appear unless the patient is put on antibiotics
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43
Q

HIV patients are susceptible to pneumocystis carnii infection. How does this present?

A

Multiple small gas filled cavities in both lung apices and bilateral ground-glass opacification
*responds to treatment with co-trimoxazole

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44
Q

The detection of plasma viral load (RNA) in a patient with HIV can be done by what lab investigation?

A

Polymerase chain reaction

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45
Q

The measurement of T-lymphocyte subsets in blood can be done by what lab investigation?

A

Immunophenotyping

46
Q

What is the correct rate of rescue breathing in an adult with a respiratory arrest?

A

10 times per minute

47
Q

62 year old man with alcohol related cirrhosis and alcoholic hepatitis -can be given terlipressin. True/ False?

A

True - this will improve renal blood flow which is important if he has developed hepato-renal syndrome

48
Q

Raised bilirubin in the absence of biliary disease requires what management and why?

A

Liver transplant

- this indicates deteriorating liver function and liver failure

49
Q

Vomiting and dysphagia to solids. Tight benign stricture seen at endoscopy. How could this patient be managed?

A

Oesophageal balloon dilation for rapid relief of symptoms

50
Q

How could achalasia be managed?

A

Ballon oesophageal dilation or cardiomyotomy. If they are young and fit then cardiomyotomy (Heller’s cardiomyotomy) is preferred as it doesn’t require repeat procedures

51
Q

Haemolysis is important for the classification of streptococcus. True/ False?

A

True

52
Q

Elderly and frail patient with suspected colorectal cancer. What investigation should you do?

A

CT colonography (not colonoscopy as this is too invasive)

53
Q

Which cranial nerve supplies somatic sensory to the dermatomes of the face?

A

Trigeminal nerve CNV

54
Q

Which cranial nerve is responsible for the ability to change facial expression?

A

Facial nerve CNVII

55
Q

Which cranial nerve causes movement of the vocal cords?

A

Vagus Nerve CNX

56
Q

The lower the Km the higher or lower the affinity of an enzyme for its substrate?

A

The lower the Km, the higher the affinity

57
Q

Woman carries a mutation in the factor VIII gene that causes X-linked haemophilia, she experienced haemorrhage following surgery, this is likely due to normal X inactivation. T/F?

A

True

58
Q

Black stools and postural hypotension would suggest which kind of shock?

A

Hypovolaemic shock (blood loss from GI bleed)

59
Q

Diclofenac is what kind of drug?

A

NSAID - Therefore considered a risk factor for an upper GI bleed

60
Q

During which stage of development are the germ layers formed?

A

Gastrulation

61
Q

A tight benign stricture could present with vomiting and dysphagia to solids. What can be done for rapid relief of symptoms?

A

Ballon oesophageal dilation

62
Q

What procedure can be done for the management of achalasia?

A

Balloon oesophageal dilation or Heller’s cardiomyotomy.

cardiomyotomy should be done if the patient is young and fit and is good because it doesn’t require repeat procedures

63
Q

What can the epicardium also be called?

A

Visceral serous pericardium

64
Q

Haemoglobin is a tetramer

A

TRUE

65
Q

Pyruvate + NADH +H+ —— Lactate + NAD+, what is the reducing agent?

A

NADH

66
Q

Chronic agonist induced stimulation of airway beta 2 receptors results in what?
(this is due to loss of the protective function of LABAs)

A

Beta 2 receptor down regulation and reduced receptor coupling to G protein adenylyl cyclase

67
Q

What effect does sensitisation of airway smooth muscle by asthmatic inflammatory mediators cause?

A

Enhanced airway hyper-reactivity on bronchial challenge testing

68
Q

What acts on membrane bound beta-2 adrenoceptors on airway smooth muscle to mediate relaxation?

A

Adrenaline

69
Q

What is a metabolite of the arachidonic acid pathway, released from eosinophils and mast cells which mediates smooth muscle contraction, increased vascular permeability and mucous secretion?

A

Leukotriene D4

70
Q

Influenza A can cause pandemics. T/F

A

True

71
Q

Are streptococci and staphylococci gram +ve or gram -ve?

A

Gram +ve

72
Q

Which organism is classified by its haemolysis on blood agar?

A

Streptococci

73
Q

Sarcoidosis involves non-caveating granulomas. T/F?

A

TRUE

74
Q

Uncontrolled proliferation of epithelial cells in the large airways of the lung. What is the diagnosis?

A

Squamous cell lung cancer

75
Q

What medication could be given to manage acute shortness of breath at night?

A

IV furosemide

76
Q

What is ‘performed initially when undertaking a *systemic patient assessment’?

A

Patency of the airway

77
Q

Exacerbation of bronchiectasis can be caused by pseudomonas aeruginosa, what antibiotic can be used to treat this?

A

Ciprofloxacin

78
Q

Give an example of a macrolide

A

Clarithromycin

79
Q

The cell wall of gram negative or gram +ve has a thick layer of peptidoglycan?

A

Gram +ve

80
Q

Which enzyme transcribes genetic material?

A

RNA polymerase

81
Q

Which drug is used to treat a flare up of autoimmune hepatitis?

A

Steroids e.g prednisolone

82
Q

What are anti-microbial proteins secreted by epithelial cells at mucosal surfaces?

A

Defensin

83
Q

In which direction does sickle cell disease shift the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve?

A

To the right

84
Q

Which bone forms the heel of the foot?

A

Calcaneous

85
Q

Which vertebrae has the odontoid process?

A

C2

86
Q

Panton Valentine Leukocidin

A

A cytotoxin associated with highly virulent strains of staph aureus (MRSA) which causes necrolytic skin infections

87
Q

Which cranial nerve is for special sensory innovation of the ear for hearing and balance?

A

Vestibulocochlear

88
Q

What is the only organism that shows up golden on blood agar?

A

Staph Aureus

89
Q

What kind of inheritance does sickle cell anaemia involve?

A

Co dominant

90
Q

How many transmembrane proteins make up a G protein?

A

7 transmembrane proteins

91
Q

Hypoplasia is a development disorder. T/F?

A

True

92
Q

Which curve is sigmoidal and which is hyperbolic? (Hb and Myoglobin)

A

Haemoglobin - sigmoidal

Myoglobin - hyperbolic

93
Q

What gram -ve organism is resistant to most oral antibiotics?

A

Pseudomonas Aeruginosa

94
Q

Detection of what measures the primary humoral immune response?

A

IgM

95
Q

What is immunophenotyping?

A

Measurement of T-lymphocyte subsets in the blood

96
Q

What is light microscopy?

A

Analysis of cells based on their physical form and structure

97
Q

Which is catalase positive; staphylococci or streptococci?

A

Staphylococci is catalase +ve and streptococci is catalase -ve

98
Q

Neisseria meningitidis

A

Aerobic gram -ve cocci (appears as diplococci)

99
Q

Staphylococci and streptococci are both gram +ve. T/F?

A

TRUE

100
Q

What cells are considered as the adaptive immune response?

A

T cells, B cells, dendritic cells and antibodies

101
Q

What is the major facilitative transporter for glucose in the gut?

A

GLUT 5

102
Q

Name a primary cartilaginous joint

A

Long bone epiphyseal growth plate (joined by hyaline cartilage)

103
Q

Name a secondary cartilaginous joint

A

Intervertebral discs (joined by fibrocartilage)

104
Q

What kind of joint is a fibrous joint?

A

Coronal suture

105
Q

What kind of joints are metacarpopharyngeal and acromioclavicular joints?

A

Synovial

106
Q

What forms most of the anterior surface of the heart?

A

The right ventricle

107
Q

What forms most of the right border of the heart?

A

The right atrium

108
Q

What forms most of the left border of the heart?

A

The left ventricle

109
Q

M1 binding to Gq has what effect?

A

Stimulation of phospholipase C and Increased acid secretion

110
Q

M2 binding to Gi has what effect?

A

Inhibition of adenylyl cyclase ad decreased heart rate

111
Q

M3 binding o Gq has what effect?

A

Stimulation of phospholipase C and increased saliva and smooth muscle contraction (especially in the lungs)

1 st year CAP questions (1 decks)

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