Canine And Feline Disease/MS/Nervous

Question 1

What are the common causes of diseases in the musculoskeletal system?

Answer 1

> 75% car accident
Indirect violence
Bone disease
Repeated stress

Additional causes include trauma, fractures, ligament ruptures, degenerative diseases, inflammation, and poor conformation.

Question 2

What are the classifications of long bone fractures?

Answer 2

• Open vs closed
• Simple vs comminuted
• Stable vs unstable

These classifications help in diagnosing and determining treatment options for fractures.

Question 3

What are common clinical signs of long bone fractures?

Answer 3

• Hx of trauma
• Pain or localized tenderness
• Lameness
• Deformity of the bone
• Loss of function
• Crepitus
• Localized swelling or bruising

These signs assist in the clinical assessment of a fracture.

Question 4

What diagnostic method is used to diagnose long bone fractures?

Answer 4

Radiographs – at least 2 views
Radiographs help in diagnosing and characterizing fractures.

Question 5

What is the treatment method for long bone fractures?

Answer 5

Reduction and fixation ASAP
Methods of fixation include splints, casts, intramedullary pins, and bone plates.

Question 6

What is the most common stifle injury in dogs?

Answer 6

CCL rupture

This injury is often caused by sudden hyperextension of the stifle while exercising.

Question 7

What are the clinical signs of a CCL injury?

Answer 7

• Acute onset
• Non-weight bearing, limping
• Internal rotation of tibia
• +/- stifle effusion

These signs indicate instability and potential injury to the cranial cruciate ligament.

Question 8

What are the treatment options for CCL injuries?

Answer 8

• Surgical stabilization
• Extraarticular for small animals <15 pounds
• Intraarticular for larger patients
• TPLO (tibial plateau leveling osteotomy)

Weight loss and cage rest for 3-4 weeks may also be recommended.

Question 9

What is the most common form of patellar luxation?

Answer 9

Medial patellar luxation
This condition occurs early in life and is usually congenital.

Question 10

What are the contributing factors for hip dysplasia?

Answer 10

• Genetic predisposition
• Environmental factors
• Dietary factors
• Disparity between muscle mass and developing skeletal system

These factors contribute to the development of hip dysplasia in dogs.

Question 11

What are the forms of hip dysplasia?

Answer 11

• Acetabular (most common)
• Femoral (shortened femoral neck)

Osteophyte formation can lead to joint damage and instability.

Question 12

What is Osteochondritis Dissecans (OCD)?

Answer 12

Degeneration or aseptic necrosis of bone and cartilage followed by reossification

This condition results in a dissecting cartilage flap with inflammatory joint changes.

Question 13

What are the clinical signs of panosteitis?

Answer 13

• Intermittent lameness in medium and large-breed dogs
• Acute lameness, not trauma-related
• May shift from leg to leg

It commonly affects dogs aged 6-8 months.

Question 14

What is the most common type of bone cancer in dogs?

Answer 14

Osteosarcoma (85% - 90% of cases)

The cause is unknown, but it most commonly affects the distal radius, proximal humerus, distal femur, and proximal tibia.

Question 15

What are the clinical signs of idiopathic vestibular disease?

Answer 15

• Incapacitating loss of balance
• Nystagmus
• Disorientation
• Ataxia
• Vomiting
• Anorexia

This acute disorder affects dogs and cats.

Question 16

What is idiopathic epilepsy?

Answer 16

Seizures with no apparent cause

Diagnosis is one of exclusion and may involve various breeds including GSD, poodles, and Cocker spaniels.

Question 17

What are the two types of intervertebral disk disease?

Answer 17

• Type 1: Acute rupture into the spinal canal (common in younger animals)
• Type 2: Extrusion occurs over a longer period (common in older dogs)

Severity of spinal cord injury depends on the speed and degree of compression.

Question 18

What is the treatment for cervical spondylomyelopathy (Wobbler Syndrome)?

Answer 18

• Medical: Antiinflammatories, neck brace, cage confinement
• Surgical: Decompression and stabilization

High potential for morbidity and postsurgical complications.

Question 19

What is the primary characteristic of megaesophagus?

Answer 19

Lack of esophageal peristalsis leading to dilation and regurgitation

Common in breeds like Great Danes and GSD, and can be congenital or acquired.

Question 20

What is the treatment for tick paralysis?

Answer 20

• Remove all ticks from the animal
• Supportive care
• Ventilator if respiratory paralysis occurs

Recovery usually occurs within 1-3 days after tick removal.

Question 21

What is the most common cause of anemia in dogs and cats?

Answer 21

Hemorrhage

Other causes include hemolysis, blood parasites, iron deficiencies, and immune-mediated disease.

Question 22

What is the treatment for Immune-Mediated Hemolytic Anemia (IMHA)?

Answer 22

• Glucocorticoids
• Drugs to prevent gastric ulceration
• Heparin to prevent thromboembolism
• Blood transfusions

Prognosis is guarded and relapses are common.

Question 23

What is the condition characterized by absolute neutrophilia with a left shift?

Answer 23

It is a response to infection or inflammation.

This indicates an increase in immature neutrophils in the bloodstream.

Question 24

What is regenerative anemia?

Answer 24

A type of anemia where the bone marrow responds appropriately to anemia by producing more red blood cells.

It often indicates ongoing blood loss or hemolysis.

Question 25

What is the primary aim of treatment for anemia?

Answer 25

Improving tissue oxygenation and managing immune response. This may involve various interventions based on the underlying cause.

Question 26

Name two types of drugs used to prevent gastric ulceration.

Answer 26

* Proton pump inhibitors * H2 receptor antagonists These medications help protect the gastric lining.

Question 27

What is heparin used for in the context of anemia treatment?

Answer 27

To prevent thromboembolism. It helps to reduce the risk of blood clots.

Question 28

What is the prognosis for conditions involving immune-mediated thrombocytopenia (IMTP)?

Answer 28

Guarded. Relapses are common in affected animals.

Question 29

What are the common clinical signs of immune-mediated thrombocytopenia?

Answer 29

* Petechial hemorrhages * Ecchymotic hemorrhages * Bloody stool or vomit * Epistaxis * Weakness, lethargy These signs occur as platelet counts drop.

Question 30

What is a common cause of thrombocytopenia that must be ruled out during diagnosis?

Answer 30

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Other causes include lymphoma and bone marrow disorders.

Question 31

What is the primary treatment for immune-mediated thrombocytopenia?

Answer 31

* Steroids (e.g., prednisone) * Chemotherapy (e.g., vincristine) * Platelet-rich blood transfusion * GI protectant These treatments help manage the immune response and support platelet levels.

Question 32

What is Ehrlichiosis?

Answer 32

A rickettsial disease spread by the brown dog tick. It primarily affects dogs and can lead to severe clinical signs.

Question 33

What are the acute clinical signs of Ehrlichiosis?

Answer 33

* Depression * Anorexia * Fever * Weight loss * Ocular and nasal discharge * Dyspnea * Edema of the limbs * Lymphadenopathy These signs can indicate an acute infection.

Question 34

What is the most common sign of Ehrlichiosis?

Answer 34

Thrombocytopenia. This is often accompanied by other hematological abnormalities.

Question 35

What is von Willebrand’s factor (vWF)?

Answer 35

A protein that promotes platelet clumping and primary hemostasis. It is crucial for normal blood clotting.

Question 36

What is the most common inherited disorder of hemostasis?

Answer 36

Von Willebrand’s Disease. It affects breeds like Doberman pinchers and German Shepherds.

Question 37

What is the significance of a BMBT greater than 4 minutes?

Answer 37

It indicates a problem with hemostasis, such as von Willebrand’s Disease. This test measures how long it takes for bleeding to stop.

Question 38

What is Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (FIV)?

Answer 38

A progressive viral disease endemic in most of the U.S., affecting primarily outdoor male cats. It leads to immunosuppression and various health issues.

Question 39

What is the average age of cats diagnosed with FIV?

Answer 39

6-8 years. Older cats are more susceptible to FIV.

Question 40

What is a common chronic clinical sign of FIV?

Answer 40

* Chronic stomatitis * Recurrent upper respiratory infections * Weight loss * Ocular disease * Tumors These signs indicate progression of the disease.

Question 41

What is the recommended treatment for FIV?

Answer 41

Supportive care and limiting contact with other cats. Vaccination for FIV is not advised.

Question 42

How is panosteitis diagnosed?

Answer 42

-Pain elicited by palpation of long bone -Radiographs

Question 43

What are the clinical sings of tumors in the bones?

Answer 43

Lameness Weight loss Severe pain, especially over affected bone Swelling in affected limb

Question 44

Thoracic Radiographs are used for bone tumor diagnosis for what reason?

Answer 44

To Rule out metastasis

Question 45

Is there a cure for bone tumors/osteosarcoma?

Answer 45

No :(

Question 46

What kind of treatments are provided for idiopathic epilepsy?

Answer 46

*treatment if seizures occur more than once per month* Phenobarbital KBr (potassium bromide) Zonisamide

Question 47

What is status Epilepticus?

Answer 47

Grandmal seizures - prolong uninterrupted seizure activity

Question 48

What are the clinical signs of IVDD?

Answer 48

Apparent pain- +/- motor/sensory deficits Paresis/Paralysis Decreased Panniculus reflex Altered deep pain response

Question 49

What is Wobbler syndrome?

Answer 49

Cervical spinal cord compression -Caudal vertebral malformation/misarticulation

Question 50

What is Degenerative Myelopathy?

Answer 50

Degeneration of spinal nerves

Question 51

What is degenerative myelopathy?

Answer 51

A progressive neurological disease that affects the spinal cord, leading to loss of coordination and mobility.

Question 52

True or False: Degenerative myelopathy primarily affects the upper limbs.

Answer 52

False

Question 53

Fill in the blank: Degenerative myelopathy is most commonly diagnosed in __________ dogs.

Answer 53

older

Question 54

Which breed of dog is most commonly associated with degenerative myelopathy?

Answer 54

German Shepherd

Question 55

What is a common symptom of degenerative myelopathy?

Answer 55

Progressive weakness in the hind limbs.

Question 56

What is the definition of status epilepticus?

Answer 56

Status epilepticus is a neurological condition characterized by a prolonged seizure lasting more than 5 minutes or multiple seizures without regaining consciousness in between.

Question 57

What is a critical intervention for a patient experiencing status epilepticus?

Answer 57

Immediate administration of anticonvulsant medication.

Question 58

What is laryngeal paralysis in dogs?

Answer 58

A condition where the laryngeal muscles fail to function properly, leading to difficulty in breathing and voice changes.

Question 59

True or False: Laryngeal paralysis can be hereditary in certain dog breeds.

Answer 59

True

Question 60

Fill in the blank: Common symptoms of laryngeal paralysis include _____ and _____ during exercise.

Answer 60

stridor, coughing

Question 61

What is the primary diagnostic tool used to confirm laryngeal paralysis in dogs?

Answer 61

Laryngoscopy

Question 62

What is the primary treatment method for managing megaesophagus in canines?

Answer 62

Feeding in an elevated position.

Question 63

Fill in the blank: Dogs with megaesophagus are often fed soft, _______ food to aid in swallowing.

Answer 63

moist.

Question 64

Which of the following is NOT a recommended management strategy for megaesophagus? A) Elevated feeding B) Medication C) Immediate surgery D) Dietary changes

Answer 64

C) Immediate surgery.

Question 65

What is a common complication associated with megaesophagus that needs to be monitored?

Answer 65

Aspiration pneumonia.

Question 66

What is tick paralysis?

Answer 66

A neurological condition caused by toxins from tick saliva that affects dogs.

Question 67

Fill in the blank: The primary tick species responsible for tick paralysis in canines is ________.

Answer 67

Dermacentor variabilis (Common dog tick)

Question 68

What are common symptoms of tick paralysis in dogs?

Answer 68

Weakness, loss of coordination, difficulty breathing, facial paralysis, Altered voice and dysphagia

Question 69

Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a symptom of tick paralysis? A) Lethargy B) Seizures C) Excessive barking

Answer 69

C) Excessive barking

Question 70

Short Answer: How can tick paralysis be diagnosed?

Answer 70

By observing clinical signs and finding ticks on the dog.

Question 71

True or False: Removing the tick will immediately reverse the effects of tick paralysis.

Answer 71

False *recovery usually occurs within 1-3 days after tick removal*

Question 72

What is the treatment for tick paralysis?

Answer 72

Removal of the tick and supportive care.

Question 73

Fill in the blank: In severe cases, tick paralysis can lead to ________ failure.

Answer 73

respiratory

Question 74

What preventive measures can be taken against tick paralysis?

Answer 74

Regularly checking for and removing ticks, using tick preventatives.