Cancer Genetics Flashcards

1
Q

cancer

A

-environment plus genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

tumor

A
  • overgrowth of cell material
  • solid vs dispersed
  • clonality
  • benign-milder, usually harmless, non progressive disease, doesn’t metastasize
  • malignant
  • single cell with a mutation that proliferates to form a group
  • can get additional mutations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

malignancy

A
  • uncontrolled cell growth characterized by a change in the normal organizational pattern of tissues or cells
  • karyotypic changes, mets
  • malignant tumors tend to be deleterious and may metastasize
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

mets

A
  • when cells become invasive or migrate to another site
  • retain original cell morphology
  • still classified by primary site
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

cancer 2

A
  • malignant tumor of potentially unlimited growth that expands locally by invasion and systemically my mets
  • overgrowth of cell material
  • clonal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

types of cancer

A
  • sarcoma- mesenchymal tissue (bone, cart, muscle, fat)
  • carcinoma-epitheloid tissues
  • hematopoietic/lymphoid- leukemias (WBC from bone marrow) and lymphomas (WBC from spleen and lymph nodes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

environment

A
  • mutagens:
  • UV, asbestos, cigarette smoke, plastics, dyes
  • effect changes in normal cell regulation and/or development
  • additional element in cancer induction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

hallmarks of cancer

A
  • mutation of loss of genes involved in cell control including growth/division, proliferation, metabolism
  • environmental elements may influence mutation
  • mutations may be inherited or acquired
  • chromosome instability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

types of genes associated with cancer

A
  • proto-oncogenes/ oncogenes

- tumor suppressors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

oncogene

A
  • dominantly acting gene involved in unregulated cell growth and proliferation
  • carried by viruses
  • associated with disease in animals
  • H-ras-harvey rat sarcoma virus
  • sis-simian sarcoma virus
  • abl-abelson murine leukemia virus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

viral oncogenes in humans

A
  • HPV
  • EBV-nasopharyngeal cancer, hodgkin and burkitt lymphoma
  • HHV-8- herpes- kaposi sarcoma
  • HTLV1- T cell leukemia
  • HTLV-2- various leukemias

-mutation of proton oncogene in humans/ other mammals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

proto-oncogene

A
  • structurally important housekeeping genes involved in cell proliferation and development
  • GF
  • cell surface receptors
  • intracellular signal transduction
  • DNA binding proteins
  • regulation of cell cycle
  • mutation can result in activation of proto-oncogene
  • this may cause a change in gene regulation, transcription, or a protein product generating alterations to cell growth, proliferation, or differentiation
  • can lead to tumorigenesis
  • gain of function mutation
  • dominant- only 1 mutation required
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

CML

A
  • relatively common form of leukemia
  • first one associated with genetic marker- Ph chromosome
  • delineation of the genetic abnormality led to a better understanding of proto-oncogenes
  • allowed development of a new class of drug- targeting to genetic lesion
  • gleevec-BCR-ABL specific tyrosine kinase inhibitor
  • molecular analysis led to new ideas about treatment of disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

APL

A
  • acute promyelocytic leukemia
  • 15,17 translocation, breaks PML gene on 15 and RARA gene on 17
  • chimeric protein product
  • dual fusion probe
  • half of each probe is moved to reciprocal chromosome
  • 1 red, 1 green and two yellow signals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

15,17 translocation

A
  • clinically diagnostic of APL and is required for a positive diagnosis of the disease
  • results in a fusion signal found by FISH
  • aids in diagnosis and monitoring
  • if normal signal pattern returns after treatment- remission
  • fusion returns- relapse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

tumor suppressor

A
  • genetic element whose loss or inactivation allows the cell to display an alternate phenotype leading to neoplastic growth
  • oncogenic potential when gene is lose
  • recessive
  • normally prevent overgrowth
  • need 2 hits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

tumor suppressor 2

A
  • gate keepers- suppress tumors by regulating cell cycle or growth inhibition
  • caretakers- repair DNA damage and maintain genomic integrity
  • effect is indirect- accumulation of errors in cell
  • increase in genomic instability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

normal functions of tumor suppressors

A
  • cell to cell interactions
  • regulation of growth inhibitory substances
  • cell proliferation
  • cell differentiation
  • chromosome repair
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

common tumor suppressors

A
  • Rb1
  • p53 on 17p
  • MTS1- common
  • WT-1
  • APC
  • MCC
  • DCC
  • NF1
  • Merlin
  • VHL
  • MTS1
  • BRCA1/ 2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

solid tumors

A
  • mutations of tumor suppressors are often expressed as solid tumors
  • difficult to culture, but karyotype analysis can be useful, but chromosome changes aren’t always found
  • number of diseases are known to have specific chromosomal changes, so this information can be used in classification
  • most tumor suppressors are tissue specific- mutations will only cause disease in 1 or 2 cell types
  • benign tumors can have chromosome changes and malignant can have none
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Rb1

A
  • classic gatekeeper mutation
  • functions in regulation of the cell cycle
  • controls progression of G1 to S
  • loss of function eliminates an important mitotic checkpoint, resulting in uncontrolled growth
  • on chromosome 13q 14.2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

retinoblastoma

A
  • 1/20,000
  • prenatal to 5 years old
  • tumor of retinoblasts
  • once they mature to retinal cells the target tissue is gone and so you can’t get disease after this point
  • uni or bilateral
  • if untreated can grow forward or backwards
  • some may be treated by laser surgery
  • severe cases require enucleation
  • sporadic is usually unilateral
  • inherited is often bilateral
  • secondary cancer is osteosarcoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

mechanism of retinoblastoma

A
  • if one is inherited, then all the cells will have 1 mutation
  • disease is tissue specific
  • if second mutation of RB1 locus occurs in any retinoblast cell, the probability of a tumor is high
  • more than one mutation can occur , so that several tumors in one or both eyes can occur
  • mutation rate is 10^-6 and 10^7 cells- probability is high- penetrance of 90%
  • if no inherited mutation, both have to occur on the somatic level
  • 2 mutations in one cell
  • probability is low
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

two hit hypothesis

A
  • two mutations in the same cell
  • sporadic usually unilateral
  • inherited usually bilateral
  • appearance of dominance
  • gene itself isn’t dominant- tumor suppressors are recessive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
tumor suppressor 3
- primary mutation has a specific tissue target - can be secondary to another cancer gene - somatic usually occur at older ages (takes longer to get 2 mutations) - familial usually occur younger (2nd mutation doesn't take as long)
26
familial cancers
- breast and ovarian - familial polyposis - retinoblastoma - von recklinghausen neurofibromatosis - wilm's tumor - VHL/ renal cell cancer
27
Li Fraumeni
- familial cancer syndrome - multiple neoplasia - increased risk of cancer - 50% at age 30 - 90% at age 70 - inherited mutation of p53 - breast, lung, colon, prostate, brain - soft tissue sarcoma, breast cancer, adenocortical cancer, leukemia, brain tumors, osteosarcoma, melanoma, gonadal germ cell tumor, lung, prostate
28
breast cancer
- lifetime risk of 1/8 to 1/1 - familial or sporadic - mutations: errors in homologous recombinations, DNA repair defects - 2 known genes - familial onset is 20s-40s, uni or bilateral - 5-10% of all breast cancers - one inherited mutation, penetrance is 80-90% - sporadic accounts for 90-95% of all breast cancer cases - later onset, usually unilateral - complex disease with many patient issues
29
BRCA1 and 2
- two primary genes associated with breast cancer - 1 is on 17 near NF1 and p53 - 2 is on chromosome 13 near Rb1 - 80-90% of familial breast cancer- review of pedigrees to assess risk followed by testing when appropriate - 5-9% of all breast cancer - multiple mutations - increased risk of male breast cancer - increased risk in Ashkenazi Jew pop - counseling is critical
30
complexity of breast cancer
- many people in family - cousin diagnosed but sister negative - survivor guilt- can be as damaging as if they actually had cancer - still at risk for sporadic if negative for the familial - males can also get breast cancer - mortality is high in males because they don't look for help quickly enough - males who are at risk for familial can pass it on to their daughters
31
caretaker mutations
- inability to repair DNA defects/ mutations - accumulation of abnormal DNA/genes - increase in genome instability - may lead to mutation of proto-oncogenes or tumor suppressor genes - inherited or acquired - fanconi anemia - ataxia telangiectasia - breast cancer - HNPCC-colon - bladder cancer
32
breakage syndromes
- fanconi anemia- 9q22.3, 11q23, 20q13 - bloom syndrome- 15q26.1-DNA ligase 1 or DNA helicase - ataxia telangiectasia 11q22-q23 - xeroderma pigmentosum- 3p25, 13q33, ch 9- excision repair - cockayne syndrome 5q12, 10 q11, excision repair cross complementation
33
breakage syndromes 2
- recessive inheritance - chromosome instability - defective DNA repair mechanisms - susceptibility to cancer
34
chromosome instability
- the breakage syndromes were linked because of common finding of chromosome instability or fragility - sister chromatid exchange-normally results in swap of identical DNA. errors can occur and unequal exchanges can take place- duplications or deletions, may not be repaired with DNA repair gene mutations - triradials-Y shaped or forked structure due to replication error - excessive breakage of chromosomes can lead to deletion and genomic defects
35
defects in DNA repair genes
- inability to repair DNA defects/ mutations - accumulation of abnormal DNA/genes - increase in genome instability - may lead to mutation of proto-oncogenes or tumor suppressor genes - inherited or acquired - fanconi anemia - ataxia telangiectasia - breast cancer - HNPCC-colon - bladder cancer
36
hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer
- 204% of hereditary colon cancer - 90% lifetime risk for males who inherit one mutation - 70% risk for females who inherit on mutation - 40% of endometrial cancer - 10-20% risk of urinary tract cancer - 10-20% risk of ovarian cancer - multiple genes involved - MSH6 accounts for 7-10% of cases - TGFBR2 is not mismatch repair- its growth factor receptor - HNPCC7 has been reported in only a single case
37
mismatch repair
- if error occurs, it is detected by error checking enzyme - defect is excised along with adjacent bases, missing bases are filled in, fragment ligated back to DNA - if process doesn't work, error isn't detected- during next cycle both will be replicated- 2 cell lines
38
microsatellites
- repeats of 2, 3, or 4 nucleotides - highly polymorphic in population - repair defects can be detected by analysis of microsatellites - subject to replication error due to slippage - mutations in mismatch repair can alter total number of repeats - presence of extra bands in putative HNPCC tumor tissue is consistent with disease diagnosis - because expected patterns have been catalogued
39
HNPCC 2
- microsatellite analysis suggests the presence of defect in mismatch repair - finding is consistent with a mutation in one of the 5 genes associated with HNPCC - DNA instability leads to additional mutations throughout the genome- can affect tumor suppressors - not a direct test- trying to asses effect mutation has had on loci throughout the genome - not gene mutation-->aberrant protein--> disease - it's a malfunction in a normal cellular process that in and of itself is not deleterious - the accumulation of errors eventually results in system dysfunction
40
summary
proto-oncogene mutations: - dominant - acquired - chromosome translocation, amplification, point mutation - primary target- leukemias/lymphomas - gain or change of function tumor suppressor mutations: - recessive - 1 mutation may be inherited - deletions, chromosome gain/loss, gene mutation - primary target- solid tumors - loss of function - gate keeper or caretaker functions error accumulation-DNA repair defects- increased breakage and rearrangement in some diseases
41
chromosome instability
- de novo- breakage or recombination - chromosome rearrangement: - duplications or deletions - translocations or inversions - tandem duplications of genes - generation of supernumerary chromosomes - gain or loss of whole chromosomes
42
cancer evolution
- requires more than one step - combo of environment and genes - many different mutations all within one cell - some mutations are specific to particular steps in disease process - all must occur and all in the same cell, but not in sequential order. Disease happens after they are all present - person with inherited mutation has a jump start on the process - APC is a gate keeper
43
clonality
- normal cell may have a single mutation, which proliferates and generates an abnormal clone - this is an acquired change in a limited number of cells - further chromosomal changes may modify the karyotype and produce additional clones - can use karyotype analysis to monitor
44
karyotype evolution
- change over time in karyotype due to acquisition of different mutations - generally, increasing complexity and numbers of chromosome abnormalities are associated with poorer prognosis - possible to use chromosome abnormalities to follow patient from diagnosis to remission to relapse
45
clinical testing
- detection of molecular and chromosomal abnormalities associated with disease - diagnosis and prognosis - monitor remission and relapse - must have baseline - molecular diagnostics - cytogenetics- karyotype and FISH - need targeted tests, need mutation or cellular change
46
constitutional findings
- original DNA and chromosome complement that is the foundation for the genetic constitution in all cells of the body - originated in zygote
47
acquired anomalies
- a change which has occurred in the constitutional DNA or karyotype - usually present in a single cell line (clone)
48
chromosome rearrangements
- some indicative of one disease, other present in more than one disease - could narrow it down
49
Down syndrome
- increased risk for leukemia | - trisomy 21 is an acquired change in a leukemic cell line in a non-DS patient
50
loss of heterozygosity
- apparent homozygosity or hemizygosity in a tissue which demonstrates heterozygosity constitutionally - 1 locus - 1 chromosome arm - entire chromosome - doesn't mean there is only a single allele present - can have multiple copies of chromosome with only a single band on DNA analysis - loss of one of originals and duplication of remaining - new mutations constantly found- need correlation
51
prognosis
- in some instances, there is a direct correlation between a particular chromosomal finding and the course of the disease - knowing that info may aid in determining the type of treatment used - more resistant disease treated more aggresively
52
monitoring disease
- at diagnosis, both normal and cancer cells are present - treatment will hopefully cure patient - often, treatment suppresses disease-remission - patient can then relapse, chromosomal abnormalities will re appear
53
APL and FISH
- broadened amt of info we can find - FISH is quick- more cells can be scored - only abnormalities being specifically tested
54
FISH
- successful in monitoring bone marrow transplant patients - easy on mixed sex transplants - scored for 2 Xs aor a X,Y to determine proportions - quicker and higher statistical significance than karyotype study - donor cell line should populate marrow
55
gene amplification
- another type of anomaly seen in cancers - one type of breast cancer responds to herceptin, but it isn't effective in cells without amp - FISH detects amplification - HER2-neu - tumor cells have multiple copies
56
BCR-ABL
-95% detected by karyotype or FISH, PCR can be used and detects remaining 5%
57
sequencing
- new tech to id known disease related mutations - developed signature panels-unique subsets - connected with tumors - DNA fingerprint
58
expression arrays
- determine relatedness between difference diseases - two diseases that are different clinically actually have a common basis? - expression in normal cells vs cancer cells
59
genetics and cancer
- mutations can be inherited or acquired - somatic mutation is usually required for disease expression - multi step process at somatic cell level
60
inherited cancers
- carrier parent has a 50% chance of passing on mutation - second mutation occurs at somatic level - risk correlated to number and degree of affected relatives - inherited mutation means an increased risk in acquiring the disease
61
conclusions
- primary genetic causes of cancer can be linked to oncogenes, tumor suppressor genes - many diseases now have clinical testing available - new technologies are providing new diagnostic methods and new treatments