Cancer Questions Flashcards

1
Q

While being prepared for a biopsy of a lump in the right breast, the patient asks the nurse what the difference is between a benign tumor and a malignant tumor. The nurse explains that a benign tumor differs from a malignant tumor in that benign tumors

a. do not cause damage to adjacent tissue.
b. do not spread to other tissues and organs.
c. are simply an overgrowth of normal cells.
d. frequently recur in the same site.

A

B
Rationale: The major difference between benign and malignant tumors is that malignant tumors invade adjacent tissues and spread to distant tissues and benign tumors never metastasize. Both types of tumors may cause damage to adjacent tissues. The cells differ from normal in both benign and malignant tumors. Benign tumors usually do not recur.

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2
Q

A patient who has been told by the health care provider that the cells in a bowel tumor are poorly differentiated asks the nurse what is meant by “poorly differentiated.” Which response should the nurse make?

a. “The cells in your tumor do not look very different from normal bowel cells.”
b. “The tumor cells have DNA that is different from your normal bowel cells.”
c. “Your tumor cells look more like immature fetal cells than normal bowel cells.”
d. “The cells in your tumor have mutated from the normal bowel cells.”

A

C
Rationale: An undifferentiated cell has an appearance more like a stem cell or fetal cell and less like the normal cells of the organ or tissue. The DNA in cancer cells is always different from normal cells, whether the cancer cells are well differentiated or not. All tumor cells are mutations form the normal cells of the tissue.

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3
Q

A patient who smokes tells the nurse, “I want to have a yearly chest x-ray so that if I get cancer, it will be detected early.” Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

a. “Chest x-rays do not detect cancer until tumors are already at least a half-inch in size.”
b. “Annual x-rays will increase your risk for cancer because of exposure to radiation.”
c. “Insurance companies do not authorize yearly x-rays just to detect early lung cancer.”
d. “Frequent x-rays damage the lungs and make them more susceptible to cancer.”

A

A
Rationale: A tumor must be at least 1 cm large before it is detectable by an x-ray and may already have metastasized by that time. Radiographs have low doses of radiation, and an annual x-ray alone is not likely to increase lung cancer risk. Insurance companies do not usually authorize x-rays for this purpose, but it would not be appropriate for the nurse to give this as the reason for not doing an x-ray. A yearly x-ray is not a risk factor for lung cancer.

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4
Q

In teaching about cancer prevention to a community group, the nurse stresses promotion of exercise, normal body weight, and low-fat diet because

a. most people are willing to make these changes to avoid cancer.
b. dietary fat and obesity promote growth of many types of cancer.
c. people who exercise and eat healthy will make other lifestyle changes.
d. obesity and lack of exercise cause cancer in susceptible people.

A

B
Rationale: Obesity and dietary fat promote the growth of malignant cells, and decreasing these risk factors can reduce the chance of cancer development. Many people are not willing to make these changes. Good diet and exercise habits are not a guarantee that other healthy lifestyle changes will then occur. Obesity and lack of exercise do not cause cancer, but they promote the growth of altered cells.

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5
Q

During a routine health examination, a 30-year-old patient tells the nurse about a family history of colon cancer. The nurse will plan to

a. teach the patient about the need for a colonoscopy at age 50.
b. ask the patient to bring in a stool specimen to test for occult blood.
c. schedule a sigmoidoscopy to provide baseline data about the patient.
d. have the patient ask the doctor about specific tests for colon cancer.

A

D
Rationale: The patient is at increased risk and should talk with the health care provider about needed tests, which will depend on factors such as the exact type of family history and any current symptoms. Colonoscopy at age 50 is used to screen for individuals without symptoms or increased risk, but earlier testing may be needed for this patient because of family history. For fecal occult blood testing, patients use a take-home multiple sample method rather than bring one specimen to the clinic. The health care provider will take multiple factors into consideration before determining whether a sigmoidoscopy is needed at age 30.

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6
Q

When reviewing the chart for a patient with cervical cancer, the nurse notes that the cancer is staged as Tis, N0, M0. The nurse will teach the patient that

a. the cancer cells are well-differentiated.
b. it is difficult to determine the original site of the cervical cancer.
c. further testing is needed to determine the spread of the cancer.
d. the cancer is localized to the cervix.

A

D
Rationale: Cancer in situ indicates that the cancer is localized to the cervix and is not invasive at this time. Cell differentiation is not indicated by clinical staging. Because the cancer is in situ, the origin is the cervix. Further testing is not indicated given that the cancer has not spread.

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7
Q

Which statement by a patient who is scheduled for a needle biopsy of the prostate indicates that the patient understands the purpose of a biopsy?

a. “The biopsy will tell the doctor whether the cancer has spread to my other organs.”
b. “The biopsy will help the doctor decide what treatment to use for my enlarged prostate.”
c. “The biopsy will determine how much longer I have to live.”
d. “The biopsy will indicate the effect of the cancer on my life.”

A

B
Rationale: A biopsy is used to determine whether the prostate enlargement is benign or malignant and determines the type of treatment that will be needed. Biopsy does not give information about metastasis, life expectancy, or the impact of cancer on the patient’s life; the three remaining statements indicate a need for patient teaching.

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8
Q

The nurse is teaching a postmenopausal patient with breast cancer about the expected outcomes of her cancer treatment. The nurse evaluates that the teaching has been effective when the patient says

a. “After cancer has not recurred for 5 years, it is considered cured.”
b. “I will need to have follow-up examinations for many years after I have treatment before I can be considered cured.”
c. “Cancer is considered cured if the entire tumor is surgically removed.”
d. “Cancer is never considered cured, but the tumor can be controlled with surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation.”

A

B
Rationale: The risk of recurrence varies by the type of cancer; for breast cancer in postmenopausal women, the patient needs at least 20 disease-free years to be considered cured. Some cancers (e.g., leukemia) are cured by nonsurgical therapies such as radiation and chemotherapy.

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9
Q

A patient with a large stomach tumor that is attached to the liver is scheduled to have a debulking procedure. The nurse explains that the expected outcome of this surgery is

a. control of the tumor growth by removal of malignant tissue.
b. promotion of better nutrition by relieving the pressure in the stomach.
c. relief of pain by cutting sensory nerves in the stomach.
d. reduction of the tumor burden to enhance adjuvant therapy.

A

D
Rationale: A debulking surgery reduces the size of the tumor and makes radiation and chemotherapy more effective. Debulking surgeries do not control tumor growth. The tumor is debulked because it is attached to the liver, a vital organ (not to relieve pressure on the stomach). Debulking does not sever the sensory nerves, although pain may be lessened by the reduction in pressure on the abdominal organs.

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10
Q

External-beam radiation is planned for a patient with endometrial cancer. The nurse teaches the patient that an important measure to prevent complications from the effects of the radiation is to

a. test all stools for the presence of blood.
b. inspect the mouth and throat daily for the appearance of thrush.
c. perform perianal care with sitz baths and meticulous cleaning.
d. maintain a high-residue, high-fat diet.

A

C
Rationale: Radiation to the abdomen will affect organs in the radiation path, such as the bowel, and cause frequent diarrhea. Stools are likely to have occult blood from the inflammation associated with radiation, so routine testing of stools for blood is not indicated. Radiation to the abdomen will not cause stomatitis. A low-residue diet is recommended to avoid irritation of the bowel when patients receive abdominal radiation.

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11
Q

Which action by a nursing assistant (NA) caring for a patient with a temporary radioactive cervical implant indicates that the RN should intervene?

a. The NA places the patient’s bedding in the laundry container in the hallway.
b. The NA flushes the toilet once after emptying the patient’s bedpan.
c. The NA stands by the patient’s bed for an hour talking with the patient.
d. The NA gives the patient an alcohol-containing mouthwash for oral care.

A

C
Rationale: Because patients with temporary implants emit radioactivity while the implants are in place, exposure to the patient is limited. Laundry and urine/feces do not have any radioactivity and do not require special precautions. Cervical radiation will not affect the oral mucosa, and alcohol-based mouthwash is not contraindicated

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12
Q

A patient with Hodgkin’s lymphoma is undergoing external radiation therapy on an outpatient basis. After 2 weeks of treatment, the patient tells the nurse, “I am so tired I can hardly get out of bed in the morning.” An appropriate intervention for the nurse to plan with the patient is to
a. exercise vigorously when fatigue is not as noticeable.
b. consult with a psychiatrist for treatment of depression.
c. establish a time to take a short walk
D. Keep on bed rest

A

C
Rationale: Walking programs are used to keep the patient active without excessive fatigue. Vigorous exercise when the patient is less tired may lead to increased fatigue. Fatigue is expected during treatment and is not an indication of depression. Bed rest will lead to weakness and other complications of immobility.

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13
Q

Which information obtained by the nurse about a patient with colon cancer who is scheduled for external radiation therapy to the abdomen indicates a need for patient teaching?

a. The patient swims a mile 5 days a week.
b. The patient eats frequently during the day.
c. The patient showers with Dove soap daily.
d. The patient has a history of dental caries.

A

A
Rationale: The patient is instructed to avoid swimming in salt water or chlorinated pools during the treatment period. The patient does not need to change the habits of eating frequently or showering with a mild soap. A history of dental caries will not impact the patient who is scheduled for abdominal radiation.

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14
Q

A patient undergoing external radiation has developed a dry desquamation of the skin in the treatment area. The nurse knows that teaching about management of the skin reaction has been effective when the patient says

a. “I can use ice packs to relieve itching in the treatment area.”
b. “I can buy a steroid cream to use on the itching area.”
c. “I will expose the treatment area to a sun lamp daily.”
d. “I will scrub the area with warm water to remove the scales.”

A

B
Rationale: Steroid (over-the-counter [OTC] hydrocortisone) cream may be used to reduce itching in the area. Ice and sunlamps may injure the skin. Treatment areas should be cleaned gently to avoid further injury.

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15
Q

A patient with metastatic cancer of the colon experiences severe vomiting following each administration of chemotherapy. An important nursing intervention for the patient is to

a. teach about the importance of nutrition during treatment.
b. have the patient eat large meals when nausea is not present.
c. administer prescribed antiemetics 1 hour before the treatments.
d. offer dry crackers and carbonated fluids during chemotherapy.

A

C
Rationale: Treatment with antiemetics before chemotherapy may help to prevent anticipatory nausea. Although nausea may lead to poor nutrition, there is no indication that the patient needs instruction about nutrition. The patient should eat small, frequent meals. Offering food and beverages during chemotherapy is likely to cause nausea.

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16
Q

When the nurse is administering a vesicant chemotherapeutic agent intravenously, an important consideration is to

a. stop the infusion if swelling is observed at the site.
b. infuse the medication over a short period.
c. administer the chemotherapy through small-bore catheter.
d. hold the medication unless a central venous line is available.

A

A
Rationale: Swelling at the site may indicate extravasation, and the IV should be stopped immediately. The medication should generally be given slowly to avoid irritation of the vein. The size of the catheter is not as important as administration of vesicants into a running IV line to allow dilution of the chemotherapy drug. These medications can be given through peripheral lines, although central vascular access devices (CVADs) are preferred

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17
Q

A chemotherapeutic agent known to cause alopecia is prescribed for a patient. To maintain the patient’s self-esteem, the nurse plans to

a. suggest that the patient limit social contacts until regrowth of the hair occurs.
b. encourage the patient to purchase a wig or hat and wear it once hair loss begins.
c. have the patient wash the hair gently with a mild shampoo to minimize hair loss.
d. inform the patient that hair loss will not be permanent and that the hair will grow back.

A

B
Rationale: The patient is taught to anticipate hair loss and to be prepared with wigs, scarves, or hats. Limiting social contacts is not appropriate at a time when the patient is likely to need a good social support system. The damage occurs at the hair follicle and will occur regardless of gentle washing or use of a mild shampoo. The information that the hair will grow back is not immediately helpful in maintaining the patient’s self-esteem.

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18
Q

A patient with ovarian cancer tells the nurse, “I don’t think my husband cares about me anymore. He rarely visits me.” On one occasion when the husband was present, he told the nurse he just could not stand to see his wife so ill and never knew what to say to her. An appropriate nursing diagnosis in this situation is

a. compromised family coping related to disruption in lifestyle and role changes.
b. impaired home maintenance related to perceived role changes.
c. risk for caregiver role strain related to burdens of caregiving responsibilities.
d. interrupted family processes related to effect of illness on family members.

A

D.
Rationale: The data indicate that this diagnosis is most appropriate because the family members are impacted differently by the patient’s cancer diagnosis. There are no data to suggest a change in lifestyle or role as an etiology. The data do not support impairment in home maintenance or a burden caused by caregiving responsibilities.

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19
Q

A patient receiving head and neck radiation and systemic chemotherapy has ulcerations over the oral mucosa and tongue and thick, ropey saliva. An appropriate intervention for the nurse to teach the patient is to

a. remove food debris from the teeth and oral mucosa with a stiff toothbrush.
b. use cotton-tipped applicators dipped in hydrogen peroxide to clean the teeth.
c. gargle and rinse the mouth several times a day with an antiseptic mouthwash.
d. rinse the mouth before and after each meal and at bedtime with a saline solution

A

D
Rationale: The patient should rinse the mouth with a saline solution frequently. A soft toothbrush is used for oral care. Hydrogen peroxide may damage tissues. Antiseptic mouthwashes may irritate the oral mucosa and are not recommended.

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20
Q

A patient who is receiving interleukin-2 (IL-2) therapy (Proleukin) complains to the nurse about all of these symptoms. Which one is most important to report to the health care provider?

a. Generalized aches
b. Dyspnea
c. Decreased appetite
d. Insomnia

A

B
Rationale: Dyspnea may indicate capillary leak syndrome and pulmonary edema, which requires rapid treatment. The other symptoms are common with IL-2 therapy, and the nurse should teach the patient that these are common adverse effects that will resolve at the end of the therapy.

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21
Q

A 32-year-old male patient is to undergo radiation therapy to the pelvic area for Hodgkin’s lymphoma. He expresses concern to the nurse about the effect of chemotherapy on his sexual function. The best response by the nurse to the patient’s concerns is

a. “Radiation does not cause the problems with sexual functioning that occur with chemotherapy or surgical procedures used to treat cancer.”
b. “It is possible you may have some changes in your sexual function, and you may want to consider pretreatment harvesting of sperm if you want children.”
c. “The radiation will make you sterile, but your ability to have sexual intercourse will not be changed by the treatment.”
d. “You may have some temporary impotence during the course of the radiation, but normal sexual function will return

A

B
Rationale: The impact on sperm count and erectile function depends on the patient’s pretreatment status and on the amount of exposure to radiation. The patient should consider sperm donation before radiation. Radiation (like chemotherapy or surgery) may affect both sexual function and fertility either temporarily or permanently.

22
Q
  1. A 40-year-old divorced mother of four school-age children is hospitalized with metastatic cancer of the ovary. The nurse finds the patient crying, and she tells the nurse that she does not know what will happen to her children when she dies. The most appropriate response by the nurse is
    a. “Why don’t we talk about the options you have for the care of your children?”
    b. “Many patients with cancer live for a long time, so there is time to plan for your children.”
    c. “For now you need to concentrate on getting well, not worry about your children.”
    d. “Perhaps your ex-husband will take the children when you can’t care for them.”
A

A
Rationale: This response expresses the nurse’s willingness to listen and recognizes the patient’s concern. The responses beginning “Many patients with cancer live for a long time” and “For now you need to concentrate on getting well” close off discussion of the topic and indicate that the nurse is uncomfortable with the topic. In addition, the patient with metastatic ovarian cancer may not have a long time to plan. Although it is possible that the patient’s ex-husband will take the children, more assessment information is needed before making plans.

23
Q

A patient who has terminal cancer of the liver and is cared for by family members at home tells the nurse, “I have intense pain most of the time now.” The nurse recognizes that teaching regarding pain management has been effective when the patient

a. uses the ordered opioid pain medication whenever the pain is greater than 5 on a 10-point scale.
b. states that nonopioid analgesics may be used when the maximal dose of the opioid is reached without adequate pain relief.
c. agrees to take the medications by the IV route to improve effectiveness.
d. takes opioids around the clock on a regular schedule and uses additional doses when breakthrough pain occurs.

A

D
Rationale: For chronic cancer pain, analgesics should be taken on a scheduled basis, with additional doses as needed for breakthrough pain. Taking the medications only when pain reaches a certain level does not provide effective pain control. Although nonopioid analgesics may also be used, there is no maximum dose of opioid. Opioids are given until pain control is achieved. The IV route is not more effective than the oral route and the oral route is preferred.

24
Q

Interleukin-2 (IL-2) is used as adjuvant therapy for a patient with metastatic renal cell carcinoma. The nurse teaches the patient that the purpose of therapy with this agent is to

a. protect normal kidney cells from the damaging effects of chemotherapy.
b. enhance the patient’s immunologic response to tumor cells.
c. stimulate malignant cells in the resting phase to enter mitosis.
d. prevent the bone marrow depression caused by chemotherapy.

A

B
Rationale: IL-2 enhances the ability of the patient’s own immune response to suppress tumor cells. IL-2 does not protect normal cells from damage caused by chemotherapy, stimulate malignant cells to enter mitosis, or prevent bone marrow depression.

25
Q

The home health nurse is caring for a patient who has been receiving interferon therapy for treatment of cancer. Which statement by the patient may indicate a need for a change in treatment?

a. “I have frequent muscle aches and pains.”
b. “I rarely have the energy to get out of bed.”
c. “I take acetaminophen (Tylenol) every 4 hours.”
d. “I experience chills after I inject the interferon.”

A

B
Rationale: Fatigue can be a dose-limiting toxicity for use of biologic therapies. Flulike symptoms, such as muscle aches and chills, are common side effects with interferon use. Patients are advised to use Tylenol every 4 hours.

26
Q

Which information noted by the nurse reviewing the laboratory results of a patient who is receiving chemotherapy is most important to report to the health care provider?

a. Hemoglobin of 10 g/L
b. WBC count of 1700/µl
c. Platelets of 65,000/µl
d. Serum creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dl

A

B
Rationale: Neutropenia places the patient at risk for severe infection and is an indication that the chemotherapy dose may need to be lower or that white blood cell (WBC) growth factors such as filgrastim (Neupogen) are needed. The other laboratory data do not indicate any immediate life-threatening adverse effects of the chemotherapy.

27
Q

A bone marrow transplant is being considered for treatment of a patient with acute leukemia that has not responded to chemotherapy. In discussing the treatment with the patient, the nurse explains that

a. hospitalization will be required for several weeks after the hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT).
b. the transplant of the donated cells is painful because of the nerves in the tissue lining the bone.
c. donor bone marrow cells are transplanted immediately after an infusion of chemotherapy.
d. the transplant procedure takes place in a sterile operating room to minimize the risk for infection.

A

A
Rationale: The patient requires strict protective isolation to prevent infection for 2 to 4 weeks after HSCT while waiting for the transplanted marrow to start producing cells. The transplanted cells are infused through an IV line, so the transplant is not painful, nor is an operating room required. The HSCT takes place 1 or 2 days after chemotherapy to prevent damage to the transplanted cells by the chemotherapy drugs.

28
Q

The nurse teaches a patient with cancer of the liver about high-protein, high-calorie diet choices. Which snack choice by the patient indicates that the teaching has been effective?

a. Fresh fruit salad
b. Orange sherbet
c. Strawberry yogurt
d. French fries

A

C
Rationale: Yogurt has high biologic value because of the protein and fat content. Fruit salad does not have high amounts of protein or fat. Orange sherbet is lower in fat and protein than yogurt. French fries are high in calories from fat but low in protein.

29
Q

The nurse has identified the nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to altered taste sensation in a patient with lung cancer who has had a 10% loss in weight. An appropriate nursing intervention that addresses the etiology of this problem is to

a. provide foods that are highly spiced to stimulate the taste buds.
b. avoid presenting foods for which the patient has a strong dislike.
c. add strained baby meats to foods such as soups and casseroles.
d. teach the patient to eat whatever is nutritious since food is tasteless.

A

B
Rationale: The patient will eat more if disliked foods are avoided and foods that patient likes are included instead. Additional spice is not usually an effective way to enhance taste. Adding baby meats to foods will increase calorie and protein levels, but does not address the issue of taste. Patients will not improve intake by eating foods that are beneficial but have unpleasant taste.

30
Q

After the nurse has explained the purpose of and schedule for chemotherapy to a 23-year-old patient who recently received a diagnosis of acute leukemia, the patient asks the nurse to repeat the information. Based on this assessment, which nursing diagnosis is most likely for the patient?

a. Acute confusion related to infiltration of leukemia cells into the central nervous system
b. Knowledge deficit: chemotherapy related to a lack of interest in learning about treatment
c. Risk for ineffective health maintenance related to anxiety about new leukemia diagnosis
d. Risk for ineffective adherence to treatment related to denial of need for chemotherapy

A

C
Rationale: The patient who has a new cancer diagnosis is likely to have high anxiety, which may impact learning and require that the nurse repeat and reinforce information. The patient’s history of a recent diagnosis suggests that infiltration of the leukemia is not a likely cause of the confusion. The patient asks for the information to be repeated, indicating that lack of interest in learning and denial are not etiologic factors.

31
Q

A hospitalized patient who has received chemotherapy for leukemia develops neutropenia. Which observation by the RN caring for the patient indicates that the nurse should take action?

a. The patient’s visitors bring in some fresh peaches from home.
b. The patient ambulates several times a day in the room.
c. The patient uses soap and shampoo to shower every other day.
d. The patient cleans with a warm washcloth after having a stool.

A

A
Rationale: Fresh, thinned-skin peaches are not permitted in a neutropenic diet because of the risk of bacteria being present. The patient should ambulate in the room rather than the hospital hallway to avoid exposure to other patients or visitors. Because overuse of soap can dry the skin and increase infection risk, showering every other day is acceptable. Careful cleaning after having a bowel movement will help to prevent perineal skin breakdown and infection.

32
Q

Which action by a nursing assistant (NA) when caring for a patient who is pancytopenic indicates a need for the nurse to intervene?

a. The NA assists the patient to use dental floss after eating.
b. The NA makes an oral rinse using 1 teaspoon of salt in a liter of water.
c. The NA adds baking soda to the patient’s saline oral rinses.
d. The NA puts fluoride toothpaste on the patient’s toothbrush.

A

A
Rationale: Use of dental floss is avoided in patients with pancytopenia because of the risk for infection and bleeding. The other actions are appropriate for oral care of a pancytopenic patient.

33
Q

A with tumor lysis syndrome (TLS) is taking allopurinol (Xyloprim). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication?

a. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
b. Serum phosphate
c. Serum potassium
d. Uric acid level

A

D
Rationale: Allopurinol is used to decrease uric acid levels. BUN, potassium, and phosphate levels are also increased in TLS but are not affected by allopurinol therapy.

34
Q
  1. When assessing a patient’s needs for psychologic support after the patient has been diagnosed with stage I cancer of the colon, which question by the nurse will provide the most information?
    a. “Can you tell me what has been helpful to you in the past when coping with stressful events?”
    b. “How long ago were you diagnosed with this cancer?”
    c. “Are you familiar with the stages of emotional adjustment to a diagnosis like cancer of the colon?”
    d. “How do you feel about having a possibly terminal illness?”
A

A
Rationale: Information about how the patient has coped with past stressful situations helps the nurse determine usual coping mechanisms and their effectiveness. The length of time since the diagnosis will not provide much information about the patient’s need for support. The patient’s knowledge of typical stages in adjustment to a critical diagnosis does not provide insight into patient needs for assistance. The patient with stage I cancer is not considered to have a terminal illness at this time, and this question is likely to worry the patient unnecessarily.

35
Q

A 61-year-old woman who is 5 feet, 3 inches tall and weighs 125 pounds (57 kg) tells the nurse that she has a glass of wine two or three times a week. The patient works for the post office and has a 5-mile mail-delivery route. This is her first contact with the health care system in 20 years. Which of these topics will the nurse plan to include in patient teaching about cancer? (Select all that apply.)

a. Alcohol use
b. Physical activity
c. Body weight
d. Colorectal screening
e. Tobacco use
f. Mammography
g. Pap testing
h. Sunscreen use

A

D, F, G, H
Rationale: The patient’s age, gender, and history indicate a need for teaching about or screening or both for colorectal cancer, mammography, Pap smears, and sunscreen. The patient does not use excessive alcohol or tobacco, she is physically active, and her body weight is healthy.

36
Q

Grading of malignant tumors

A
Gx
G1
G2
G3
G4
37
Q

Gx

A

Grade cannot be determined

38
Q

G1

A
  • Tumor cells are well differentiated and closely resemble the normal cells from which they arose
  • Considered low grade
  • Malignant but relatively slow growing
39
Q

G2

A

Moderately differentiated. Still retain some of the characteristics of normal cells but also have more malign went characteristics then g1

40
Q

G3

A
  • Poorly differentiated. But the tissue of origin can usually be established
  • The cells have few normal cell characteristics
41
Q

G4

A
  • Tumor cells are poorly differentiated and retain no normal cell characteristics
  • Determination of the tissue of origin is difficult an perhaps impossible
42
Q

Staging of cancer

A

Tnm classification

43
Q

Tx

A

Primary tumor cannot be assessed

44
Q

T0

A

No evidence of primary tumor

45
Q

Tis

A

Carcinoma in situ

46
Q

T1,T2, T3, T4

A

Increasing size or local extent of the primary tumor

47
Q

Nx

A

Regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed

48
Q

N0

A

No regional lymph node metastasis

49
Q

N1, N2, N3

A

Increasing movement of regional lymph nodes

50
Q

Mx

A

Presence of distant metastasis cannot be assessed

51
Q

M0

A

No distant metastasis

52
Q

M1

A

Distant metastasis