Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Chemotherapy drugs > Cancer Chemotherapy 1 > Flashcards

Cancer Chemotherapy 1 Flashcards

1
Q

a tumor is detectable by X-ray after about how many doublings

A

27 (size of .5cm in diameter)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

after about how many doublings till the tumor is palpable on examination, also what size it is and what is its mass

A

30 doublings
1g
1cm diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what does the term remission mean

A

cancer is not detectable by the most sensitive measures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

the combination therapy MOPP is given for what type of cancer

A

Hodgkin’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

the combination therapy ABVD is given for what type of cancer

A

Hodgkin’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

the combination therapy CHOP is given for what type of cancer

A

non-hodgkin’s lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

the combination therapy CMF is given for what type of cancer

A

breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

the combination therapy CAF is given for what type of cancer

A

breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

the combination therapy PACE is given for what type of cancer

A

small cell lung cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

the combination therapy VIP is given for what type of cancer

A

Germ cell cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

the combination therapy BIP is given for what type of cancer

A

cervical cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

the combination therapy M-BACOD is given for what type of cancer

A

lymphomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

the combination therapy BEP is given for what type of cancer

A

ovarian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

the combination therapy CVD is given for what type of cancer

A

pheochromacytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

the combination therapy PEB is given for what type of cancer

A

testicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the restriction point (R point)

A

demarcates the commitment to enter S-phase (after R-point the cell is committed to cell division)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what drugs are M phase specific

A

vincristine
vinblastine
paclitaxel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what drugs are S phase specific drugs

A

cytosine arabinoside (cytarabine), topoisomerase I inhibitors (Camptothecin, Topotecan, Irinotecan)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what drugs are S phase specific self-limiting

A

6-mercaptopurine

methotrexate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are some problems with cancer chemotherapy (in general)

A

dose-limiting toxicities
resistance to chemotherapeutic agents
multi drug resistance p-glycoprotein pumps
second cancers (leukemia and lymphoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

alkylating reagents involve reactions with what from DNA

A

N-7 guanine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the mechanism of action of alkylating reagents

A

cross linking DNA of two different strands- blocking replication and transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the most common alkylating agent

A

cyclophophamide (aka cytoxan)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what drug has a similar structure to phenylalanine and is taken up by the cell

A

Melphalan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
mechlorethamine (mustragen) is what class of chemotherapy drug and what is it used to treat
alkylating agent | treats hodgkins' disease (stages III and IV)
26
what alkylating agent is taken up rapidly but not excreted
mechlorethamine (mustragen)
27
which alkylating agents require CYP-450 activation
cyclophosphamide and iphosphamide (these are prodrugs)
28
cyclophosphamide has what toxicities associated with it
hemorrhagic cystitis | SIADH (water intoxication)
29
cyclophosphamide is used to treat what
Burkitt's lymphoma Aute Lymphotoxic leukemia (ALL) other lymphomas and leukemias
30
what is hemorrhagic cystitis and what drug is it a side effect of
dysuria, hematouria, hemorrhage | side effect of cyclophosphamide
31
chlorambucil has what toxic side effect(s)
hepatotoxicity
32
chlorambucil is used to treat what
chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
33
what is acrolein and what does it cause
byproduct of cyclophosphamide activation and leads to hemorrhagic cystitis
34
Na-2-Mercaptoethanesulfonate (MESNA) is used for what
to decrease hemorrhagic cystitis produced by acrolein
35
how does one prevent hemorrhage cystitis associated with the cyclophosphamide-metabolte acrolein
MESNA
36
Estramustine phosphate (Emcyt) works via what mechanism
anti mitotic effects rather than alkylating effects (CCNS and M-phase)
37
Estramustine phosphate (Emcyt) is given how and why
orally- phosphate is cleaved during absorption and it can bind beta-tubulin in vivo
38
what toxic side effect is related to busulfan
pulmonary fibrosis | hyper pigmentation of the skin
39
what drugs are nitrosoureas
carmustine (BCNU) lomustine (CCNU) semustine (methyl-CCNU) streptozotocin
40
what toxicity is associated with nitrosourea drugs
pulmonary fibrosis | nephrotoxicity
41
what is the mechanism of action of nitrosourea drugs
breakdown in vivo to liberate alkylating and carbamylating species; highly lipophilic
42
what toxicity is associated with the nitrosourea streprocotocin
pancreatic
43
procarbazine (mutulane) mechanism of action
decreases DNA, RNA, protein synthesis | via chromatid breakage and translocation inhibits G1 to S phase in cell
44
it is important to avoid what treatment along with procarbazine
MAO inhibitors and alochol
45
Dacarbazine (DTIC) and Temozolomide (T) work via what mechanism
methylates DNA and RNA-preventing transcription and translation (CCNS)
46
Cisplatin has what MOA
forms intrastrand crosslinks with purine bases on DNA (guanine adducts are preferred)- interferes with replication and mitosis CCNS
47
what is the toxicity associated with cisplatin and platinum drugs in general
nephrotoxicity- often have to stop treatment b/c of it | peripheral neuropathy
48
how can one reduce the nephrotoxicity associated with cisplatin and platinum drugs
furosemide- it gets rid of toxic metabolites in kidney via diuresis
49
doxorubicin used to go by what name
red death
50
what is the MOA of doxorubicin and daunorubicin
tight binding b/w base pairs(intercalates) in DNA thus blocking topoisomerase II activity generates free radicals histone eviction in open chromatin CCNS
51
what chemotherapies are anthracyclines
doxorubicin and daunorubicin
52
what toxicity is associated with doxorubicin and related anthracyclines
cardiotoxicity
53
cardiotoxicity induced by doxorubicin may be prevented by what
dexrazoxane
54
uses of doxorubicin
breast cancer, sarcoma, MOPP-resitant Hodgkins
55
epirubicin and idarubicin is similar to what drug but has what difference
similar mechanism of action to doxorubicin but less cardiotoxic
56
mitoxantrone MOA
binda to DNA like doxorubicin to produce drug-DNA-topoisomerase II complexes that lead to DNA strand breaks
57
mitoxantrone has what advantage over doxorubicon
lower incidence of cardiotoxicity
58
what drugs are epipodophyllotoxins
etoposides | tenopside
59
what is the MOA of epipodophyllotoxins
forms a ternary complex with DNA-toposiomerase II | S and G2 phase specific
60
camptothecin analogs include what drugs
camptothecin topotecan irinotecan
61
camptothecin analogs MOA
inhibitors of topoisomerase I | S-phase specific
62
irinotecan is a produce activated by what to what
activated by tissue carboxyesterases (high in carcinoma) | active form is SN-38
63
SN-38 is the active form of what drug
irinotecan
64
camptothecin analogs have what side effects
diarrhea- can lead to stoppage of therapy
65
bleomycins are most active in what cell cycle phase
G2
66
what toxicities are associated with bleomycin
pulmonary fibrosis and pneumonitis | minimal BM supression
67
bleomycin are used to treat what
advanced testicular cancer
68
MOA of bleomycin
bind to reduced iron in cells and lead to free radical production
69
Dactinomycin MOA
interaction of peptide loops at purine-pyrimidine vase pairs of DNA and intercalate b/w DNA strands prevents transcription CCNS
70
what is the most potent anti-tumor agent known
dactinomycin
71
what toxicities are associated with dactinomycin
oral and GI ulceration | somatitis
72
what happens to a tumor from 30-40 doublings
goes from 1g to 1kg

Chemotherapy drugs (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions