Cancer Week Flashcards

1
Q

Define hypertrophy, atrophy, hyperplasia, metaplasia, dysplasia, and neoplasia.

A

HT - increase in size. AT - decrease in size/number. HP - increase in number. MP - change in cell type. DP - disordered growth. NP - growth without stimuli

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2
Q

Name the tumour that is benign and non-glandular and non-secretory.

A

Squamous papilloma

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3
Q

Name the type of tumour which is most common.

A

Epithelial (carcinoma)

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4
Q

When a tumour is identified, which type of neoplasia should be assumed until proven otherwise?

A

Carcinoma

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5
Q

What is the name of a tumour affecting the connective, lymphatic, or blood vessel tissue?

A

Sarcomas

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6
Q

Name tumours of smooth and skeletal muscle.

A

Smooth - leiomyosarcoma. Skeletal - rhabdomyosarcoma

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7
Q

Describe spread in sarcomas.

A

Usually only local (not really lymphatic) so can be big

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8
Q

Which type of tumour is most common in children?

A

Sarcoma (carcinomas are very rare in children)

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9
Q

Name the primary brain tumour.

A

Glioma

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10
Q

Why do gliomas not metastasize?

A

Blood-brain barrier

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11
Q

Name the four main categories of cancer treatment.

A

Palliative, radical, adjuvant, neo-adjuvant

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12
Q

What is the difference between neo-adjuvant and adjuvant therapy?

A

Neo-adjuvant therapy is pre-operative to reduce size

Adjuvant therapy is post-operative to reduce recurrence

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13
Q

What are the four endpoints of cancer treatment?

A

Overall-survival, disease free, progression-free, local control

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14
Q

Describe how radiotherapy works and how it is prescribed.

A

Breaks DNA during replication. Prescribed in Grays (Gy) in fractions

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15
Q

Name the chemotherapy agent types.

A

Alkylating agents, platinum salts, anti-metabolites, taxanes, arithrocyclines, topoisomerase inhibitors

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16
Q

Describe the mechanism of the drug herceptin.

A

Blocks HER2 receptors (EGFR)

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17
Q

Name the three main features of genetics in cancer.

A

Autosomal dominant, somatic mosaicism, proliferative/invasive phenotype

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18
Q

Describe the two-hit hypothesis.

A

Both chromosomes (i.e. both mother and father) must be ‘hit’ with a mutation. Therefore one germline mutation increases risk of cancer developing

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19
Q

Name the mechanism and drug inhibiting melanoma.

A

BRAF -> KRAS (verurafenib - BRAF inhibitor)

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20
Q

Name the mechanism and drug inhibiting the Philidelphia chromosome mutation metastasis.

A

ACL (imatinib, Glivec)

21
Q

Name the main treatments of BRCA1/BRCA2.

A

PARP inhibitors, platinum salts, immunotherapy

22
Q

An accumulation of which type of mutation increases risk of breast cancer?

A

SNIP - single nucleotide polymorphisms

23
Q

Describe the markers which indicate high, medium, and low risk of breast cancer in families.

A

High - identified BRCA1 mutation. Medium - young family members with breast/ovary cancer. Low - older members of a family with cancer

24
Q

Name the histological layers of the GI tract.

A

Mucosa (with lamina propria and muscularis mucosa), submucosa, muscularis externa (with inner circular and outer longitudinal layer)

25
Q

What is the difference between serosa and adventitia tissue?

A

Serosa - outer shiny layer

Adventitia - connects to other tissues

26
Q

What is GALT? How does it appear on histology?

A

Gut associated lymphoid tissue - purple dots (these are lymphocytes)

27
Q

Describe the TNM classification system.

A

T1 - breach of muscularis mucosa, T2 - breach of submucosa, T3 - breach of muscularis externa, T4 - escape to other tissues
N1 - 1-3 nodes affected, N2 - 4+ affected
M1 - distant metastasis identified

28
Q

Name some factors which may increase cancer risk.

A

Obesity, processed/red meat, alcohol, acrylamide (burned food), smoking, beta-carotene

29
Q

Name some factors which may decrease cancer ris.

A

Vitamin D, dairy and calcium, physical activity, breastfeeding, coffee

30
Q

Name the biochemical marker which can be used to differentiate the two main prostate conditions.

A

Prostate specific antigen (PSA)

Benign prostate hypertrophy (BPH) & cancer

31
Q

Describe the role of osteoblasts and osteoclasts.

A

‘blasts lay down bone tissue (using calcium and releasing ASP) and ‘clasts break it down.

32
Q

Name the three biochemical markers which may differentiate between bone and liver metastasis.

A

ALP, GGT, and AFP (for hepatocellular carcinoma)

33
Q

Describe how biochemistry may be used to identify risk of ascites fluid.

A

Albumin gradient (serum level minus fluid tap level)

34
Q

Define an exudate.

A

Fluid with a protein of > 30g/L or LDH that is above 2/3 the upper limit of normal (164 units/L)

35
Q

What are the suggestive differences between transudate and exudate?

A

Exudate - local

Transudate - systemic

36
Q

Describe the role of hypercalcaemia in biochemical cancer assessment.

A

Ca2+ is high in most cancers. It blocks parathyroid hormone (PTH) so if both are high, malignancy is indicated

37
Q

Name the three main paraneoplastic syndromes associated (in particular) with small cell lung cancer.

A

Lambert-Eaton, Cushing’s, SIADH

38
Q

Name the screening tests for breast and colon cancer.

A

Mammography and FOB/FIT kits

39
Q

What is the purpose of CT and MRI scans in cancer assessment?

A

Assesses the relation to multiple sites. IV contrast assesses multiple sites at once

40
Q

What are the four main sites of metastasis?

A

Brain, bone, liver, lung

41
Q

What is palliative care?

A

Intends to alleviate symptoms without treating the underlying cause. Improves QoL

42
Q

What are the treatment options for palliative care?

A

Drug therapy, surgery, drainage, vertebroplasty

43
Q

Describe the pain management model in palliative care.

A

Non-opioids -> opioids -> somatic fibre interruption

44
Q

Name the five main oncogenes and describe their associated malignancies.

A
ABL -> chronic myeloid leukamia
c-MYC -> Burkitt lymphoma
n-MYC -> neuroblastoma
BCL-2 -> follicular lymphoma
RAS -> many cancers, particularly pancreatic
45
Q

Name the six main tumour supressors and their associated malignancies.

A
p16 (multiple tumour suppressor) -> melanoma
p53 -> many cancers
APC -> colorectal cancer
BRCA1/2 -> breast/endometrial
NF1 -> neurofibramotisis
Rb -> Retinoblastoma
46
Q

Which oncogene is associated with Burkitt lymphoma?

A

c-myc

47
Q

Which oncogene is associated with follicular lymphoma?

A

BCL-2

48
Q

Which tumour suppressor is associated with colorectal cancer?

A

APC

49
Q

Which tumour suppressor is associated with chronic myeloid leukemia?

A

ABL