Cancer Screening Flashcards

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1
Q

What percentage of patients are ambulatory when they are first seen with spinal cord compression?

A

Approximately 90%

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2
Q

What are the symptoms of spinal cord compression?

A

More than 90% of patients complain of back pain. Patients with a history of cancer must be advised that back pain should be promptly evaluated by their physician.

Other symptoms of neurologic compromise include numbness, paresthesias, muscular weakness, and urinary and fecal incontinence.

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3
Q

What is the character of spinal cord compression pain?

A

Pain is localized to the spine and exacerbated by movement, recumbency, cough, sneezing, or strain.

The pain can be radicular in nature (sharp and electric shocklike, radiating in the distribution of a spinal nerve root).

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4
Q

What is the duration of pain in most patients with spinal cord compression?

A

Most have pain for weeks before the onset of neurologic symptoms; however, neurologic compromise is usually more rapid, typically occurring in hours to days.

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5
Q

What are the physical findings in patients with spinal cord compression?

A
  • Tenderness to percussion at the involved spine.
  • Neck flexion or straight leg-raise precipitates pain at the level of the problem.
  • Neurologic findings are decreased sensation and motor strength, positive Babinski sign, and hyperreflexia.
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6
Q

What is the radiographic study of choice to rule out spinal cord compression?

A

MRI of the cervical, thoracic, and lumbar spine

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7
Q

How does metastatic cancer cause loss of neurologic function in the spinal cord?

A

The tumor restricts the vascular supply to the spinal cord with resultant spinal cord infarction.

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8
Q

What is the treatment of acute spinal cord compression?

A
  • High-dose dexamethasone, followed by radiation therapy or surgical decompression.
  • Occasionally, chemotherapy can be used alone or in combination with radiotherapy.
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9
Q

What are the malignant causes of increased intracranial pressure?

A

Carcinomatous meningitis, intracranial metastases, and primary intracranial tumors

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10
Q

What are the symptoms and signs of intracranial metastatic disease?

A

Headache, nausea and vomiting, altered mental status, seizures, visual loss, focal neurologic deficits, papilledema, and coma

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11
Q

How are intracranial metastases diagnosed?

A

CT scan or MRI of the head

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12
Q

What is the treatment for acutely symptomatic intracranial metastases?

A
  • High-dose steroids
  • Anticonvulsants Mannitol
  • Hyperventilation (if the patient is intubated)
  • Surgery (for isolated masses) versus radiation therapy (for multiple lesions)
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13
Q

What are the symptoms of carcinomatous meningitis?

A

Headache, nausea and vomiting, radicular pain, altered mental status, diplopia, and blurred vision

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14
Q

What are the physical signs of carcinomatous meningitis?

A
  • Cranial nerve palsies
  • nuchal rigidity
  • other focal neurologic deficits
  • papilledema
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15
Q

How is the diagnosis of carcinomatous meningitis made?

A

Lumbar puncture for cytology.

Because of the lack of sensitivity, even multiple negative results do not rule out carcinomatous meningitis.

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16
Q

What is the treatment for carcinomatous meningitis?

A

Whole brain radiation therapy.

Intrathecal chemotherapy is occasionally successful for a short time, depending on the underlying tumor type.

17
Q

What is SVC syndrome?

A

The clinical expression of the obstruction of blood return through the SVC

18
Q

What are the common signs of SVC syndrome?

A

Visible collaterals of the superficial thoracic vein, neck vein distention, facial edema, and tachypnea.

Occasionally, facial plethora, cyanosis, upper extremity edema, Horner syndrome, and vocal cord paralysis

19
Q

What is the most common radiographic finding in the SVC syndrome?

A

A right mediastinal mass

20
Q

Is SVC syndrome usually acutely life-threatening?

A

Not usually

21
Q

What is the treatment for SVC syndrome?

A

First, a biopsy sample of the mass is obtained for a definitive diagnosis because there are nonmalignant causes.

In malignant cases, both chemotherapy and radiation may be used depending on the type of cancer.

22
Q

What is the treatment for hypercalcemia?

A
  • Aggressive hydration.
  • Diuretics after aggressive IV hydration can enhance calciuresis.
  • Bisphosphonates are effective and are commonly used after rehydration.
23
Q

What are some causes of hyperuricemia?

A

High-purine diet, tumor lysis syndrome, decreased uric acid excretion

24
Q

What are some of the consequences of hyperuricemia?

A

Renal insufficiency (urine becomes supersaturated with urate and crystals of uric acid), uric acid arthropathy, and gout

25
Q

What is the management of hyperuricemia?

A
  • Prophylactic measures need to be undertaken before cytotoxic chemotherapy.
  • Medications that lead to an elevated serum uric acid or that acidify urine are discontinued.
  • Allopurinol is started, IV hydration is begun to maintain the urine output of 150–200 cc/h, and urine is alkalinized with sodium bicarbonate to a pH of 7–7.5.
26
Q

Which malignancies are the most common cause of the tumor lysis syndrome?

A

Large bulky tumors (>10 cm) that are responsive to chemotherapy (e.g., ALL, AML, high-grade lymphomas such as Burkitt lymphoma, Hodgkin disease, and SCLC)

27
Q

What are the electrolyte and metabolic abnormalities that occur with tumor lysis syndrome?

A
  • Hypocalcemia
  • hyperuricemia
  • hyperkalemia
  • hyperphosphatemia
  • metabolic acidosis
28
Q

What causes renal failure in patients with tumor lysis syndrome?

A

Precipitation of urate crystals in the tubules

29
Q

How is tumor lysis syndrome treated?

A
  • Hydration and alkalinization of the urine (the urinary pH is
    maintained at 7–7.5).
  • Dialysis may be required.
30
Q

What prophylactic therapy should be used in patients with a large tumor burden who are at risk for tumor lysis syndrome?

A
  • Allopurinol.

- The dose often needs to be adjusted for renal insufficiency in this setting.

31
Q

At what WBC count is the patient at significant risk for infection?

A

An absolute neutrophil count that is <1,000/mm^3 places the patient at the risk for infection. Patients with absolute neutrophil counts <500/mm^3 are at the greatest risk.

32
Q

What is the management of patients with significant neutropenia, fever, and no obvious source of infection?

A
  • Panculture and broad-spectrum antibiotics (e.g., a penicillinase-resistant beta-lactam or third-generation cephalosporin + an aminoglycoside).
  • The choice of antibiotic depends on the flora and sensitivities at the hospital (consider additional coverage for gram-positive organisms for severe mucositis).
33
Q

What is the management for patients with significant neutropenia, no obvious source, and fever for 2–5 days despite antibiotics?

A

If fevers persist after 2–5 days, then antifungal agents should be considered.

34
Q

What other treatment options are considered for patients with neutropenic fever?

A

Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor