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CTP Exam > Candidate Guide > Flashcards

Candidate Guide Flashcards

1
Q

True or false… pit and fissure occlusal, lingual, buccal, or facial restorations are not to be included unless there is an obvious cavitation on the photographs and/or radiolucency on the radiographs, or tactile evidence of caries is noted in the “clinical findings” section of the patient record.

A

True

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2
Q

True or false… candidates must specify the material to be used for the restoration.

A

False. Howeve,r they must specify whether the restoration will be a direct or indirect restoration

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3
Q

True or false… bases, build-ups, pins, and posts need not be specified in the treatment plan

A

True, they do not need to be specified. Direct or indirect is good enough

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4
Q

True or false… OHI should be listed on the treatment plan

A

False.. it is assumed that OHI will be provided for every patient

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5
Q

True or false… topical fluoride application is assumed in conjunction with dental prophylaxis.

A

False. Topical fluoride application is not included in the definition of dental prophylaxis. Therefore, if indicated, fluoride should be listed seperately.

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6
Q

Following submission of the treatment plan, additional questions or tasks related to the case are presented. The first case will have ___ items. The second case will have ___. The third case will have___ items.

A

4-5

7-8

4-5

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7
Q

True or false… answers to the supplemental questions should be answered in complete sentences

A

False. It is not necessary

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8
Q

What is the definition of a critical error in the CTP exam?

A

Critical errors are those likely to cause life-threatening harm or severe morbidity that may require hospitalization

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9
Q

What are some examples of critical errors?

A

Prescribing medications contrary to patient medical history and/or dosages exceeding safe guidelines

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10
Q

What are the AAPD guidelines for maximum dosage for lidocaine?

A

2mg/lb

4.4 mg/kg

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11
Q

how do you convert lbs to kg?

A

Lbs x 2.2

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12
Q

What is the maximum dosage for mepivicaine (carbocaine)?

A

2 mg/lb

4.4 mg/kg

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13
Q

What is the maximum total dosage for lidocaine and mepivicaine?

A

300mg

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14
Q

What is the maximum dosage for articaine?

A

3.2mg/lb

7mg/kg

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15
Q

What is the maximum total dosage for articaine?

A

500mg

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16
Q

What is the maximum dosage for prilocaine?

A

2.7mg/lb

6mg/kg

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17
Q

What is the maximum total dosage for prilocaine?

A

400mg

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18
Q

What is the maximum dosage for bupivicaine? (Marcaine)

A
  1. 6mg/lb

1. 3 mg/kg

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19
Q

What is the maximum total dosage for bupivicaine?

A

90mg

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20
Q

Define caries for CTP

A

Caries has definitive resistance to the perpendicular withdrawal of the explorer and may have a dry leathery apperance

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21
Q

Define prophy for CTP

A

Removal of plaque, calculus, and stains, to control local irritation factors and frequently involves scaling of coronal and subgingival surfaces of the teeth

***application of fluoride is NOT included in the definition of dental prophylaxis

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22
Q

How should periodontal treatment be stated? Give an example

A

By quadrant, including the number of teeth.

S/RP 4 quads of 4 or more teeth

Prophylaxis, S/RP: UR and LL 1-3 teeth

Prophylaxis, S/RP: UL 4 or more teeth

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23
Q

A decision to treat perio should be based on ___, ___, and ____. What are the requirements for SRP?

A

CAL (clinical attachment loss)
Periodontal pocket depth (PD)
BOP

Teeth having CAL with pocket depths of 5 or greater

Or…..

Teeth having CAL with pocket depths 4 or greater WITH BOP

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24
Q

Define periodontal “good”prognosis

A

Involves one or more of the following:
Health or slight CAL, adequate periodontal support, no mobility, no furcation involvement, and control of etiological factors to assure the tooth would be relatively easy to maintain, assuming full patient compliance

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25
Q

Define “fair” periodontal prognosis

A

Involves one or more of the following: CAL to the point that the tooth could not be considered to have a good prognosis, which would include slight or moderate CAL and/or Class 1 mobility or furcation involvement. The location and depth of the furcation would allow proper maintenance with full patient compliance

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26
Q

Define periodontal “poor” prognosis

A

Involves one or more of the following: severe CAL resulting in a poor crown to root ratio, poor root form, class 2 furcations not easily accessible to maintain, or class 3 furcations, class 2 or 3 mobility, significant root proximity

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27
Q

Define “hopeless” perio prognosis

A

Involves one or more of the factors listed in poor prognosis with inadequate attachment to maintain the tooth in health, comfort, and function. Extraction is suggested, as active periodontal therapy (non-surgical or surgical) is unlikely to improve the current status of the tooth

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28
Q

What is the antibiotic prophylaxis for an adult?

A

2 grams amoxicillin 30-60 minutes before procedure

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29
Q

What is the antibiotic prophylaxis for children?

A

50mg per kilogram

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30
Q

What is the antibiotic prophylaxis regimen for an adult who cannot take oral medication?

A

2g ampicillin IM or IV

50mg/kg IM or IV for children

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31
Q

What is the antibiotic prophylaxis for an adult allergic to penicillins?

A

600mg clindamycin

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32
Q

What is the antibiotic prophylaxis protocol for children allergic to penicillins?

A

20mg/kg clindamycin

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33
Q

Name 4 cardiac conditions that require antibiotic prophylaxis

A

Prosthetic cardiac valve

Previous infective endocarditis

Congenital heart disease

Cardiac transplantation recipients who develop cardiac valvuopathy

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34
Q

True or false… as of 2015 (updated for CTP), the ADA guideline states “in general, for patients with prosthetic joint implants, prophylactic antibiotics are not recommended prior to dental procedures to prevent prosthetic joint infections”

A

True

But, patients with a history of complications associated with their joint replacement surgery wo are undergoing dental procedures that include gingival or mucosal incision, prophylactic antibiotics should only be considered after consultation with the patient and orthopedic surgeon.

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35
Q

For a simple tooth extraction, for patients on warfarin, treatment can be safely performed without high risk of bleeding, providing that the INR is equal to or less than ___ on the day of extraction

A

3.5

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36
Q

What is the prescription for acetaminophen for adults and children 12 and older?

A

500mg every 4-6 hours

Maximum 4 grams per 24 hours

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37
Q

What is the prescription for acetaminophen for children under the age of 12?

A

10mg/kg/dose every 4-6 hours

Max 75mg/kg/24 hours

38
Q

What is the prescription for ibuprofen for children less than 50kg?

A

10mg/kg/dose every 6-8 hours

Maximum single dose 400mg: 40mg/kg/24hours

39
Q

What is the prescription for children 12 or older for ibuprofen?

A

200mg every 4-6 hours (max 1.2grams/24 hours)

40
Q

What is the the prescription for ibuprofen for adults?

A

200-400mg/dose every 4-6hours

Max = 1.2g/24hours

41
Q

True or false… codeine and other opioid analgesics are not recommended for children by the AAP

A

True, it is NOT recommended

42
Q

What is the prescription for amoxicillin for children < 40kg?

A

20-40mg/kg/day in divided doses every 8 hours

Max 500mg/dose

43
Q

What is the prescription for amoxicillin for adults?

A

500mg every 8 hours

44
Q

What is the prescription for clindamycin for children?

A

8-20 mg/kg/day in 3-4 divided doses as hydrochloride
(20mg/kg/day in 4 divided doses)

Or

8-25mg/kg/day in 3-4 divided doses as palmitate

45
Q

What is the prescription for clindamycin for adults?

A

150-450mg every 6 hours (maximum 1.8g day)

300mg every 6 hours

46
Q

What is the prescription for topical nystatin for angular cheilitis?

A

Ointment (100,000 units/g)

For all ages: apply a thin layer to angles of mouth 4 times/day for 14 days or until complete healing

47
Q

What is the prescription for topical/transmucsoal agent for oral candidiasis? (Clotrimazole)

A

Lozenge 10mg

(Do not use for patients under 3 years of age)

Dissolve one troche 5 times a day for 14 days

48
Q

What is the nystatin topical prescription for oral candidiasis for infants (children under 3)

A

Suspension (100,000 units mL)

200,000-400,000 (2-4 mL) 4times/day; 1/2 of dose placed in each side of mouth

49
Q

What is the prescription for systemic acyclovir for primary herpetic gingivostomatitis? Children and adult

A

Children = 15mg/kg 5 times/day for 7 days

Adults 400 mg 3-5times/day for 10 days

50
Q

What is the prescription for systemic agent for herpes labialis? Children and adults

A

Acyclovir

Children 20mg/kg/dose 4 times/day 5 days (maximum 400mg/dose)

Adults 400mg 3 times/day for 5 days

51
Q

What is the prescription for topical acyclovir for herpes labialis?

A

Acyclovir cream 5%

Children over 12 and adults. Apply a thin layer on the lesion 5 times daily for 4 days

52
Q

What is the prescription for docosanol (abreva)?

A

Cream 10%

Children over 12 and adults

Apply a thin layer on the lesion 5 times a day for up to 10 days

53
Q

What is the prescription for chlorhexidine gluconate?

A

Dental solution 0.12%

Children 8 and up and adults

Rinse with 15 ml 2 times/day

54
Q

What is the prescription for topical corticosteroids for apthous ulcers?

A

Dexamethasone

Form = elixir

Adolescents and adults: rinse with 5ml 4 times/day for 2 minutes and expectorate. Do not exceed 7 day course

55
Q

You estimate a patient requiring amoxicillin prophylaxis requires 3-4 dental appointments. Write the prescription.

A

Amoxicllin 500mg tabs

16 capsules

Take 4 tabs one hour prior to appointment

56
Q

What is the eruption phone number for maxillary teeth?

A

781-0062

57
Q

What is the eruption phone number for mandibular teeth?

A

679-0160

58
Q

Fluoride level of drinking water < 0.3PPM. Child is less than 6 months old. What is the recommended fluoride supplementation?

A

None

59
Q

Fluoride level of drinking water < 0.3PPM. Child is 6 months - 3 years old. What is the recommended fluoride supplementation?

A

0.25mg daily

60
Q

Fluoride level of drinking water < 0.3PPM. Child 3 years - 6 years old. What is the recommended fluoride supplementation?

A

0.5mg daily

61
Q

Fluoride level of drinking water < 0.3PPM. Child is 6 years to 16 years old. What is the recommended fluoride supplementation?

A

1mg daily

62
Q

Fluoride level of drinking water 0.3-0.6PPM. Child is less than 6 months old. What is the recommended fluoride supplementation?

A

None

63
Q

Fluoride level of drinking water 0.3-0.6PPM. Child is 6 months - 3 years old. What is the recommended fluoride supplementation?

A

None

64
Q

Fluoride level of drinking water 0.3-0.6PPM. Child is 3 years - 6 years old. What is the recommended fluoride supplementation?

A

0.25mg daily

65
Q

Fluoride level of drinking water 0.3-0.6PPM. Child is 6 years - 16 years old. What is the recommended fluoride supplementation?

A

0.5mg daily

66
Q

Fluoride level of drinking water is over 0.6PPM. What is the recommended fluoride supplementation for any age?

A

No supplementation

67
Q

When is azithromycin prescribed?

A

When patient is allergic to penicillins and clindamycin doesn’t work well.

68
Q

What is the typical dosage for azithromycin?

A

500mg every 24 hours for 3 days

69
Q

What is the eruption pattern for primary maxillary teeth? (In months)

A 
8
9
16
13
25
70
Q

What is the eruption pattern for mandibular teeth in months?

A 
6
10
17
14
23
71
Q

Pre diabetes has an HbA1C of what range?

A

5.7-6.3

72
Q

Diabetes is classified as an HbA1C of ___ and above. Anything over ___ is dangerous

A
  1. 4

7. 6

73
Q

What do you prescribe a patient who is allergic to penicillins and is unable to take oral medication?

A

Clindamycin 600mg IM or IV

74
Q

If bone is to be manipulated and the patient is taking PO bisphosphonates, what should you do?

A

Obtain informed consent

75
Q

If bone is to be manipulated and patient is on IV bisphosphonates, what should you do?

A

Bone manipulation is to be avoided.

Refer to OS if BRONJ is suspected

76
Q

Which anesthetic is the best to use if the patient is pregnant? Which class is it?

A

Lidocaine (category B)

77
Q

True or false… NO2 should be avoided in preganancy

A

True, especially avoid in first 2 trimesters

78
Q

True or false… aspirin and ibuprofen should be avoided in pregnancy

A

True. Stick to acetomenophen

79
Q

In patients with pace makers, what should you avoid?

A

Electronic pulp testers

Apex locators

Ultrasonic

Electrosurgery

Local anesthetics with epi

80
Q

How much epi is in a 1/200,000 cartridge?

A

0.009

81
Q

How much epi is in a 1/100,000 cartridge?

A

0.018mg

82
Q

How much epi is in a 1/50,000 cartridge?

A

0.036mg

83
Q

What class of drugs are the following?

Warfarin
Dabigatran
Heparin
Xeralto

A

Antiplatelet/anticoagulant

84
Q

Name 6 contraindications to vasoconstrictors (epi)

A
  • Heart diseases (unstable angina, recent myocardial infarction, recent coronary bypass surgery, refractory arrhythmias, uncontrolled congestive heart failure, uncontrolled severe hypertension)
  • uncontrolled hyperthyroidism
  • uncontrolled diabetes
  • sulphite allergies
  • steroid-dependent asthma
  • pheochromocytoma
    Moderate to severe asthma
85
Q

Name some examples when you should take precautions in using epi.

A

Patients taking tricyclic antidepressants

Pts taking phenothiazine compounds

Pts taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors

Pts taking beta-blockers

Cocaine abusers

Pts taking digioxin

General anesthesia with halothane

86
Q

Define stage 1 hypertension

A

130-139

Over

80-89

87
Q

Define stage 2 hypertension (severe)

A

140 or higher

Over

90 or higher

88
Q

In what case is it considered a hypertensive crisis?

A

> 180 and/or over >120

89
Q

What drug may be used to give to an epileptic patient undergoing a prolonged seizure?

A

Midazolam

5 minutes or longer or 3 or more seizures in an hour

90
Q

What are some treatment modifications for patients on dialysis?

A

Best time for dental treatment is the day after dialysis (not day of due to anticoagulants given during dialysis)

Don’t take blood pressure on same arm with the shunt

Consult with physician about antibiotic prophylaxis

91
Q

What drug type is Norco and Lortab?

A

Hydrocodone

92
Q

What is the dosing for hydrocodone?

A

5mg every 6 hours for 24 - 48 hours

CTP Exam (1 decks)

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