cancers

Question 1

A female client with cancer is being evaluated for possible metastasis. Which of the following is one of the most common metastasis sites for cancer cells?
A White blood cells (WBCs)
B Colon
C Liver
D Reproductive tract

Answer 1

C Liver

Question 2

A female client with cancer is scheduled for radiation therapy. The nurse knows that radiation at any treatment site may cause a certain adverse effect. Therefore, the nurse should prepare the client to expect:
A stomatitis
B vomiting
C hair loss.
D fatigue

Answer 2

D fatigue

Question 3

The nurse is interviewing a male client about his past medical history. Which preexisting condition may lead the nurse to suspect that a client has colorectal cancer?
A Duodenal ulcers
B Weight gain
C Polyps
D Hemorrhoids

Answer 3

C Polyps

Question 4

For a female client newly diagnosed with radiation-induced thrombocytopenia, the nurse should include which intervention in the plan of care?
A Placing the client in strict isolation
B Providing for frequent rest periods
C Inspecting the skin for petechiae once every shift
D Administering aspirin if the temperature exceeds 102° F (38.8° C)

Answer 4

C Inspecting the skin for petechiae once every shift

Question 5

A male client complains of sporadic epigastric pain, yellow skin, nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and fatigue. Suspecting gallbladder disease, the physician orders a diagnostic workup, whichreveals gallbladder cancer. Which nursing diagnosis may be appropriate for this client?
A Disturbed body image
B Chronic low self-esteem
C Anticipatory grieving
D Impaired swallowing

Answer 5

C Anticipatory grieving

Question 6

Nurse Amy is speaking to a group of women about early detection of breast cancer. The average age of the women in the group is 47. Following the American Cancer Society guidelines, the nurse should recommend that the women:
A have a physician conduct a clinical examination every 2 years.
B have a mammogram annually.
C have a hormonal receptor assay annually.
D perform breast self-examination annually

Answer 6

B have a mammogram annually.

Question 7

A 35 years old client with ovarian cancer is prescribed hydroxyurea (Hydrea), an antimetabolite drug. Antimetabolites are a diverse group of antineoplastic agents that interfere with various metabolic actions of the cell. The mechanism of action of antimetabolites interferes with:
A the chemical structure of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and chemical binding between DNA molecules (cell cycle–nonspecific)
B cell division or mitosis during the M phase of the cell cycle.
C normal cellular processes during the S phase of the cell cycle.
D one or more stages of ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis, DNA synthesis, or both (cell cycle–nonspecific).

Answer 7

C normal cellular processes during the S phase of the cell cycle.

Question 8

A female client is receiving chemotherapy to treat breast cancer. Which assessment finding indicates a fluid and electrolyte imbalance induced by chemotherapy?
A Urine output of 400 ml in 8 hours
B Dry oral mucous membranes and cracked lips
C Blood pressure of 120/64 to 130/72 mm Hg
D Serum potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L

Answer 8

B Dry oral mucous membranes and cracked lips

Question 9

A male client is in isolation after receiving an internal radioactive implant to treat cancer. Two hours later, the nurse discovers the implant in the bed linens. What should the nurse do first?
A Leave the room and notify the radiation therapy department immediately.
B Stand as far away from the implant as possible and call for help.
C Pick up the implant with long-handled forceps and place it in a lead-lined container.
D Put the implant back in place, using forceps and a shield for self-protection, and call for help.

Answer 9

C Pick up the implant with long-handled forceps and place it in a lead-lined container.

Question 10

A female client is undergoing tests for multiple myeloma. Diagnostic study findings in multiple myeloma include:
A Bence Jones protein in the urine.
B a decreased serum creatinine level
C a low serum protein level.
D hypocalcemia

Answer 10

A Bence Jones protein in the urine.

Question 11

Nurse April is teaching a group of women to perform breast self-examination. The nurse should explain that the purpose of performing the examination is to discover:
A changes from previous self-examinations.
B areas of thickness or fullness.
C cancerous lumps.

Answer 11

A changes from previous self-examinations.

Question 12

A 35 years old client has been receiving chemotherapy to treat cancer. Which assessment finding suggests that the client has developed stomatitis (inflammation of the mouth)?
B Yellow tooth discoloration
C White, cottage cheese–like patches on the tongue
D Rust-colored sputum

Answer 12

C White, cottage cheese–like patches on the tongue

Question 13

A male client with a nagging cough makes an appointment to see the physician after reading that this symptom is one of the seven warning signs of cancer. What is another warning sign of cancer?
A Chronic ache or pain
B Persistent nausea
C Rash
D Indigestion

Answer 13

D Indigestion

Question 14

Nurse Brian is developing a plan of care for marrow suppression, the major dose-limiting adverse reaction to floxuridine (FUDR). How long after drug administration does bone marrow suppression become noticeable?
A 24 hours
B 7 to 14 days
C 2 to 4 days
D 21 to 28 days

Answer 14

B 7 to 14 days

Question 15

Which intervention is appropriate for the nurse caring for a male client in severe pain receiving a continuous I.V. infusion of morphine?
A Assisting with a naloxone challenge test before therapy begins
B Discontinuing the drug immediately if signs of dependence appear
C Changing the administration route to P.O. if the client can tolerate fluids
D Obtaining baseline vital signs before administering the first dose

Answer 15

D Obtaining baseline vital signs before administering the first dose

Question 16

A female client is receiving methotrexate (Mexate), 12 g/m2 I.V., to treat osteogenic carcinoma. During methotrexate therapy, the nurse expects the client to receive which other drug to protect normal cells?
A cytarabine (ara-C, cytosine arabinoside [Cytosar-U]
B thioguanine (6-thioguanine, 6-TG)
C probenecid (Benemid)
D leucovorin (citrovorum factor or folinic acid [Wellcovorin]

Answer 16

D leucovorin (citrovorum factor or folinic acid [Wellcovorin]

Question 17

What should a male client over age 52 do to help ensure early identification of prostate cancer?
A Have a digital rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test done yearly.
B Perform monthly testicular self-examinations, especially after age 50.
C Have a transrectal ultrasound every 5

Answer 17

A Have a digital rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test done yearly.

Question 18

The ABCD method offers one way to assess skin lesions for possible skin cancer. What does the A stand for?
A Actinic
B Arcus
C Asymmetry
D Assessment

Answer 18

C Asymmetry

Question 19

The nurse is preparing for a female client for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to confirm or rule out a spinal cord lesion. During the MRI scan, which of the following would pose a threat to the client?
A The client lies still.
B The client hears thumping sounds.
C The client asks questions.
D The client wears a watch and wedding band.

Answer 19

D The client wears a watch and wedding band.

Question 20

Jeovina, with advanced breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). When teaching the client about this drug, the nurse should emphasize the importance of reporting which adverse reaction immediately?
A Headache
B Anorexia
C Vision changes
D Hearing loss

Answer 20

C Vision changes

Question 21

Nurse Lucia is providing breast cancer education at a community facility. The American Cancer Society recommends that women get mammograms:
A after the birth of the first child and every 2 years thereafter.
B every 3 years between ages 20 and 40 and annually thereafter.
C yearly after age 40.
D after the first menstrual period and annually thereafter

Answer 21

C yearly after age 40.

Question 22

For a female client with newly diagnosed cancer, the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Anxiety related to the threat of death secondary to cancer diagnosis. Which expected outcome would be appropriate for this client?
A “Client uses any effective method to reduce tension.”
B “Client doesn’t guess at prognosis.”
C “Client verbalizes feelings of anxiety.”
D “Client stops seeking information.”

Answer 22

C “Client verbalizes feelings of anxiety.”

Question 23

A client, age 41, visits the gynecologist. After examining her, the physician suspects cervical cancer. The nurse reviews the client’s history for risk factors for this disease. Which history finding is a risk factor for cervical cancer?
A Spontaneous abortion at age 19
B Human papillomavirus infection at age 32
C Pregnancy complicated with eclampsia at age 27
D Onset of sporadic sexual activity at age 17

Answer 23

B Human papillomavirus infection at age 32

Question 24

During chemotherapy, an oncology client has a nursing diagnosis of impaired oral mucous membrane related to decreased nutrition and immunosuppression secondary to the cytotoxic effects of chemotherapy. Which nursing intervention is most likely to decrease the pain of stomatitis?
A Checking regularly for signs and symptoms of stomatitis
B Providing a solution of hydrogen peroxide and water for use as a mouth rinse
C Monitoring the client’s platelet and leukocyte counts
D Recommending that the client discontinue chemotherapy

Answer 24

B Providing a solution of hydrogen peroxide and water for use as a mouth rinse

Question 25

A female client has an abnormal result on a Papanicolaou test. After admitting, she read his chart while the nurse was out of the room, the client asks what dysplasia means. Which definition should the nurse provide?
A Presence of completely undifferentiated tumor cells that don’t resemble cells of the tissues of their origin
B Alteration in the size, shape, and organization of differentiated cells
C Increase in the number of normal cells in a normal arrangement in a tissue or an organ
D Replacement of one type of fully differentiated cell by another in tissues where the second type normally isn’t found

Answer 25

B Alteration in the size, shape, and organization of differentiated cells

Question 26

A 34-year-old female client is requesting information about mammograms and breast cancer. She isn’t considered at high risk forbreast cancer. What should the nurse tell this client?
A When she begins having yearly mammograms, breast self-examinations will no longer be necessary.
B She should have had a baseline mammogram before age 30.
C She should eat a low-fat diet to further decrease her risk of breast cancer.
D She should perform breast self-

Answer 26

C She should eat a low-fat diet to further decrease her risk of breast cancer.

Question 27

A male client with a cerebellar brain tumor is admitted to an acute care facility. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. Which “related-to” phrase should the nurse add to complete the nursing diagnosis statement?
A Related to impaired balance
B Related to visual field deficits
C Related to difficulty swallowing
D Related to psychomotor seizures

Answer 27

A Related to impaired balance

Question 28

A male client undergoes a laryngectomy to treat laryngeal cancer. When teaching the client how to care for the neck stoma, the nurse should include which instruction?
A “Have a family member perform stoma care initially until you get used to the procedure.”
B “Keep the stoma uncovered.”
C “Keep the stoma dry.”
D “Keep the stoma moist.”

Answer 28

D “Keep the stoma moist.”

Question 29

When caring for a male client diagnosed with a brain tumor of the parietal lobe, the nurse expects to assess:
A seizures
B short-term memory impairment.
C contralateral homonymous hemianopia.
D tactile agnosia.

Answer 29

D tactile agnosia.

Question 30

Nurse April is teaching a client who suspects that she has a lump in her breast. The nurse instructs the client that a diagnosis of breast cancer is confirmed by:
A chest X-ray.
B mammography
C fine needle aspiration.
D breast self-examination.

Answer 30

C fine needle aspiration.

Question 31

As a shift leader making out patient assignments for the oncoming shift, how would you assign the care of a patient who has had a sealed radiation source placed?
a. You decide to rotate staff and assign a nurse who has not provided care for the patient.
b. You decide to assign the same nurse who had the patient yesterday to continue providing quality care.
c. Sealed radiation therapy has no special staffing restrictions.
d. You decide to assign one nurse to care for all the patients undergoing sealed radiation therapy to provide continuum of care.

Answer 31

a. You decide to rotate staff and assign a nurse who has not provided care for the patient.

Question 32

A patient who has undergone a bone marrow transplant is at greatest risk for what?
a. HIV
b. Bleeding and infection
c. Congestive heart failure
d. Liver failure

Answer 32

b. Bleeding and infection

Question 33

A patient with leukemia is entering the period known as “the nadir.” As the nurse, you know the following about this period:
a. The patient is at great risk for blood clots, and the patient may experience a platelet count of 500,000 or more.
b. The patient is at risk for elevated hemoglobin and hematocrit, therefore, is at risk for stroke.
c. The patient is at great risk for bleeding and can experience a platelet count of 50,000 or less during this period.

Answer 33

c. The patient is at great risk for bleeding and can experience a platelet count of 50,000 or less during this period.

Question 34

On assessment of a patient with leukemia, how would the patient present clinically?
a. Elevated hemoglobin and hematocrit, decreased platelets, decreased WBCs, and bradycardia.
b. Decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit, increased platelets, and elevated WBCs.
c. Decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit, decreased platelets, and elevated or normal WBCs with enlarged lymph nodes.
d. Normal hemoglobin and hematocrit, normal platelets, and increased WBCs.

Answer 34

c. Decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit, decreased platelets, and elevated or normal WBCs with enlarged lymph nodes.

Question 35

You are teaching a group of new nurse graduates hired in your oncology unit about oncological disorders. Which statement by a nursing graduate about Hodgkin’s Disease require re-education?
a. This disease always presents with hallmark signs of bone pain in the ribs, spine, and pelvis.
b. A positive biopsy of the lymph nodes with cervical nodes is most often affected.
c. A positive CT scan of the liver and spleen presents.
d. Reed Stenberg cells are present in the nodes.

Answer 35

a. This disease always presents with hallmark signs of bone pain in the ribs, spine, and pelvis.

Question 36

You are developing a plan of care for a patient with multiple myeloma. What nursing intervention/s would be included in their plan of care?
a. Assist with coughing and deep breathing exercises.
b. Encourage at least 2 liters of fluid per day and skeletal support during movement.
c. Apply antiembolic stockings as prescribed.
d. Discuss infertility issues with the patient.

Answer 36

b. Encourage at least 2 liters of fluid per day and skeletal support during movement.

Question 37

Which patient is at highest risk for cervical cancer?
a. A 32-year-old woman in a monogamous relationship who declined the HPV vaccine.
b. A 21-year-old who reports having her first sexual partner at the age of 14 and that she has had at least 10 sex partners.
c. A 60-year-old with a history of syphilis and cigarette smoking.
d. None of the patients are at risk for cervical cancer.

Answer 37

b. A 21-year-old who reports having her first sexual partner at the age of 14 and that she has had at least 10 sex partners

Question 38

As an oncological nurse, you know what finding is correct regarding breast cancer?
a. Masses are usually felt in the upper outer quadrant beneath the nipple or axilla.
b. Women who’ve had a late menarche and early menopause are at increased risk for breast cancer.
c. Nipple retraction is never present.
d. The mass is typically painful and red.

Answer 38

a. Masses are usually felt in the upper outer quadrant beneath the nipple or axilla.