CAP BOARDS 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Beta-2 agents and mixed beta-1/beta-2 agents (non selective) such as propranolol will induce what in asthmatic patients?

A

bronchospasm

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2
Q

Sexual orientation may be a more stable trait in males or females?

A

males

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3
Q

Most common inherited cause of ID in males?

A

Fragile X

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4
Q

what are early signs of autism? (4)

A

1) absence of social smile by 6 mo of age
2) not babbling or pointing by 12 mo
3) not using single words by 16 mo
4) unable to use 2-word phrases

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5
Q

Results of the TEOSS (Early Onset Schizophrenia Spectrum Disorders Study)?

A

< 50% of patients responded over 8 wks of tx
All tx arms were equally efficacious (risperidone, olanzapine, and molindone)
There were no differences in EPS in the tx arms, but this result was likely influences by the ppx use of cogentin in the molindone group

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6
Q

The neurotransmitter principally affected by fluvoxamine is produced in what brain region?

A

Raphe nuclei (serotonin)

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7
Q

Norepinephrine is produced where?

A

Locus coeruleus

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8
Q

What neurotransmitter is produced in the locus coeruleus?

A

Norepinephrine

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9
Q

What neurotransmitter is produced in the raphe nuclei?

A

Serotonin

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10
Q

Where is serotonin produced?

A

Raphe nuclei

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11
Q

Ach is produced where?

A

Nucleus basalis of Meynert

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12
Q

What is produced in the nucleus basalis of Meynert?

A

Ach

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13
Q

Where is histamine produced?

A

Tuberomammillary nucleus

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14
Q

What is produced in the tuberomammillary nucleus?

A

Histamine

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15
Q

Where is dopamine produced? (2)

A

Substantia nigra and VTA

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16
Q

What neurotransmitter is produced in the substantia nigra and the VTA?

A

Dopamine

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17
Q

Risperidone has FDA approval for agitation in autism - age range?

A

5-16

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18
Q

Risperidone has FDA approval for the tx of schizophrenia - age range?

A

13-17

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19
Q

Risperidone has FDA approval for the tx of bipolar d/o - age range?

A

10-17

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20
Q

The ionic gradient necessary for a neuron to generate action potentials is established the distribution of what three ions and how?

A

K+, Cl-, Na+

High concentrations of Na+ and Cl- outside the cell membrane and high concentrations of K+ inside the cell membrane

At rest, K+ and Cl- channels are open so that K+ and Cl- gradients determine the membrane’s resting potential, which is negative by about -50mV to -75mV. Once depolarized beyond the cell’s threshold potential, voltage-gated Na+ channels open rapidly, depolarizing the membrane. The membrane potential shifts to +50mV quickly.

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21
Q

16 month child is sitting with his mother in a room, then walks over to the doorway. he walks just outside the door, looks back at his mother, and begins to cry. It seems as if he wants to explore the next room but is uncertain about leaving his mother. According to Mahler, this child is most likely in which developmental sub-phase?

A

Rapprochement (15-24 months).

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22
Q

According to Mahler, when does hatching occur?

A

5-9 months. The infant becomes aware that he/she is separate from the mother, notices surroundings, but still uses the mother as the primary reference point for understanding the world.

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23
Q

According to Mahler, when does practicing occur?

A

9-16 months, the infant can physically move about alone

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24
Q

MMPI-A can be used in what age range?

A

14-18.

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25
Q

If a patient is already taking valproate, what is the ideal lamotrigine dose?

A

Initial dose should be divided to half of the normal dose then increased to a therapeutic dose gradually.

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26
Q

According to the AACAP Practice Parameters for Cultural Competence, it is more common for minority children and adolescents to engage in mental health care after referral from the court or school for disruptive bx. TRUE or FALSE?

A

TRUE

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27
Q

According to the AACAP Practice Parameters for Cultural Competence, non-hispanic white families are ?x more likely to seek mental health care for their children compared to minority families?

A

2x

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28
Q

School administrators want to create a behavioral intervention plan for an aggressive student. What is the first major step in creating this plan?

A

Functional behavioral analysis (FBA) - systematic method for describing a problem behavior and identifying “antecedent and consequent events” that cause or contribute to the bx.

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29
Q

Abilify is approved to tx irritability in kids with autism - what age range?

A

6-17

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30
Q

a 16M discusses sexual fantasies towards an older cousin during the course of psychotherapy. Which principal justifies leaving out a more descriptive account of the adolescent’s sexual fantasy?

A

Nonmaleficience, do not harm. It includes not causing physical pain or emotional suffering or depriving others of beneficial things.

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31
Q

A recent study found that children with which gene’s variant allele were more likely to become violent and antisocial adults following child abuse?

A

MAO-A

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32
Q

According to the Treatment of SSRI-resistant Depression in Adolescents (TORDIA) trial, after failing a trial of an SSRI, what is the next step?

A

SSRI or venlafaxine, but venlafacine had more side effects (so the answer is SSRI :)

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33
Q

What group did the Treatment of SSRI-resistant Depression in Adolescents (TORDIA) trial look at?

A

adolescents that had not responded to a previous 2-month course of an SSRI

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34
Q

What medications were looked at in the Treatment of SSRI-resistant Depression in Adolescents (TORDIA) trial? (4)

A

Paroxetine, citalopram, fluoxetine, and venlafaxine

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35
Q

In the Treatment of SSRI-resistant Depression in Adolescents (TORDIA) trial, patient who switched to another medication and added CBT had a response rate of?

A

55% (in comparison to 41% who did not add CBT)

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36
Q

In the Treatment of SSRI-resistant Depression in Adolescents (TORDIA) trial, those who switched to another medication (and did not add CBT) had a response rate of?

A

41% (in comparison to 55% w CBT)

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37
Q

Did the Treatment of SSRI-resistant Depression in Adolescents (TORDIA) trial exclude patients who endorsed SI?

A

No.

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38
Q

The Treatment of SSRI-resistant Depression in Adolescents (TORDIA) trial did not exclude patients who endorsed SI. Did the medications reduce SI?

A

No

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39
Q

In the Treatment of SSRI-resistant Depression in Adolescents (TORDIA) trial, what side effects were seen with venlafaxine?

A

Skin infections and cardiovascular side effects

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40
Q

In the Treatment of SSRI-resistant Depression in Adolescents (TORDIA) trial adolescents with a history of what four things were less likely to respond to tx? (4)

A

1) Chronic depression
2) Severe hopelessness
3) Self-harm bx
4) Family conflict

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41
Q

A 12 month old child has begun to walk and moves around the room, still preferring close contact with the mother at all times. According to Mahler, this child is most likely in which developmental sub-phase?

A

Practicing (9-16 months). The infant can physically move about alone.

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42
Q

What protocol is used for therapy tx with adolescents experiencing PTSD and concurrent substance use?

A

Seeking safety

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43
Q

17M is brought to the hospital for hallucinations and bizarre bx. He is screaming that his abdomen hurts. The nurses report that his urine has an unusual color. Dx?

A

Acute intermittent porphyria

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44
Q

Psychosis + abdominal pain + purple urine. Dx?

A

Acute intermittent porphyria

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45
Q

3 sxs of Acute intermittent porphyria?

A

Psychosis + abdominal pain + purple urine

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46
Q

What is Acute intermittent porphyria?

A

Rare autosomal dominant disease that affects heme production resulting from a deficiency of the porphobilinogen deaminase.

The exact mechanism of acute attacks not clear. The most favored hypothesis is that porpholobilinogen buildup causes a toxic effects on neurons.

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47
Q

What cell types produces myelin in the CNS?

A

Oligodendrocytes.

They are also a type of glial cell.

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48
Q

Macroglia are divided into what 5 types?

A

1) astrocytes
2) oligodendrocytes
3) ependymal cells
4) radial glia
5) Schwann cells

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49
Q

Astrocytes are a type of macroglia - function?

A

Form biochemical support of endothelial cells that form the blood-brain-barrier, provide nutrients to CNS, maintain ion balance, and play a role in the repair and scarring process of the brain and spinal cord

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50
Q

Oligodendrocytes are a type of macroglia - function?

A

Insulate axons in the CNS by providing myelin sheath

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51
Q

Ependymal cells are a type of macroglia - function?

A

Line the ventricles and are part of CSF production

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52
Q

Radial glia are a type of macroglia - function?

A

Primary progenitors capable of becoming neurons, astrocytes, and oligodendrocytes that also serve as a scaffold upon which newborn neurons migrate

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53
Q

Schwann cells are a type of macroglia - function?

A

Myelinate nerves in the PNS (oligodendrocytes are in the CNS)

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54
Q

Nonfunctional or reduced function alleles occur in approx 25-30% of Caucasians, resulting in about what percentage of the population having the phenotype associated with abnl metabolism? (CYP2D6)

A

5-10%

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55
Q

Atomoxetine is affected by which CYP?

A

2D6

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56
Q

When is the best time to measure plasma levels of lithium during therapy?

A

12 hours after the last dose

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57
Q

Which law in the US sets forth the basic requirements for an IEP?

A

Individuals with Disabilities Education Act

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58
Q

The Higher Education Act of 1965 was intended for what?

A

To strengthen the educational resources of our colleges and universities and to provide financial assistance for students in post-secondary and higher education. It increased federal money given to universities, created scholarships, gave low-interest loans for students, and established a National Teachers Corps

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59
Q

Section 504 is part of what Act?

A

Rehabilitation Act of 1973 that prohibits discrimination based upon disability. Section 504 is an anti-discrimination civil rights statute that requires the needs of students with disabilities to be met as adequately as the needs of the non-disabled are met.

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60
Q

What percent of patients with autism have Fragile X?

A

3-5%

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61
Q

What is the most common genetic cause of ID in boys?

A

Fragile X

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62
Q

What is the most common genetic cause of ID?

A

Down syndrome

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63
Q

What is imprinting?

A

A gene is silenced or otherwise altered by one parent, which can influence the offspring (Prader-Willi or Angelman)

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64
Q

What is anticipation?

A

Genetic syndrome that appears to become more pronounced with successive generations. (Fragile X)

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65
Q

Example of anticipation?

A

Fragile X.

Genetic syndrome that appears to become more pronounced with successive generations.

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66
Q

Method of training by which successive approximations toward a target bx are reinforced

A

Shaping

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67
Q

Learning process in which an innate response to a potent stimulus comes to be elicited in response to a previously neutral stimulus

A

Classical conditioning

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68
Q

Type of learning in which the strength of a bx is modified by its consequences, such as reward or punishment

A

Operant conditioning

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69
Q

Walks, puts a block in a cup, drinks from a cup, and says “mama” and “dada” specifically - age?

A

1 year

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70
Q

17M w reddened conjunctivae, speaking in hushed tones and has tachycardia and a dry mouth. The patient’s parents are worried about his grades at school, but he says he has “got it all figured out.” Which drug is responsible for his sxs?

A

Cannabis

also causes paranoia and a slowed sense of time

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71
Q

Vertical nystagmus is pathognomonic for what?

A

PCP intoxication

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72
Q

Paranoia, hallucinations, aggression, and vertical nystagmus - drug?

A

PCP

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73
Q

HTN, anxiety, and diaphoresis - drug intoxication?

A

Cocaine

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74
Q

MRI shows large tumors on both VIII cranial nerves. Which syndrome is this child most likely to have?

A

NF2 (acostic neuromas)

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75
Q

MRI shows large tumors on both VIII cranial nerves. Which syndrome is this child most likely to have? inheritance patterN?

A

NF2 (acostic neuromas)

Autosomal dominant

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76
Q

Large spots on the skin (cafe-au-lait-spots), optic gliomas, pigmented raised spots on the iris. Which syndrome is this child most likely to have?

A

NF1

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77
Q

Large spots on the skin (cafe-au-lait-spots), optic gliomas, pigmented raised spots on the iris. Which syndrome is this child most likely to have? Inheritance pattern?

A

NF1

Autosomal dominant

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78
Q

What concept was developed by Bowlby?

A

Attachment theory

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79
Q

Multisystemic therapy (MST) is used for what dx?

A

Conduct disorder

MST is an intensive family and community-based tx for serious juvenile offenders with possible substance abuse issues and their families. The

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80
Q

What are the primary goals of MST?

A

Decrease youth criminal bx and out-of-home placements.

Indicated for kids w conduct disorder

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81
Q

Testing for Fragile X syndrome involves what method?

A

PCR (# of CGG repeats) followed by Southern Blot (used to distinguish large pre-mutations from full mutations and to measure the degree of methylation of the FMR1 gene

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82
Q

A young child is evaluated for ID. His parents note that he frequently attempts to bit and scratch himself, often leaving serious woulds on his arms. They recall having an abnormal genetics evaluation. At that time, they were advised to feed him a special diet. Dx?

A

Lesch-Nyhan disease

Caused by a mutation on the X chromosome. It causes a build up of uric acid in the body.

It can partially be compensated for with a diet limiting the uric acid production

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83
Q

A young child is evaluated for ID. His parents note that he frequently attempts to bit and scratch himself, often leaving serious woulds on his arms. They recall having an abnormal genetics evaluation. At that time, they were advised to feed him a special diet. Caused by a mutation on what?

A

Lesch-Nyhan disease

Caused by a mutation in the HGPRT gene located on the X chromosome. It causes a build up of uric acid in the body due to the HGPRT deficiency.

It can partially be compensated for with a diet limiting the uric acid production

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84
Q

A young child is evaluated for ID. His parents note that he frequently attempts to bit and scratch himself, often leaving serious woulds on his arms. They recall having an abnormal genetics evaluation. At that time, they were advised to feed him a special diet. Causes what?

A

Lesch-Nyhan disease

Caused by a mutation on the X chromosome. It causes a build up of uric acid in the body.

It can partially be compensated for with a diet limiting the uric acid production

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85
Q

A former patient’s father has difficulty paying off their bill and offers his construction services (he is a contractor). In what situation would this exchange be considered ethical?

A

As long as the work is at fair market value

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86
Q

A 16M 2nd generation Mexican American is brought by his parents under court order for a psychiatric evaluation stemming from gang involvement. The patient reports that his grandparents were just “stupid farmers” and “did not understand the world.” He also remarks that “Americans just care about money, and we (the gang) actually care about each other.” Define.

A

Negative identification: form of marginalization where the youth is openly hostile towards both cultures and may adopt gang culture.

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87
Q

Represented by rejection of the host culture and remaining bound to an “ethnic enclave.”

A

Separation

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88
Q

Involves a separation from both cultures and some degree of ethnic identity diffusion.

A

Marginalization

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89
Q

What value tells how likely the result of a study was due to random chance?

A

P value

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90
Q

What does P = 0.01 mean?

A

That there is a 1 in 100 probability that the positive results of the study were due to chance, rather than due to a real effect of the drug

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91
Q

What is absolute risk reduction and how is it calculated?

A

The difference between the risk of an outcome in the exposed group and the unexposed group.

Mathematic inverse of NNT = control event rate - experimental event rate

NNT = 1 / (control event rate - experimental event rate)

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92
Q

A well-designed randomised controlled trial in children with a particular disease found that 20 per cent of the control group developed bad outcomes, compared with only 12 per cent of those receiving treatment. ARR?

A

20%-12% = 8%
If 100 children were treated, 8 would be prevented from developing bad outcomes.
NNT = 100/8 = ~13. The NNT for one child to benefit is about 13.

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93
Q

A well-designed randomised controlled trial in children with a particular disease found that 20 per cent of the control group developed bad outcomes, compared with only 12 per cent of those receiving treatment. ARR?

A

20%-12% = 8%
If 100 children were treated, 8 would be prevented from developing bad outcomes.

NNT = 100/8 = ~13. The NNT for one child to benefit is about 13.

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94
Q

A well-designed randomised controlled trial in children with a particular disease found that 20 per cent of the control group developed bad outcomes, compared with only 12 per cent of those receiving treatment. NNT?

A

20%-12% = 8% = ARR
If 100 children were treated, 8 would be prevented from developing bad outcomes.

NNT = 100/8 = ~13. The NNT for one child to benefit is about 13.

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95
Q

What is the leading known cause of ID?

A

Fetal alcohol syndrome

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96
Q

What is a potential side effect of atomoxetine that affects males only?

A

Priapism.

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97
Q

What % of study subjects with ADHD responded preferentially to 1 of 2 classes of stimulants (methylphenidate vs amphetamine)?

A

44%

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98
Q

What is the initial response rate to stimulants if both stimulant classes are tried (methylphenidate and amphetamine)?

A

85%

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99
Q

A 16M suffering from acute mania and psychosis presents to the ED. The patient is agitated and demands to leave. The psychiatrist gives IM Haldol. Which ethical principal is working here?

A

Beneficience

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100
Q

Runs, stacks 4 blocks, removes garments, says at least 6 words. Age?

A

18 months

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101
Q

What is the correct sequence of infant development as described by Margaret Mahler? (3)

A

1) Autistic phase (1st few weeks of life)
2) Symbiotic phase (until 5 months of age, recognizes mother but lacks a sense of individuality)
3) Separation-individuation phase
- hatching (increased interest in the outside world)
- practicing (9-16 months, developing the physical ability to separate from mother)
- rapproachement (15-24 months, exploring the outside world but needing mother to be present and offer support)

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102
Q

A child is noted to believe in strict rules and is unable to appreciate any exceptions or nuances to rules, such as the mindset of the person or the situation which the person was facing that the time. Which stage of cognitive development is the child most likely at?

A

Preoperational (concrete in their thinking, will often adopt a rigid belief in rules, and will fail to understand exceptions or motives behind possibly needing to break the rules.

Age 2-7

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103
Q

A child is noted to believe in strict rules and is unable to appreciate any exceptions or nuances to rules, such as the mindset of the person or the situation which the person was facing that the time. Age?

A

Preoperational (concrete in their thinking, will often adopt a rigid belief in rules, and will fail to understand exceptions or motives behind possibly needing to break the rules.

Age 2-7

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104
Q

9M is treated for depression. He is American born, but his family is originally from Ecuador. He is generally a good student, but this year his grades have suffered. His mother has a h/o depression that reportedly has responded well to tx with fluoxetine. Of note, the patient is a poor metabolized of fluoxetine. What is the primary consideration when dosing fluoxetine for this boy?

A

size.

Dosing medication in older children and adolescents mainly relies on differences in body size between child and adults. Fluoxetine is FDA approved for the treatment of depression in children 8 years old +.

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105
Q

Approx what percentage of patients with chronic alcohol use disorders have at least one parents with chronic alcohol use disorder?

A

30%

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106
Q

16M expresses resentment towards having to care for his younger child. When he is w his friends, he consistently reports how wonderful it is to be a father. At times, he worries about his capabilities and is concerned that he will not be able to provide for his child. Defense mechanism?

A

Reaction formation: conversion of unconscious wishes into their opposites.

The bx is the opposite of what one really desires or feels.

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107
Q

The unconscious modeling of one’s self after another person’s character and bx

A

Identification

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108
Q

Ensures that what is unacceptable to the conscious mind, and would if recalled arouse anxiety, is prevented from entering into it.

A

Repression

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109
Q

Shift of a sexual or aggressive drive to a more acceptable target

The mind substitutes either a new aim or a new object for goals felt in their original form to be dangerous or unacceptable.

A

Displacement

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110
Q

Separation of a cognitive process from the affect that is associated with it

A

Isolation of affect

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111
Q

Wilson’s disease - inheritance pattern?

A

autosomal recessive

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112
Q

A family h/o sleepwalking or sleep terrors is reported in up to what percentage of patients with sleepwalking disorder?

A

80%

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113
Q

Severe side effects of ecstasy abuse and intoxication? (7)

A

1) Coagulopathy
2) Acute renal failure
3) Hepatotoxicity
4) Rhabdomyolysis
5) Death
6) convulsions
7) body temp dysregulations

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114
Q

Common side effects of MDMA?

A

1) PMR
2) increased sexual response
3) bruxism
4) trismus
5) anorexia
6) sweating

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115
Q

A group of 3.5 y/o children are playing in a sandbox with the same toys. What kind of play behavior are they most likely to exhibit?

A

Associative play: (around 3 years old)

Individual play starts to overlap. They share the same toys but will still play separately

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116
Q

What type of play is commonly seen with 4 y/os.

A

Cooperative play. Children play with toys and interact with each other.

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117
Q

At what age do you commonly see parallel play?

A

2 y/o

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118
Q

Parallel, associative, and cooperative play are the progressive stages of play during what Piaget development period?

A

Preoperational (preschool age)

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119
Q

Rash w facial involvement, mucus membrane involvement, fever, and lymphadenopathy after lamotrigine is a sign of what?

A

SJS

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120
Q

Lamotrigine overdose can be fatal. The most common sxs include stupor, convulsions, and intraventricular delay. Tx?

A

Supportive

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121
Q

A cohort study was designed to examine the Development of MDD in children of divorced parents vs married parents. What measure should the researchers use to express the probability of an event occurring when comparing an exposed group to a non-exposed group.

A

Relative risk. Expresses the probability of an event occurring when comparing an exposed and a non-exposed group (incidence of exposed over incidence of unexposed). It is used in RCT and cohort studies.

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122
Q

Used to calculate risk in a case-control study and signifies the odds of having a disease given an exposure (odds of disease with exposure over odds of disease without exposure).

A

Odds ratio.

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123
Q

For rare diseases, the odds ratio approximates what?

A

Relative risk

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124
Q

Calculated as the # of events over the number of subjects. It is used to calculate several measures, including relative risk and absolute risk reduction.

A

Event rate

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125
Q

Similar to relative risk (expresses the probability of an event occurring when comparing an exposed and non-exposed group), but while relative risk ratios are cumulative over the course of a study, this ratio reflects the instantaneous risk over a specific time period. It is helpful when 2 groups are experiencing events at different rates, even if the overall event rate may be similar.

A

Hazard ratio

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126
Q

17F c/o recent episodes of extreme anxiety, racing pulse, and cold sweats. Her urine vanillyl mandelic acid is elevated. What neurotransmitter is produced in excess?

A

Norepinephrine

pheochromocytoma

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127
Q

17F c/o recent episodes of extreme anxiety, racing pulse, and cold sweats. Her urine vanillyl mandelic acid is elevated. A neurotransmitter is produced in excess - where is it produced?

A

Norepinephrine - pheochromocytoma

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128
Q

17F c/o recent episodes of extreme anxiety, racing pulse, and cold sweats. Her urine vanillyl mandelic acid is elevated. Dx?

A

pheochromocytoma

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129
Q

17F c/o recent episodes of extreme anxiety, racing pulse, and cold sweats. Her urine vanillyl mandelic acid is elevated. Where might you see a mass?

A

pheochromocytoma

– usually see an adrenal mass

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130
Q

In structural family therapy, the therapist first “joins” the family in order to observe what is occurring. After joining, which technique does the therapist typically use next?

A

Mapping: the therapist makes an assessment of the family’s structure and repetitive patterns of interactions, usually looking for the maladaptive patterns that need to be addressed during restructuring

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131
Q

What are the three phases of structural family therapy?

A

1) Joining
2) Mapping
3) Restructuring

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132
Q

What kind of scheduling is a casino using to encourage this gambling bx?

A

Variable ratio. This schedule provides reinforcement at a varying response rate. The number of game attempts to win at slots varies for each win.

(a variable interval schedule provides reinforcement for responses that occur after varying amts of time)

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133
Q

A 4 y/o child presents for an initial evaluation with a h/o of school refusal. Which broad-based rating scale is best suited to evaluate anxiety?

A

Spence Children’s Anxiety Scale (normed to the age of 2.5, parent report from age 2.5 - 6) and consists of 35-45 items geared towards assessing anxiety.

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134
Q

Age range for the SCARED?

A

8-18. Looks at GAD, social phobia, panic d/o, and separation anxiety.

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135
Q

36-item scale used to assess intensity and frequency of aggression and externalizing bxs as well as sxs of ADHD in children age 2-16. This scale was utilized to measure outcomes in PCIT.

A

Eyeberg Child Bx Inventory (ECBI)

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136
Q

Eyeberg Child Bx Inventory (ECBI) = 36-item scale used to assess intensity and frequency of aggression and externalizing bxs as well as sxs of ADHD in children age Range? This scale was utilized to measure outcomes in PCIT.

A

2-16

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137
Q

This type of aggression is a marked and pervasive tendency to perceive that others are acting with hostile intent. It is typically a result of an angry arousal and is impulsive in nature.

A

Reactive aggression.

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138
Q

Reactive aggression = This type of aggression is a marked and pervasive tendency to perceive that others are acting with hostile intent. It is typically a result of an angry arousal and is impulsive in nature. Tx?

A

Anger management

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139
Q

This type of aggression is rooted in a belief that the youth will get what he/she wants and that other strategies will not work. It is deliberate.

A

Proactive aggression

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140
Q

Proactive aggression = This type of aggression is rooted in a belief that the youth will get what he/she wants and that other strategies will not work. It is deliberate. Tx?

A

Therapeutic modalities that enhance empathy and decrease antisocial attitudes.

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141
Q

Primary enuresis - there is a high rate of spontaneous remission when?

A

Between ages 5-7 and after age 12

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142
Q

What gene is associated with tuberous sclerosis and is linked to ASD?

A

TSC1

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143
Q

Medical conditions that cause ASD can be identified in what percent of cases?

A

<5%

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144
Q

What percent of children with severe chronic medical illness survive into adulthood?

A

90%

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145
Q

What features need to be present at some point to dx Tourette’s disorder?

A

Multiple motor tics and at least 1 vocal tic

Must be present at some time during the illness, although not necessarily concurrently. 1 year. No tic free period of more than 3 consecutive months.

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146
Q

Onset of Tourette’s disorder must occur before what age?

A

18 years

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147
Q

Who was the first person to characterize autism spectrum?

A

Leo Kanner

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148
Q

What part of the brain is responsible for arousal?

A

Pons

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149
Q

What part of the brain is responsible for most physiologic regulations, including body temperature?

A

Hypothalamus

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150
Q

Language is controlled by several areas of the brain, including what two lobes?

A

frontal and temporal

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151
Q

A child can hold her head up when sitting in a chair but cannot sit up on her own on the ground. The child will turn and look at sounds but does not yet say any sounds or words other than cooing. She has just started to reach for objects but is unable to pass them back to her parents. Age?

A

4 months but not quite 6 months (being unable to sit unsupported is the most common indicator).

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152
Q

MOA of mirtazapine?

A

Antagonism of presynaptic alpha-2-adrenergic inhibitory autoreceptors = noradrenergic and serotonergic activity.

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153
Q

Bioavailability of mirtazapine?

A

50% d/t extensive first-pass metabolism.

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154
Q

Common side effects of mirtazapine? (6)

A

1) mildly elevated ALT and triglycerides
2) weight gain
3) somnolence
4) dry mouth
5) asthenia
6) constipation

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155
Q

Telencephalon (3)?

A

1) Cerebral hemispheres
2) Limbic system
3) Basal ganglia

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156
Q

Diencephalon (3)?

A

1) Thalamus
2) Hypothalamus
3) Optic vesicle

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157
Q

Mesencephalon (3)?

A

1) Red nucleus
2) Substantia nigra
3) Periaqueductal gray

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158
Q

Melencephalon (2)?

A

1) Pons

2) Cerebellum

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159
Q

Myelencephalon (1)?

A

Medulla

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160
Q

A 6 y/o is struggling to make new friends and reports to his mother that he “can’t do anything right.” Which basic conflict describes this child?

A

Industry vs inferiority (6-12)

Confidence, competence, social skills

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161
Q

In what age group do you see trust vs. mistrust?

A

Birth to 18 months

Basic trust

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162
Q

In what age group do you see autonomy vs shame?

A

18 months to 3 years

Control and independence

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163
Q

In what age group do you see initiative vs guilt?

A

3 to 6

taking control of the environment, purpose

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164
Q

In what age group do you see identity vs role confusion?

A

12 to 28

Formation of identity, devotion

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165
Q

Pica = repeated eating of nonfood substances that are not nutritional for at least how long?

A

1 month

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166
Q

During a family therapy session, the therapist asks the family members to get up and stand physically closer to family members who they felt emotionally closer to and stay distant from those they felt emotionally distant from. This is an example of which technique?

A

Sculpting

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167
Q

First line medication for moderate - severe tics?

A

Guanfacine or clonidine

Antipsychotics are second line

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168
Q

Patients with this personality disorder commonly experience over-involvement and intrusive bx by primary caretakers as a child. They were often socially humiliated during childhood, which leads to doubt in their own ability to function independently of others.

A

Dependent personality disorder

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169
Q

Patients who develop this personality disorder often had parents who were emotionally withholding and overprotective or over-controlling. The were often punished and rarely rewarded. They developed sxs as a strategy to avoid punishment.

A

OCPD

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170
Q

A grandiose sense of self-importance is a sx of what personality disorder?

A

Narcissistic PD

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171
Q

A referral to a child psychiatrist is a typical component of an IEP - TRUE OR FALSE?

A

FALSE

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172
Q

LOT benzos are metabolized by the liver, but primarily via what mechanism?

A

Conjugation

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173
Q

A transition plan is a part of an IEP that help with the transition from HS to adulthood. The transition plan starts at what age?

A

16

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174
Q

Common sleep disorder in teens?

A

Circadian rhythm disorder, delayed-phase type

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175
Q

Children and adolescents dx’d with anxiety disorders are how many more times likely to develop a depressive or anxiety disorder in adultlhood?

A

2-3x more likely

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176
Q

At any time, what % of adolescents report some degree of SI?

A

15-25%

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177
Q

What percent of teens attempt suicide?

A

1-10%

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178
Q

Suicide is the 2nd leading cause of death in adolescents and accounts for what % of all deaths?

A

11

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179
Q

22q11.w is associated with a higher risk of early onset schizophrenia. What is the syndrome?

A

Velocardiofacial

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180
Q

Early onset schizophrenia - lifetime risk of developing the illness is ?x higher in first-degree relatives of affected probands?

A

5-20x

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181
Q

A 7 y/o female enjoys forming clubs with other girls, making shared rules, and collecting dolls. Erickson stage of development?

A

Industry vs Inferiority

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182
Q

An 8 y/o girl is working with her mother, who pours a container of lemonade into 2 differently shaped glasses that hold the same volume The child correctly recognizes that although the glasses are different shapes they hold the same volume. Piaget phase?

A

Concrete operational (7-11 years old)

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183
Q

Piaget stage, starts at age 11, includes the use of abstract and hypothetical thinking. The ability to discern major principals and motivations of ideas, theories, or actions allows individuals in this stage to apply them to new and similar situations.

A

Formal operations

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184
Q

Irritability and aggression occur more frequently in bipolar patients with comorbid ADHD when tx’d with stimulants - true or false?

A

TRUE

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185
Q

What medical condition is common in patients with Down Syndrome and may mimic depression?

A

Hypothyroidism

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186
Q

Patients with down syndrome often experience dementia at what age?

A

40s and 50s

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187
Q

ID is generally profound in down syndrome -true or false?

A

FALSE - can be variable

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188
Q

Which model of family therapy is most concerned with triangulation?

A

Transgenerational family therapy is primarily concerned with helping an individual to differentiate themselves from the family.

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189
Q

What is often used in transgenerational family therapy?

A

Genograms.

Transgenerational family therapy is primarily concerned with helping an individual to differentiate themselves from the family.

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190
Q

What is triangulation?

A

When 2 family members join together in opposition to another. It is tx’d with tansgenerational family therapy, which is primarily concerned with helping an individual to differentiate themselves from the family.

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191
Q

Is light therapy considered an effective tx?

A

YES.

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192
Q

Light therapy carries a risk of activating patients with what dx?

A

It carries a risk of activating patients with bipolar disorder.

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193
Q

What is the most characteristic primitive defense mechanism in OCD?

A

Undoing: an attempt to undo or somehow reverse an unacceptable thought, feeling , or action that already occurred by doing an opposite bx.

Ex: washing hands multiple times after having an “unclean” thought. By going back and undoing the past, the anxiety over a bx is avoided.

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194
Q

A child in the preoperational stage bumps his knee against a desk and kicks the desk, accusing it of hurting him. What is this called?

A

Animism: the attribution of a soul to plants, inanimate objects, and natural phenomena. The child is egocentric and assumes all of the world thinks as he/she does, including inanimate objects.

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195
Q

Most sxs of acute stress will dissipate within 1 month following a tragedy - what % of children will continue to have sxs after a month?

A

30%

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196
Q

What is the general natural history of Tourette’s syndrome?

A

Peaks at age 12 and then improves

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197
Q

Tourette’s resolves by age 18 in about what % of children?

A

50%

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198
Q

Tourette’s syndrome occurs in about what percent of children?

A

0.5%

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199
Q

Tourette’s syndrome affects males more than females by a ratio of?

A

4:1

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200
Q

What mood stabilizer slows cardiac conduction and should be avoided in patients with high-grade atrioventricular block and sinus syndrome?

A

Carbamazepine

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201
Q

SIADH and hyponatremia can occur with which mood stabilizer?

A

Carbamazepine

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202
Q

Norfluoxetine, the metabolite of fluoxetine has a half life of up to how many days?

A

16

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203
Q

Fluoxetine is what percent protein bound?

A

94.5%

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204
Q

Why is fluoxetine contradindication within 5 weeks of thioridazine use?

A

QTc prolongation

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205
Q

Fluoxetine dosing for young children?

A

5 mg/day, 10 mg/day for older children

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206
Q

Form of encouragement that is used to convey the therapist’s high level of confidence in a patient

A

Exhortation

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207
Q

MOA for which mood stabilizer - inhibits glutamate and voltage-gated sodium channels

A

Lamotrigine

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208
Q

What mood stabilizer increases GABA in the brain?

A

Depakote

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209
Q

Which mood stabilizer exerts its effects through the inhibition of voltage-dependent sodium channels and presynaptic sodium channels

A

Carbamazepine

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210
Q

How does the response to ECT vary between adolescents and adults?

A

Response appears to be similar

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211
Q

Before ECT is used, what needs to happen?

A

2 child and adolescent psychiatrists who are not the primary caregivers for the adolescent should be consulted and should agree that ECT is indicated

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212
Q

What is the most common genetic cause of ID?

A

Down Syndrome

(Fragile X is the most common genetic cause of ID in boys).

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213
Q

Which gene is associated with developing psychosis after using cannabis?

A

AKT1

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214
Q

Which gene has been reported to interact with stressful life events and childhood maltreatment in the development of depression?

A

BDNF

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215
Q

Which gene may sensitive the developing brain to the pathogenic effect of CMV in utero, leading to schizophrenia in adulthood?

A

CTNNA3

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216
Q

Which gene, that codes a co-chaperone of the glucocorticoid receptor, was reported to sensitize individuals to developing PTSD after exposure to childhood maltreatment?

A

FKBP5

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217
Q

Which therapy approach to substance abuse in adolescents has the most empirical support?

A

Family therapy

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218
Q

During the Oedipal phase of development, what is characteristic of play? (4)

A

1) child’s sense of place within the family
2) theories and feelings about babies and their origins
3) anatomical differences between the genders
4) curiosity and excitement associated with genital sensations
4) competition and rivalry

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219
Q

A RTC is designed to evaluate the relationship between HTN and differing doses of velafaxine. A linear regression model is plotted with venlafaxine on the X-axis and BP on the Y-axis. R is calculated as 0.6. How should the coefficient of determination be interpreted?

A

36% of variance in BP can be explained by venlafaxine dose. (calculated by the square of the R value).

Variance in Y that can be explained by X.

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220
Q

The TADS study indicated that what percent of depressed youth respond to initial tx w medication?

A

60%

CBT + meds = 71%

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221
Q

A loaded gun at home confers a ?x higher risk in youth without any psychopathology?

A

30x

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222
Q

Psychological factors contributing to suicide risk?

A

1) impulsive aggression
2) hopelessness
3) neuroticism
4) same-sex attraction

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223
Q

patients who have first-degree relatives who have completed suicide have a ?x greater risk for suicide attempt?

A

4-6x

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224
Q

Genetic factors that elevate risk of suicide? (3)

A

1) altered serotonergic function
2) altered adrenocortical function
3) blunted sleep-stimulated growth hormone secretion

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225
Q

A white female can throw a ball overhand - this milestone is achieved by 50-90% of children by what age?

A

24 months

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226
Q

What are the 5 core principles of MI?

A

1) express empathy
2) develop discrepancy
3) avoid argumentation
4) roll w resistance
5) support self-efficacy

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227
Q

Those suffering from this condition have delayed motor development, jerky limb movements, epilepsy, face abnormalities, happy demeanor, and laugh frequently.

A

Angelman syndrome (maternal ch. 15)

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228
Q

Approx what % of Americans have reported PTSD at some point in their lives?

A

8%

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229
Q

Somatic symptom disorder is observed in what percentage of female first-degree relatives of patients with somatic symptom and related disorders?

A

10-20%

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230
Q

Somatic symptom disorder - prevalence in females?

A

0.2-2%

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231
Q

Somatic symptom disorder - prevalence in males?

A

< 0.2%

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232
Q

What cell type forms the blood-brain barrier and aids neuronal migration during development?

A

Astrocytes: type of glial cells that are responsible for the development and framework of the neurons. They outnumber neurons 5:1 and contiguously tile the entire CNS.

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233
Q

What three cellular elements of the brain microvasculature compose the blood-brain barrier?

A

1) endothelial cells
2) astrocyte end-feet
3) pericytes

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234
Q

Aggression in a 5 y/o with autism - only medication approved for this age?

A

Risperidone

abilify is approved for 6+

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235
Q

What condition is considered high risk for associated hearing defects?

A

Persistent fetal circulation

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236
Q

When is a PTSD dx considered “with delayed expression”?

A

when PTSD criteria is not met until at least 6 months after the event

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237
Q

What is the primary reason to decrease psychotropic medication doses in children with liver and kidney disease?

A

Decreased albumin binding: most psychotropic medications are highly protein bound (with the exception of lithium, methylphenidate, venlafaxine, depakote, gabapentin, and topiramate)

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238
Q

Which medications are NOT highly protein bound? (6)

A

lithium, methylphenidate, venlafaxine, depakote, gabapentin, and topiramate

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239
Q

hepatic diseases impact drug distribution through what three ways?

A

1) changes in blood flow
2) protein binding
3) volume of distribution

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240
Q

Uridine glucuronosyltransferase enxymes play a minor role in drug metabolism with the exception of what three medications?

A

Lamotrigine, morphine, and lorazepam

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241
Q

Why do extended release medications have fewer side effects?

A

Due to more gradual increases in the plasma concentration

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242
Q

Common side effects of depakote? (5)

A

1) alopecia
2) rash
3) GI
4) neurological
5) ophthalmological

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243
Q

Absolute contraindications for depakote?

A

1) hepatic disease
2) known urea cycle disorders
3) pregnancy
4) PCOS in females of child bearing age

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244
Q

Does depakote have FDA approval for mania in adolescents?

A

No, only approved for seizure disorder

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245
Q

As many as what percent of boys between ages 8-12 may have transient tics?

A

15%

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246
Q

A 13 y/o F has been dx’d w MDD, single, moderate. TX?

A

Prozac (8+)

Escitalopram // lexapro (12+)

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247
Q

Which two medications are indicated for OCD in children and adolescents?

A

Sertraline (6+)

Fluvoxamine (8+)

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248
Q

6F w OCD, tx?

A

Sertraline (6+)

When she turns 8… Fluvoxamine (8+)

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249
Q

Form of non-associative learning whereby repetitive stimuli elicit weakening behavioral responses if the stimuli do not reinforce or punish the bx

A

Habituation

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250
Q

Form of non-associative learning whereby repetitive stimuli elicit increasingly powerful responses.

A

Sensitization

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251
Q

Puberty occurs how much earlier in females than males?

A

1.5 years

252
Q

Puberty in females unfolds in what order? (3)

A

1) breast bud development
2) pubic hair growth
3) menache

253
Q

Clozapine is a pregnancy class B drug - what does this mean

A

It has not been shown to cause birth defects

254
Q

Lithium: what percent of the dose is excreted unchanged in urine?

A

90-98%

255
Q

Lithium: in young patients with normal renal function, the volume of distribution is what percent greater in adolescents that for adults?

A

20%

256
Q

Clozapine - when can drug-induced fever and tachycardia occur?

A

In the first few days of tx

257
Q

Seizure risk with clozapine tx - what percent of patients on doses > 600 mg/day will have seizures?

A

4-6%

258
Q

Agranulocytosis occurs mostly when with clozapine?

A

first 6 months of tx

259
Q

Agranulocytosis is more common in what groups (3)?

A

1) Ashkenazi Jewish
2) advanced age
3) women

260
Q

Is TD associated with clozapine?

A

No, the prevalence is low and the severity is relatively mild, with no or mild self-reported discomfort. Can be used as tx/reduce sx if patient is switched to clozapine from another antipsychotic

261
Q

“the extent to which a theory, result, conclusion, or test/measurement is credible and corresponds accurately to the population of interest” describes what statistical term?

A

Validity

262
Q

The test measured what it was supposed to measure in the initial population

A

Internal validity

263
Q

The results can be generalized beyond the immediate study to other populations

A

External validity

264
Q

Determines if a test will measure the problem in question

A

Construct validity

265
Q

Defined as the overall consistency or reproducibility of a measure

A

Reliability

266
Q

A test can be _____ without being ____ but a test cannot be ____ unless it is _____

A

A test can be reliable without being valid but a test cannot be valid unless it is reliable

267
Q

The parents of a student request an evaluation for a 504 plan but then disagree with the school’s findings and want a second opinion. Who pays for the second opinion?

A

Under section 504, the school has few obligations for second opinions and would not have to pay for any second opinion that the parents might request.

Were it an IEP the school would be required to pay for an IEE.

268
Q

You see a patient in the hospital with conversion disorder. Tx? (2)

A

1) Reassurance (emphasize to the family that her sxs are involuntary)
2) Reasonable rehabilitation

Confrontation about the sxs is contraindicated. Psychotherapy might be useful but may also be contraindicated if the patient is resistant. Meds could be suggested later for anxiety or depressive sxs.

269
Q

Conversion disorder - duration of sxs?

A

Usually remits spontaneously within 2 wks in hospitalized patients and it is unlikely to persist more than a year

270
Q

WISC can measure intelligence - age range?

A

6-16

271
Q

What test assesses academic achievement by testing reading, writing, math, and oral language?

A

WIAT-II

272
Q

The WIAT-II test assesses academic achievement by testing reading, writing, math, and oral language. Age range?

A

4-85

273
Q

What test can be paired with the WISC to measure both intelligence and academic achievement to look for any discrepancies?

A

WIAT-II: assesses academic achievement by testing reading, writing, math, and oral language

274
Q

What is the half life of guanfacine in children?

A

12-14 hours

275
Q

Guanfacine is typically dosed how many times her day?

A

2-3 times (half life is 12-14 hours)

276
Q

Half life of clonidine?

A

8-12 hours

277
Q

Clonidine is dosed how many times per day?

A

3-4 (half life is 8-12 hours)

278
Q

How long do the behavioral effects of clonidine last?

A

3-6 hours

279
Q

Hypotension and sedation is worse in clonidine or guanfacine?

A

Clonidine

280
Q

Ipecac causes cardiac problems through what mechanism?

A

Damaging myocardial muscle cells. A toxic component of ipecac (emetine) accumulates in the myocardium.

Sxs of ipecac toxicity include chest pain, dyspnea, hypotension, supraventricular tachycardia, atrial premature contractions, flattened or inverted T-waves, prolonged QT and PR intervals, ventricular tachycardia, cardiac failure, pericardial effusion, pulmonary congestion, and cardiac arrest.

281
Q

Side effects of ipecac? (2)

A

Cardiomyopathy and elevated liver enzymes

282
Q

THe vanderbilt screens for what three disorders?

A

ADHD, conduct disorder, and ODD

283
Q

The SNAP-IV rating scale screens for what?

A

ADHD and ODD

284
Q

The SNAP-IV rating scale screens for ADHD and ODD in what age range?

A

6-18

285
Q

The Attention Deficit Disorders Evaluation Scale (ADDES-3) screens for ADHD - age range?

A

4-18

286
Q

The genetic syndrome appears to become more pronounced with successive generations. A classic ex is fragile X.

A

Anticipation

287
Q

Minuchin is the main proponent of what type of family therapy?

A

Structural

288
Q

Psychoeducational family therapy is associated with what two people?

A

1) Carol Anderson

2) William McFarlane

289
Q

Behavioral family therapy is associated with what two people?

A

1) Robert Liberman

2) Lawrence Weathers

290
Q

Narrative family therapy is associated with what two people?

A

1) Michael White

2) David Epston

291
Q

Systemic family therapy is associated with what two people?

A

1) Mara Selvini Palazolli

2) Luigi Boscolo

292
Q

What is the most important factor in group therapy related to positive therapeutic effects?

A

Cohesion - a sense that the group is working together toward a common goal

293
Q

In group therapy, the act of one member helping another, putting another person’s needs before one’s own, and learning that there is value in giving to others

A

Altruism

294
Q

Prader-Willi syndrome: patients have short stature w hypogonadism, hyperphagia, and obesity. The genetic abnormality in what percent of patients is a deletion at ch. 15?

A

70%

295
Q

Prader-Willi syndrome: hyper or hypo gonadism?

A

Hypogonadism

296
Q

The sensorimotor stage of child development occurs at which age, according to Piaget?

A

Birth through 18-24 months

297
Q

A child is able to jump up and down. This milestone is acheived by 50-90% of children by which age?

A

24 months

298
Q

What part of the brain is primarily responsible for visual and spatial recognition?

A

Parietal lobe

299
Q

The parietal lobes are key areas for what three things?

A

1) Sensory integration
2) Somatosensory function
3) Visual and spatial recognition

300
Q

The temporal lobes are the key areas for the brain for what two things?

A

1) Hearing

2) Naming

301
Q

The occipital lobe is the key area for what?

A

Visual functions

302
Q

The frontal lobe is the key area for what 5 things?

A

1) Executive function
2) Social conduct
3) Judgment
4) Insight
5) some motor function

303
Q

According to Minuchin, which family dynamics predict the development of “psychosomatic families”?

A

Enmeshment, rigidity, overprotectiveness, and the lack of conflict resolution.

304
Q

Most family therapies of what disorder have been developed based on the classical description of the “psychosomatic” family by Minuchin?

A

Eating disorder

Enmeshment, rigidity, overprotectiveness, and the lack of conflict resolution.

305
Q

A large retrospective cohort study indicated that children and young adults do or don’t have a higher risk of cardiovascular events?

A

DO NOT

306
Q

Atomoxetine - contraindications?

A

patients with a history of serious structural cardiac abnormalities, cardiomyopathy, arrhythmia, and other cardiac issues.

307
Q

Atomoxetine’s effect on HR and BP

A

Increases

308
Q

Atomoxetine increases HR and BP through what mechanism?

A

decreasing the reuptake of norepinephrine

309
Q

Guanfacine ER can cause AV block, bradycardia, hypotension, orthostasis, sinus node dysfunction, and syncope. Dose dependent?

A

YES

310
Q

Guanfacine ER can cause AV block, bradycardia, hypotension, orthostasis, sinus node dysfunction, and syncope. When are the side effects most common?

A

The first few weeks of treatment

311
Q

What is chronotherapy?

A

used in people with circadian rhythm sleep disorders. It involves intentionally delaying going to sleep by two to three hours on successive days until you are able to fall asleep at the desired bedtime. This can be difficult to do at home and is sometimes done in a hospital setting. After this, you must strictly enforce this sleep-wake schedule.

312
Q

Which form of child maltreatment confers the highest risk of the child eventually attempting suicide?

A

Sexual abuse confers the highest risk of a poor outcome for the child. The risk of SA is nearly 10x higher for sexually abused children compared to other types of abuse.

313
Q

The risk of SA is nearly ?x higher for sexually abused children compared to other types of abuse.

A

10x

Abuse by closer relatives also tends to carry a poorer prognosis.

314
Q

The cerebral hemisphere originate from which of the following developmental divisions of the CNS?

A

Telencephalon

315
Q

The 6 secondary divisions occur around what week of gestation?

A

5th

316
Q

According to Mahler, during what age range does hatching occur?

A

5-9 months

317
Q

Increased rates of persistent pulmonary HTN have been associated with SSRI use at which stage of pregnancy?

A

Late in pregnancy. The absolute risk was found to be low.

318
Q

What IPT focus area is focused on conflict in significant relationships?

A

Role dispute

319
Q

The study sample is most representative of the overall population when what time of sampling is used?

A

Random sampling

320
Q

samples may allow estimations of what in resulting statistics?

A

Error

321
Q

The “threshold of responsiveness” is a temperamental dimension according to Chess and Thomas - what does it mean?

A

Indicates the degree of environmental change that must occur to elicit a response from the child.

322
Q

A child is able to sleep with a TV on, in any position in bed, and at a wide range of temperatures. According to Chess and Thomas what is this referring to?

A

A high “threshold of responsiveness”

323
Q

16M w new-onset paranoid schizophrenia. What is the most characteristic primitive defense mechanism in psychosis?

A

Projection: attributing undesirable thoughts and feelings to others to avoid facing them or to reduce anxiety around them. In psychosis, individuals may attribute their own thoughts to hallucinations and perceive the hallucinations to be something separate from them, thus making this a form of projection.

324
Q

The most frequently studied genes implicated in the development of substance use disorders, including alcohol use disorder, encode which substances? (2)

A

1) alcohol dehydrogenase

2) aldehyde dehydrogenase

325
Q

Alcohol dehydrogenase metabolizes what?

A

ETHANOL TO ACETALDEHYDE

326
Q

Aldehyde dehydrogenase metabolizes what?

A

Acetaldehyde to acetate

327
Q

Alcohol dehydrogenase and aldehyde dehydrogenase are the most frequently studied genes implicated in the development of substance use disorders. This work has confirmed the role of these genes in what pathway?

A

Dopamine pathway

328
Q

What converst L-DOPA to dopamine?

A

DOPA decarboxylase

329
Q

Gain-of-function polymorphisms of the SLC6A4 promoter have been linked to what disorder?

A

OCD

also alcohol consumption

330
Q

What is the rate limiting step in serotonin synthesis?

A

Tryptophan hydroxylase

331
Q

Bx that serves a purpose for the individual and is ongoing

A

Functional bx

332
Q

The MOA for the addictive component of cannabis?

A

Releases dopamine in the mesolimbic system

333
Q

Cannabis triggers the release of dopamine in what system which causes addiction?

A

The mesolimbic

334
Q

What is the MOA of cannabis?

A

Activation of endogenous cannabinoid receptors in the brain.

335
Q

What substances are partial 5HT receptor agonists?

A

LSD and other hallucinogens

336
Q

4M is noted by his parents to have lost his ability to speak. He was previously healthy and had average language skills for his age. An EEG revealed electrographic seizures, but he has not been noted to have seizures clinically. Dx?

A

Landau-Kleffner syndrome: infantile acquired aphasia, acquired epileptic ahasia, or aphasia with convulsive d/o.

337
Q

Landau-Kleffner syndrome: 4M is noted by his parents to have lost his ability to speak. He was previously healthy and had average language skills for his age. An EEG revealed electrographic seizures, but he has not been noted to have seizures clinically. Age range of children affected?

A

3-7 years

338
Q

Landau-Kleffner syndrome: 4M is noted by his parents to have lost his ability to speak. He was previously healthy and had average language skills for his age. An EEG revealed electrographic seizures, but he has not been noted to have seizures clinically. Affects what areas of the brain?

A

Broca’s and Wernicke’s

339
Q

Landau-Kleffner syndrome: 4M is noted by his parents to have lost his ability to speak. He was previously healthy and had average language skills for his age. An EEG revealed electrographic seizures, but he has not been noted to have seizures clinically. Can be difficult to dx and misdx’d as what?

A

Autism.

340
Q

Skipping is first seen at what age?

A

5 y/o

341
Q

Being able to draw a circle - age?

A

3 y/o

342
Q

Correctly naming 4 colors - age?

A

5 y/o

343
Q

MR spectroscopy is used to evaluate which parameter?

A

Biochemical concentrations of brain metabolites.

Several different metabolites can be measured to differentiate between tumor types, including amino acids, lipids, lactate, alanine, N-acetyl aspartate…

344
Q

MR spectroscopy is used to determine the biochemical concentrations of brain metabolites. It is commonly used to evaluate what?

A

Brain tumors

345
Q

Persistent depressive disorder: depressed or irritable mood + 2 of the following: (6)

A

1) poor appetite or overeating
2) insomnia or hypersomnia
3) low energy or fatigue
4) low self-esteem
5) poor concentration or difficulty making decisions
6) feelings of helplessness

346
Q

Persistent depressive disorder: depressed or irritable mood + 2 mood sxs for how long?

A

At least 1 year

347
Q

Test that reveals underlying motives, concerns, and social worldview through the stories a patient makes up about ambiguous pictures of people

A

Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) - projective psychological test

348
Q

Test that measures a person’s emotional functioning

A

Rorschach test (“inkblot”)

349
Q

Tests cognitive ability and intelligence

A

Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale

350
Q

What percent of offspring are affected when one parent has a h/o prolonged noctural enuresis?

A

50%

351
Q

What percent of offspring are affected when both parent have a h/o prolonged noctural enuresis?

A

75%

352
Q

Electrolytes in laxative abuse - sodium?

A

Increased or normal

353
Q

Electrolytes in laxative abuse - K+?

A

Decreased

354
Q

Electrolytes in laxative abuse - Cl-?

A

Increased or decreased

355
Q

Electrolytes in vomiting - sodium?

A

Increased, decreased, or normal

356
Q

Electrolytes in vomiting - K+?

A

decreased

357
Q

Electrolytes in vomiting - CL-?

A

Decreased

358
Q

Electrolytes in vomiting - bicarbonate?

A

Increased

359
Q

pH in vomiting?

A

Increased

360
Q

pH when using diuretics?

A

Increased

361
Q

Sodium when using diuretics?

A

Decreased or normal

362
Q

K+ when using diuretics?

A

Decreased

363
Q

Chloride when using diuretics?

A

Decreased

364
Q

Bicarbonate when using diuretics?

A

Increased

365
Q

What percentage of preschoolers with poor peer relationships and inadequate problem-solving patterns predictive of impulsive aggression have a h/o physical abuse?

A

20-25%

Planned aggression starts approx 2 years later and is driven by aggressive role models and a positive valence of aggression rather than the physical abuse.

366
Q

A family complains that their 15 y/o daughter refuses to listen when they ask her to do her homework. During a family therapy session, the therapist asks the parents to pretend to ask their daughter to do her work and for the daughter to pretend to refuse. What technique is being used here?

A

Paradoxical intervention. The idea is that patients can sometimes believe that such conflicts are out of their control. Having the patients purposely create the situation is voluntary and brings the sx on in a controlled way. This can help patients work through the sx during the sessions and also perhaps come to see it as under voluntary control.

367
Q

A child can walk backwards. This milestone is scheived by 50-90% of children by which age?

A

16-18 months

368
Q

Mahler’s separation-individuation is subdivided into 3 phases - what are they?

A

1) hatching
2) practicing
3) rapproachement

369
Q

What are the comparative rate of youth incarceration for children raised in intact families as compared to stepmother families?

A

1:4

370
Q

Prenatal exposure to what influences human sexual orientation?

A

Androgenic hormones

371
Q

In exposure with response prevention, immediately following an exposure, what response is being prevented?

A

Compulsive bxs.

372
Q

What does response prevention mean?

A

Refraining from compulsions, avoidance, or escape bxs.

The response most commonly prevented is a compulsion that acutely reduces anxiety but perpetuates the disorder by making the sufferer believe that the compulsion is needed to reduce anxiety or some feared consequence of not performing the compulsion by addressing the anxiety or anxious thoughts.

373
Q

What form of therapy specifically states that the goal of the therapist is to initiate what happens during therapy and take direct responsibility for influencing people?

A

Strategic family therapy

374
Q

A specific form of brief psychotherapy that focuses on providing solutions to practical problems, such as conduct problems and drug use.

A

Strategic family therapy

375
Q

This type of therapy was founded by Jay Haley and encourages the therapist to take an active role, initiate what will occur during therapy, and take direct responsibility for influencing people.

A

Strategic family therapy

376
Q

A 4 y/o child presents with diffuse weakness, cerebellar ataxia, partial ophthalmoplegia. Vitamin deficiency?

A

Vit E.

377
Q

What is the only common vitamin that causes spinocerebellar degeneration? Patients may have myelopathy w posterior column lesions, a positive Babinski sign, and loss of vibration and joint position sense.

A

Vit E.

378
Q

It takes approx 15-20 years for adults to deplete vit Ed stores, but only 2-3 years for this to occur in children. Deficiency states may be seen in what type of disorders?

A

Fat malabsorption

Ex: Bassen-kornzweig syndrome, Ataxia with isolated vit E deficiency (AVED)

379
Q

Babies with this vitamin deficiency may have increased intracranial pressure with lethargy, night blindness, and “bitot spots” (white foamy lesions) on the conjunctiva.

A

Vit A

380
Q

Children with this vit deficiency develop irritability, an exaggerated startle response, and seizures refractory to conventional anticonvulsants. They develop normally one the deficiency is treated.

A

B6 (pyridoxine)

381
Q

Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) may be dietary, congenital, or drug-induced - what three medications?

A

1) isoniazid
2) hydralazine
3) penicillamine

382
Q

This vitamin deficiency manifests as proximal weakness, which may include neck muscles. Patients may have waddling gait. EMG demonstrates short-duration, low-amplitutde, polyphasic motor unit potentials w/o spontaneous activities.

A

Vit D

383
Q

Vit D deficiency made result from?

A

1) hyperparathyroidism
2) hypophosphatemia
3) chronic renal failure
4) use of certain anticonvulsants
5) malabsorption
6) low dietary intake
7) lack of sun exposure

384
Q

Lab tests reveal elevated alkaline phosphatase level and a compensatory increase in parathyroid hormone. Vit deficiency?

A

Vit D

385
Q

Vitamin deficiency: diarrhea, dermatitis, and dementia. Patient may also exhibit spasticity, positive Babinski, gegenhalten, and startle myoclonus. Results from corn as the sole carbohydrate source.

A

Pellagra: nicotinic acid (niacin) deficiency

386
Q

This vit deficiency may also be associated with alcohol abuse and is suspected when tx with thiamine does not improve cognition.

A

Pellagra: nicotinic acid (niacin) deficiency

387
Q

What has been shown in one well-designed study to lower the risk of progressing from prodromal psychotic sxs to full blown schizophrenia.

A

Omega-3 fatty acids

388
Q

An examiner is playing toys with a child and hides the toy. The child begins to look for the toy. Stage?

A

Sensorimotor.

One of the main accomplishments of this stage was achieving object permanence.

389
Q

Around what age does object permanence occur?

A

8 months (sensorimotor stage)

390
Q

In a stuporous state, the patient would arouse to response purposefully to what?

A

Vigorous external stimulation

391
Q

Locked-in syndrome occurs when a focal injury occurs where? A conscious patient is unable to move muscles, but can voluntarily blink and make vertical eye movements.

A

To the base of the pons.

392
Q

In this state the patient has normal sleep-wake cycles and is arousable but has no awareness or apparent cognitive function. It may occur as a transition between coma and recovery, or between coma and brain death or death.

A

Persistent vegetative state

393
Q

This occurs when the patient is able to follow with his/her eyes but does not initiate other movements or obey commands

A

Akinetic mutism

394
Q

A child is able to run but falls occasionally. This milestone is achieved by 50-90% of children by what age?

A

18 months

395
Q

What percentage of children with oppositional defiant disorder will develop conduct disorder?

A

30%

396
Q

A lesion of which structure will result in prosopagnosia?

A

Fusiform gyrus: right and/or left, is associated with face recognition.

The “fusiform face area” is located on the ventral stream on the ventral surface of the temporal lobe, on the lateral side of the fusiform gyrus.

397
Q

Destruction to the inferior parietal lobule of the dominant hemisphere results in what syndrome?

A

Gerstmann’s syndrome: right-t0-left confusion, finger agnosia, dysgraphia and dyslexia, dyscalculia, contralateral hemianopia, or lower quadrantanopia.

398
Q

Rudimentary gender identity is usually formed around what age?

A

3

399
Q

Medication approved for ODD?

A

There is no FDA-approved medication for ODD.

400
Q

In young children (prior to adolescence), is ODD more prevalent in males or females?

A

Males (1.4:1)

401
Q

In adolescents, is ODD more prevalent in males or females?

A

Same

402
Q

A pediatric patient is scheduled for follow up care, but has a large outstanding bill. What do you do?

A

Administer care as needed.

must given reasonable written notice to allow the location of an alternative source of care

403
Q

Fetal alcohol syndrome occurs at a rate of what % per live birth?

A

1%

404
Q

CNS abnormalities in FAS?

A

1) abnl brain size and shape
2) smaller cerebellar and ventricular size
3) agenesis of the corpus callosum

405
Q

A broad type of sleep disorders involving difficulty falling or remaining asleep, which can lead to excessive sleepiness during the day due to the reduced quantity, quality or timing of sleep.

A

Dyssomnia

406
Q

Sleepwalking disorder is what type of disorder?

A

Parasomnia

407
Q

Sleep-wake disorders include what 10 disorders?

A

1) insomnia
2) hypersomnolence
3) narcolepsy
4) breathing-related sleep
5) circadian rhythm
6) non-REM sleep arousal
7) REM sleep bx
8) restless legs
9) nightmare
10) substance/medication induced

408
Q

ODD comorbidity with ADHD - what percent?

A

50%

409
Q

ODD - do most kids with ODD have insight that their bx is problematic?

A

No

410
Q

9F who is otherwise healthy, is crying after skinning her knee on the playground. She then has sudden onset right-sided face, arm, hand, and leg weakness and numbness, which resolves over the following 25 minutes. Angiogram = stenosis of the supraglenoid ICA and MCA with the development of collateral circulation. Dx?

A

Moyamoya disease: consists of progressive non-atherosclerotic b/l stenoses of the distal internal carotid arteries and trunks of the anterior and middle cerebral arteries.

Collaterals develop at the base of the brain w a characteristic “puff of smoke” appearance on angiography.

411
Q

This disease is most common in Japanese girls and may have autosomal recessive inheritance. Collaterals develop at the base of the brain w a characteristic “puff of smoke” appearance on angiography. Dx?

A

Moyamoya disease: consists of progressive non-atherosclerotic b/l stenoses of the distal internal carotid arteries and trunks of the anterior and middle cerebral arteries.

9F who is otherwise healthy, is crying after skinning her knee on the playground. She then has sudden onset right-sided face, arm, hand, and leg weakness and numbness, which resolves over the following 25 minutes.

412
Q

17 minor who has enlisted in the Army arrives at the ED in police custody. He is suspected of ingesting ilicit medications to avoid arrest. The police request a NG aspirate for evidence, the patient refuses. What do you do?

A

Honor the patient’s wishes and do not proceed with care. The patient is likely emancipated from his parents since he joined the army. He is therefore authorized to consent to medical care.

413
Q

Individuals with ASD have weak central coherence - what does this mean?

A

Poorly integrate information into meaningful wholes

414
Q

Individuals with ASD typically have deficits in the theory of mind tasks - true or false?

A

True

415
Q

MRI brain of a patient with ASD shows? (2)

A

1) larger brains

2) aberrations in white matter tract development

416
Q

Rates of EEG abnormalities and seizures in patients with ASD?

A

20-25%

417
Q

13F w anxiety. She has a h/o seizures since age 2. She is overly friendly and overly excitable. She has poor language skills and was dx’d w moderate ID? What genetic marker is responsible for this condition?

A

15q11-13 maternal deletion. Angelman syndrome. “Happy puppet syndrome.”

418
Q

The firing of dopamine-releasing neurons, with cell bodies in the ? and axon terminals in the nucleus accumbens, marks the importance or salience of a reward and signals that a rewarding event is about to occur.

A

VTA

419
Q

The firing of dopamine-releasing neurons, with cell bodies in the VTA and axon terminals in the ?, marks the importance or salience of a reward and signals that a rewarding event is about to occur.

A

nucleus accumbens

420
Q

Endogenous opiod neuropeptides are controlling links of the ? and ?.

A

1) Nucleus accumbens

2) Amygdala

421
Q

A psychiatrist is designing a study comparing the reflexes of subjects before and after they are exposed to dextroamphetamine. The subjects will be asked to tap a screen when a shape appears on the screen, and their reaction time will be recorded. What statistical test will provide the best comparison of the results?

A

Paired t-test. Best for comparing whether the averages of 2 groups of data are statistically different from each other, specifically when the data are linked together in some way (ex: comparing tx effects in the same group of people before and after exposure to a drug).

In this case, the effects are measured from the same people, so the data are considered linked together.

422
Q

Statistical measure of how close a series of data comes to a calculated regression line. It tells how well data fit along a straight line or curve and is often used for dose-response studies.

A

R^2

423
Q

R^2 is a statistical measure of how close a series of data comes to a calculated regression line. It tells how well data fit along a straight line or curve and is often used for what type of studies.

A

dose-response

424
Q

Statistical method used to compare the means of multiple sets of data at once and determine whether they are likely to be different due to chance. This would be useful when comparing the means of multiple groups exposed to multiple different doses.

A

ANOVA

425
Q

This statistical test is best used for comparing categorical variables - this is usually something like a yes/no question, such as whether a subject is depressed or not.

A

Chi-squared test

426
Q

Infantile anorexia interferes with which important developmental event?

A

Somatopsychological differentiation: the ability to differentiate sensations in the body.

427
Q

This disorder usually occurs between 6 months and 3 years and can vary between meals and feedrs. The infant’s feeding is directed by his/her emotional needs instead of physiological sensations of hunger and satiety. He/she fails to develop somatopsychological differentiation, which is the ability to differentiate sensations in the body.

A

Infantile anorexia

428
Q

Has a pincer grasp - age?

A

9 months

429
Q

Put hands together, has a social smile, recognizes parents, laughs - age?

A

3 months

430
Q

Rolls from tummy to back - age?

A

4 months

431
Q

Sits unsupported, rolls in both directions, begins to crawl, reaches and passes objects from one hand to another, babbles with strings of vowel and consonant sounds - age?

A

6 months

432
Q

May develop stranger anxiety, stands unassisted, has pincer grasp - age?

A

9 months

433
Q

walks, says “mama” and “dada” -age?

A

12 months

434
Q

Runs, stacks 2 cubes, removes clothing, has a 6-word vocabulary - age?

A

15 months

435
Q

The most effective tx for bullimia overall is what?

A

CBT

436
Q

What medication is FDA-approved for bullimia?

A

Fluoxetine (an SSRI alone is not conisdered adequate tx for bullimia - need CBT)

437
Q

For MI, what does OARS stand for?

A

Open-ended questions
Affirmations
Reflective listening
Summaries

438
Q

The neurotransmitter produced in the tuberomammillary nucleus is responsible for what systemic reaction?

A

Itching - histamine!

439
Q

Sweating is mediated by what receptors?

A

Muscarinic Ach receptors (Ach is produced in the nucleus basalis of Meynert).

440
Q

Where is Ach produced?

A

Nucleus basalis of Meynert

441
Q

Bradycardia is mediated by what receptors?

A

Muscarinic Ach receptors (Ach is produced in the nucleus basalis of Meynert).

442
Q

Nausea is mediated by what neurotransmitter?

A

Serotonin, which is produced in the raphe nuclei

443
Q

Where is serotonin produced?

A

Raphe nuclei

444
Q

Arterial vasoconstriction is mediated by what neurotransmitter?

A

Norepinephrine, which is produced in the locus coeruleus

445
Q

Where is norepinephrine produced?

A

Locus coeruleus

446
Q

What factors are most predictive of an ultimate outcome in children with autism? (2)

A

1) Presence of speech by age 5

2) Severity of ID

447
Q

A child is referred for seizures, ID, developmental delay, and behavioral problems. + Fhx. If the patient’s skin was examined under a Wood’s lamp, which classic finding may be revealed?

A

Hypopigmented macules (ash leaf spots)

Up to 95% of patients with tuberous sclerosis complex have one of the following lesions: hypopigmented macules, angiofibroma, Shagreen patches, or brown fibrous plaque on forehead.

448
Q

A child is referred for seizures, ID, developmental delay, and behavioral problems. + Fhx. One of the following lesions: one of the following lesions: hypopigmented macules, angiofibroma, Shagreen patches, or brown fibrous plaque on forehead. Dx?

A

Tuberous sclerosis

449
Q

Most evidence-based therapies for adolescent substance use disorder? (2)

A

Family-based therapy

Motivational enhancement therapy/brief intervention

450
Q

A child presents for evaluation and is speaking in full sentences with mostly clear pronunciation. The parents report that the child has been riding his tricycle and feeding himself. The child is able to put his shoes on independently, using 10 blocks to build a tower, and copy a circle. The child alternates footsteps up and down the stairs and hops off the last step. Age?

A

36 months

451
Q

Child is learning to stand independently, can begin dressing, and may also be able to use single words - age?

A

12 months

452
Q

Child is walking more independently but still occasionally falls and can build towers 3 blocks high. The child is able to understand basic commands. Age?

A

18 months

453
Q

Child has begun to run and can kick a ball. These children are learning to go up and down stairs independently. Towers composed of about 7 blocks can bow be built. There is also the “no” phase. Children at this age can start pulling on a shirt or pulling up pants. Age?

A

2 y/o

454
Q

Child is able to skip, draw a person, completely dress and undress, and speak with nearly full fluency. Age?

A

5 year old

455
Q

EPS occurs in what percent of pediatric patients on first-generation antipsychotics?

A

75%

456
Q

What is the opposite of enmeshment?

A

Disengagement

457
Q

In structural family therapy, the therapist goes through 3 techniques - joining, diagnosing, and restructuring. What occurs during restructuring?

A

The therapist attempts to promote new patterns within the family that will help it to be more flexible and functional.

Therapist promotes growth and encouragement in individuals for the building of family support.

458
Q

Individuals w ASD have decreased formation of what type of cells in the cerebellum?

A

Purkinje cells

459
Q

Individuals w ASD have decreased formation of Purkinje cells in what part of the brain?

A

Cerebellum

460
Q

Brain size in patients with ASD?

A

Increased overall brain size

461
Q

Patients with ASD experience accelerated growth of what during infancy?

A

the head

462
Q

Abnormalities in the synthesis of what neurotransmitter is seen in patients with ASD?

A

Serotonin

463
Q

According to Chess and Thomas - what are the three types of children?

A

Difficult, easy, slow-to-warm up

464
Q

What bx most commonly precedes an adolescent SA?

A

Confessing suicidal thoughts to friends

465
Q

is there research to indicate that inpatient hospitalization reduces suicidality?

A

No

466
Q

The increase of SSRI rxs correlated with a significant increase or decrease in completed suicides in teens?

A

Decreased

467
Q

Most individuals with the DSM dx of “profound ID” have what feature?

A

Most people have an identified neurological condition that accounts for their ID

468
Q

Which influential child therapist stressed that child development was a continuous cumulative process rather than defined stages, initiating the concept of “developmental lines” ?

A
Anna Freud
(interaction between internal and environmental influences)
469
Q

This theorist postulated that there are several developmental lines that a child moves along (development between infant and mother, infant and his/her own body).

A

Anna Freud

470
Q

How often does the FDA recommend following up with a youth started on an antidepressant?

A

Every week for the first month and then every other week thereafter

471
Q

When ending with a patient, written notice should be given, preferably by certified mail, with a brief explanation for termination of the relationship and an agreement to continue to provide tx and access to services for a reasonable length of time - how much time?

A

30 days

472
Q

What percentage of patients with ID fit the DSM dx for severe ID?

A

3-4%

473
Q

What is the most common psychiatric dx in children?

A

ADHD

474
Q

Prevalence of ADHD dx?

A

9.4% of children ages 2-17

475
Q

What is the leading inherited cause of ID?

A

Fragile X

476
Q

What structure is responsible for temperature control?

A

Hypothalamus

477
Q

What structure is responsible for the physiologic regulation of much of the body - sleep, hydration, and temp.

A

Hypothalamus

478
Q

What structure in the body controls arousal, sleep-wake cycles, respiration, swallowing… communication been different parts of the brain. Locked in syndrome!

A

Pons

479
Q

Eyes in opioid intoxication?

A

Miosis

480
Q

Eyes in opioid w/d?

A

Mydriasis

481
Q

Standards that apply to > 95% of the time and are based on rigorous empirical evidence and/or overwhelming clinical consensus

A

Minimal standards

482
Q

What terms means “apply up to 75% of the time and should usually be considered, but there are significant exceptions to their universal application”

A

Clinical guidelines

483
Q

What establishes a recommendation of “options”?

A

They are acceptable but not required and may have insufficient empirical evidence

484
Q

Why should atypical neuroleptics (antipsychotics) be tapered slowly? (2)

A

1) allow for adjustment to lowered dose

2) prevent w/d akathsia

485
Q

When does akathisia typically present?

A

After a few weeks of tx

486
Q

When does dystonia typically present?

A

Within the first few days of tx

487
Q

when does TD typically present?

A

After years of tx

488
Q

A young child presents with a dramatic increase in aggression and seems confused. He eventually has a seizure. Imaging shows diffuse changes in one of the temporal lobes. Cause?

A

Herpes encephalitis

HIV tends to be more non-specific and Tuberous sclerosis would usually show district lesions

489
Q

Sleep terror disorder usually begins in children in what age range?

A

4-12 years

490
Q

How old must you be to be dx’d with ASPD

A

18 years old

491
Q

14M has intense expressions of emotion and chronic feelings of emptiness and anger towards himself for being “a loser” with no purpose in life. The therapist notes that during sessions, she tends to become angry with the patient and even criticize him for his inability to set goals. Which process is occurring?

A

Projective identification. When a patient projects unwanted or intolerable aspects of himself/herself onto another person, and when he/she induces the other person to take on those characteristics and play the role the patient has assigned to him/her.

In this case, the child has projected feelings of “being a loser” onto the therapist and managed to have her play the role of a critic.

492
Q

This type of therapy is designed to address practical problems that children and adolescents face. It could be used to reduce conduct problems, ODD issues, drug use, or other issues that need more immediate help.

A

Brief strategic family therapy

493
Q

What disorder is most commonly seen with body dysmorphic disorder?

A

MDD

social phobia and OCD are often seen with BDD, but MDD is most common

494
Q

Approx 65% of patients with GAD have a comorbid psychiatric disorder. What is the most common?

A

MDD

495
Q

What percent of patients with OCD also have a comorbid anxiety disorder?

A

75%

496
Q

What percent of patients with OCD also have a mood disorder?

A

60% (with MDD being the most common)

497
Q

What percent of patients with OCD also have OCPD?

A

20-30%

498
Q

At what age is the first comprehensive eye exam recommended?

A

6 months (between 6 months and 5 years) (infants can accommodate fully and visual acuity is nearly that of an adult.

499
Q

What is the approx ratio of boys to girls in pediatric OCD?

A

3:2. Boys are approx 50% more likely to be dx’d with OCD than girls and are likely to be dx’d earlier.

500
Q

age? 2 word sentences, 50 word vocab, follows 2 step commands, 50% intelligible

A

2

501
Q

Age? three word sentences, says name and gender. 75% intelligible

A

3

502
Q

Age? Names colors, understands adjectives, adult like grammar. 100% intelligible

A

4

503
Q

Age? Counts, understands opposites, talks about past, present, and imaginary events. 100% intelligible

A

5

504
Q

Medications approved for bipolar depression in youth?

A

Seroquel Er
Latuda
Olanzapine/fluoxetine

505
Q

12M w schizophrenia, unusual looking face and has been noted to have episodes of hypocalcemia. He sees a cardiologist for hear defects. Which chr. was likely affected?

A

22q11.2 deletion syndrome //velocardiofacial syndrome // DiGeorge syndrome (CATCH 22)
Cardiac abnormalities, abnl face, thymic aplasia, cleft palate, hypocalcemia, hypothyroidism

506
Q

Patients with 22q11.2 deletion syndrome //velocardiofacial syndrome // DiGeorge syndrome have a ?x increased chance of developing schizophrenia.

A

20x

507
Q

PTSD has been associated with alterations in the size of what?

A

hippocampus (reduced size). Although it is not clear if it is from the trauma or pre-dates the trauma

508
Q

Children with behavioral inhibition are most likely to develop what disorder?

A

Social anxiety disorder.

509
Q

What is one of the largest risk factors for developing social anxiety disorder?

A

Behavioral inhibition

510
Q

Compared to adults, weight gain in kids from second generation antipsychotics typically…

A

is greater

511
Q

Fully structured diagnostic instrument that assesses 34 common psychiatric diagnoses of children and adolescents. It cannot be used to establish a dx for conditions that require the interpretation of specialized test results or substitute for information derived from astute clinical observations. For these reasons, it does not cover diagnoses such as pervasive developmental disorders, speech and language disorders, or the organic brain syndromes.

A

Diagnostic Interview Schedule for Children (DISC)

512
Q

Consider alt therapy with QTC is > ?

A

460 msec

513
Q

The Individuals with Disabilities education Act (IDEA) gives what guidelines about the content of an IEP?

A

It gives guidelines about what topics must be addressed but does not guide the approach to writing it.

514
Q

Mom doubled the DDAVP dose (for bed wetting). The kid has AMS, dizziness, and abdominal pain. What is he at risk for?

A

Water intoxication and hyponatremia.

Can also present with vomiting and depressed reflexes, hallucinations and seizures

515
Q

What case held that a parent or a guardian can commit a minor to a mental institution if a staff physician certifies the minor should be committed?

A

Parham v JR

516
Q

A child is placed in restraints on the inpatient unit after becoming very aggressive. How often must vitals be monitored?

A

Q15 minutes

517
Q

A child is undergoing therapy for self-injurious bx. The parents scolding the child when the self-injurious bx occurs and the undesirable bx decreases. In this scenario, scolding functions as which type of operant conditioning?

A

positive punishment (the addition of an undesirable stimulus to reduce a specific bx).

518
Q

Removal of an undesirable stimulus to increase a specific bx

A

negative reinforcement

519
Q

Removal of a desirable stimulus to decrease a specific bx

A

negative punishment

520
Q

Addition of a desirable stimulus to increase a specific bx

A

Positive reinforcement

521
Q

Punishment =

A

Reduce a specific bx

522
Q

Reinforcement =

A

Increase a specific bx

523
Q

During what stage of sleep do NMs occur?

A

REM (final 3rd of the night/early morning horus)

524
Q

Sleep terrors occur during what stage of sleep?

A

non-REM (first 3rd of the night). The child is usually not responsive and does not generally remember the episode later.

525
Q

Initial side effects of bupropion?

A

headaches, dizziness, dry mouth, anxiety, restlessness, anorexia, nausea, and insomnia

526
Q

Patients with conduct disorder may exhibit polymorphism in what gene?

A

MAO-A

527
Q

Patients with conduct disorder may exhibit what physiologic differences compared to the general population? (3)

A

1) lower resting heart rates
2) low skin conductance (electrical)
3) Increased testosterone

528
Q

Damage to the ventrolateral preoptic nucleus (VLPO or VLPN) may cause what?

A

Disturbed sleep-wake cycles

529
Q

Where is the ventrolateral preoptic nucleus (VLPO or VLPN) located?

A

Hypothalamus.

Damage = disruption to sleep-wake cycle

530
Q

TCA overdose - EKG shows?

A

QRS widening

531
Q

Ingestion of grapefruit juice increases clomipramine concentrationthrough inhibition of CYP?

A

3A4

532
Q

the half life of clomipramine is?

A

32 hours, but may increase at higher doses

533
Q

Clomipramine is FDA-approved for the tx of what in kids 10+

A

OCD

534
Q

Clomipramine is FDA-approved for the tx of OCD in what age group?

A

10 years +

535
Q

Serious side effects of clomipramine include? (7)

A

Seizures, arrhythmia, syncope, QTC and QRS prolongation, sudden death, hematological issues (neutropenia, agranulocytosis, thrombocytopenia) and jaundice

536
Q

A 14 month old child cries for 1 hour but is consoled when his mother picks him up from his crib. Which basic conflict describes this child?

A

trust v mistrust (birth to 18 months)

537
Q

What medication is occasionally used with severe/nightly sleepwalking for a few months?

A

Benzos

538
Q

At what age are most infants able to turn toward the sound of a voice?

A

3-4 months (hearing is the most sensitive of all senses at birth, depends on increasing neck strength)

539
Q

When is homeostatic sleep drive at its lowest?

A

When a person wakes up in the morning. It increases throughout the day and lessens once a person is asleep. Circadian sleep drive then takes over for the second half of the night.

540
Q

First degree relatives of a patient with ASPD have a ?x higher risk of being dx’d with ASPD.

A

5x

541
Q

Prevalence of ASPD is about ?% in males and ?% in females?

A

3% in males and 1% in females

542
Q

What percent of children with ADHD develop chronic tic disorder?

A

20%

543
Q

What percent of kids dx’d with chronic tics or Tourette’s syndrome have comorbid ADHD?

A

50%

544
Q

Desmopressin (DDAVP) results in what 2 things re: urine?

A

Decreased urine outpt and increased urine osmolality

545
Q

Desmopressin (DDAVP) - side effects?

A

headaches, nausea, flusing, and mild abd cramps

546
Q

Desmopressin (DDAVP) increases factor ? and what else?

A

Factor VIII and plasominogen activator in the blood.

547
Q

Desmopressin (DDAVP) - results in a ?% decrease in wet nights?

A

30-60%

548
Q

Desmopressin (DDAVP) - oral dosing may be titrated as tolerated to how many mg at bedtime?

A

0.6 mg

549
Q

16M involved in a MVA and sustained head trauma. He is now exhibiting a range of behavioral changes, and the psychiatrist is concerned about his executive functioning. What neuropsychological test would be most appropriate for his assessment?

A

Wisconsin Card-Sorting Test

(incorrect = WISC measures intelligence and is often used when there is a discrepancy between a child’s intelligence vs performance at school)

550
Q

A child can jump but cannot yet balance on one foot. About 50% of the child’s speech is understandable. The child can stack 6 blocks on top of each other. Age?

A

24 months

551
Q

Gender identity usually begins to form by which age?

A

3

552
Q

What term reflects the degree of control an individual exerts over the parts of bx that are driven by emotion?

A

Constraint

553
Q

Kagan and colleagues have identified 2 distinct temperments in infants - what are they?

A

inhibited and uninhibited

554
Q

What disorder most commonly occurs in patients with ASD?

A

Anxiety disorders and may have comorbid OCD.

555
Q

When is social communication disorder dx’d?

A

If no restricted or repetitive bx patterns are present but other criteria for ASD are met.

556
Q

What brain area has a smaller volume in patients with ADHD compared to controls?

A

Frontal lobe. In general, the total cerebral volume is smaller in individuals with ADHD than in controls.

557
Q

The risk of major depression for 1st degree relatives of major depression probands who suffered an early age of onset and recurrent episode is more than ?x higher than the risk for relatives of probands who suffered a later onset, single episode.

A

5x

558
Q

Individuals with panic disorder show increased sensitivity to the anxiogenic effects of substances like? (3)

A

1) carbon dioxide
2) cholecystokinin
3) lactate

559
Q

What infection is linked to PANDAS?

A

group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infections

560
Q

Total sleep deprivation and REM sleep deprivation has been shown to lead to a substantial reduction of sxs in patients suffering from what?

A

Depression

561
Q

By what age are most children able to hop on one foot?

A

4 years old

562
Q

What are the most effective behavioral regiments for insomnia? (3)

A

1) stimulus control
2) sleep restriction
3) multi-component cognitive-behavioral interventions

563
Q

What attributes of violent media when watched as a child can contribute to alter violence and aggression in young adulthood? (2)

A

1) How realistic the violence

2) Identification with the aggressive character

564
Q

If a young child does all of her chores for a week, she is rewarded with a weekly allowance of $10. What kind of operant conditioning schedule are her parents using?

A

Fixed interval. Provides reinforcement for a response that occurs after a set amount of time. The child is reinforced at a fixed weekly schedule as long as the bx occurs.

565
Q

This type of schedule provides reinforcement every “n”th response.

A

Fixed ratio

566
Q

This type of schedule provides reinforcement at a varying response rate.

A

Variable ratio

567
Q

This type of schedule provides reinforcement for responses that occur after varying amts of time.

A

Variable interval

568
Q

The visual acuity of a child reaches the adult level of 20/20 by what age?

A

3-5

569
Q

Myelination of the optic nerves and the development of the visual cortex occur over what time period in kids?

A

Over the first two years

570
Q

When does myelination begin?

A

Around 28 weeks gestation

571
Q

Parietal and temporal lobes experience a growth spurt from what age range?

A

6-13. This growth spurt may correspond with a critical period of language development.

572
Q

What technique is used in IPT to get a sense for what is going on?

A

An illness (depression) timeline reflecting major mood changes and significant interpersonal events.

573
Q

MOA for PCP?

A

NMDA receptor antagonist.

574
Q

PCP use in children - sxs?

A

Nystagmus, blank staring, strange bx, AMS, agitation, choreoathetosis, seizures, and acute psychosis

575
Q

According to Piaget, conservation is achieved during what stage?

A

Concrete operational

576
Q

According to Piaget, egocentrism and centering are part of what stage?

A

Preoperational

577
Q

According to Piaget, logical and concrete reasoning occurs during what stage?

A

Concrete operational

578
Q

According to Piaget, primary/secondary/tertiary circular reasoning occurs during what stage?

A

Sensorimotor

579
Q

According to Piaget, primary circular reasoning occurs during the sensorimotor stage. What is this?

A

Primary Circular Reactions (1-4 months): This substage involves coordinating sensation and new schemas. For example, a child may suck his or her thumb by accident and then later intentionally repeat the action. These actions are repeated because the infant finds them pleasurable.

580
Q

According to Piaget, secondary circular reasoning occurs during the sensorimotor stage. What is this?

A

Secondary Circular Reactions (4-8 months): During this substage, the child becomes more focused on the world and begins to intentionally repeat an action in order to trigger a response in the environment. For example, a child will purposefully pick up a toy in order to put it in his or her mouth.

581
Q

According to Piaget, tertiary circular reasoning occurs during the sensorimotor stage. What is thi

A

Tertiary Circular Reactions (12-18 months): Children begin a period of trial-and-error experimentation during the fifth substage. For example, a child may try out different sounds or actions as a way of getting attention from a caregiver.

582
Q

CY-BOCS age range?

A

6-17

583
Q

CY-BOCS is based on three factors - what are they?

A

1) patient report
2) subjective report from parents
3) observation from clinician

584
Q

The Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale (BPRS) is used to measure psychiatric sxs such as :

A

depression, anxiety, hallucinations, and unusual bx

585
Q

At high doses trazodone works as a ?

A

Serotonin agonist

586
Q

At low doses trazodone works as a ?

A

Serotonin antagonist

587
Q

Trazodone: Oral absorption is ?% higher when taken with food.

A

20%

588
Q

Trazodone may be arrhythmogenic - true or false?

A

TRUE

589
Q

The onset of bipolar disorder prior to age 13 carries an especially poor prognosis. What percent of patients with bipolar disorder began to exhibit sxs at age 13 or earlier?

A

25-30%

590
Q

What percent of individuals dx’d with bipolar disorder as adults had sxs prior to age 20?

A

60%

591
Q

What percent of individuals dx’d with bipolar disorder as adults had sxs beginning between ages 13 and 18?

A

40%

592
Q

A 504 plan specifies what but not what?

A

Specifies accommodations for disabilities but does not specific special education services.

593
Q

In utero exposure to opiate does what to the incidence of SIDS?

A

It increases incidence of SIDS

594
Q

Who is considered the founder of the strategic family therapy model?

A

Jay Haley

595
Q

What is the process by which the expression of emotion by a group member stimulates the awareness of a similar emotion in another group member?

A

Contagion

596
Q

The process of imparting a sense of optimism to group members

A

Inspiration

597
Q

A study compares the incidence of SAs with BPD vs nl controls. The BPD group has 50 individuals and the control group has 500. The # of SA in the BPD group and the control group is 5. Calculation that determines the suicide risk attributable to BPD?

A

(5/50)-(5/500) = attributable risk = experimental event rate (events/subjects) = control event rate.

598
Q

A study compares the incidence of SAs with BPD vs nl controls. The BPD group has 50 individuals and the control group has 500. The # of SA in the BPD group and the control group is 5. Calculation for relative risk?

A

(experimental event rate/control rate) = (5/50)/(5/500)

599
Q

A study compares the incidence of SAs with BPD vs nl controls. The BPD group has 50 individuals and the control group has 500. The # of SA in the BPD group and the control group is 5. Calculation for odds ratio?

A

(5/45)/(5/495)

600
Q

What is central to any reunification plan for children in foster care?

A

To support parents in resolving issues that lead to maltreatment and placement.

601
Q

A psychiatrist is a consultant for her local elementary school. She is referred a patient from this school to see on an outpatient basis. Can she accept this patient?

A

Yes. As long as there is no active solicitation of these patients or other financial conflict of interest.

602
Q

What are correctable causes of cognitive and behavioral disturbance?

A

Vision and hearing impairment, seizure disorders, recent head injury.

603
Q

The solitary tract is critical for which part of sleep?

A

NREM sleep. The solitary tract projects ventrally through the basal forebrain to the cortex through the thalamus. It allows progressive hyperpolarization of the corticothalamic circuits during NREM sleep that underly the characteristic delta waves through which “deep sleep” is recognized.

604
Q

What is meant by the term “goodness of fit” as described by Chess and Thomas?

A

match or mismatch between a person’s temperament and features of his or her environment.

605
Q

What are aspects of “goodness of fit”?

A

When the properties of the environment and its expectations and demands are in accord with the organism’s own capacities, characteristics and style of behaving. Specific values, cultural differences, and SES must be taken into consideration.

606
Q

3 classic FAS facial features?

A

1) smooth philtrum
2) thin vermilion border
3) palpebral fissures

607
Q

Features of congenital rubella?

A

Sensorineural deafness, retinopathy, cataracts, congenital heart disease, microcephaly, micrognathia, and ID

608
Q

Features of Down syndrome?

A

Upslanting palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, folded or dysplastic ears, low-set small ears, and a flat nasal bridge

609
Q

Features of congenital hypothyroidism?

A

lethargy, hoarse cry, feeding problems, myxedematous facies, macroglossia, umbilical hernia

610
Q

Rhythmicity is a dimension of temperament - what does it refer to?

A

Indicates regularity of timing in the child’s biological functions such as eating and sleeping

611
Q

What is the third stage of Erik Erikson’s therapy of psychosocial development?

A

Initiative vs. Guilt (age 3-5)

Children begin to plan activities, make up games, and initiate activities with others. If given this opportunity, children develop a sense of initiative and feel secure in their ability to lead others and make decisions.

Conversely, if this tendency is squelched, either through criticism or control, children develop a sense of guilt. The child will often overstep the mark in his forcefulness, and the danger is that the parents will tend to punish the child and restrict his initiatives too much.

612
Q

Initiative vs. Guilt - age range?

A

3-5

613
Q

Child is 75% understandable, can jump and hop a dn can stack around 8 blocks. Age?

A

36 months

614
Q

Sxs of acute cocaine w/d?

A

Mild muscle pain and chills. There is a risk of MI d/t coronary vasospasm

615
Q

How many hours after last drink does alcohol w/d start?

A

8-10 hours

616
Q

Modafinil activates what area of the brain?

A

Hypothalamic regions

617
Q

In clinical trials with children, modafinil has proven efficacy in reducing sxs of ADHD. Why did it not get FDA-approval for use in children?

A

Risk of SJS

618
Q

What are the phenotypic attributes of fetal VPA?

A

1) epicanthic fold
2) infraorbital groove
3) medial deficiency of eyebrows
4) flat nasal bridge
5) broad nasal root
6) anteverterd nares
7) shallow philitrum
8) long upper lip
9) thick lower lip
10) small downturned mouth

619
Q

Non-episodic irritability in youth has not been shown to increase the risk of bipolar disorder. It carries an associated risk for what disorders?

A

Anxiety and unipolar depressive disorders

620
Q

MDD has a heritability of what percent?

A

40-60%

621
Q

AN occur in females what percent of the time?

A

> 90%

622
Q

The lifetime prevalence of AN in females is ?

A

0.5%

623
Q

The long-term mortality rate of AN?

A

> 10%

624
Q

The lifetime prevalence of BN in females is ?

A

1-3%

625
Q

BN occur in females what percent of the time?

A

90%

626
Q

Duration of an untreated episode of MDD?

A

4+ months

627
Q

A father presents with his 6 y/o daughter and asks about bringing her to the funeral of a 9 y/o sibling who died suddenly in a car accident. What factor is most relevant for advising the family?

A

Availability of supportive adults to provide comfort

Generally, attendance can be helpful