Cancer Care Other Flashcards

Imaging

1
Q

TMN Staging: How is T determined?

A

• Tx: primary tumour cannot be assessed
• T0: no evidence of primary tumour
• Tis: carcinoma in situ
• T1: site/tumour specific, generally small
• T2: site/tumour specific
• T3: site/tumour specific, generally large
• T4: site/tumour specific but usually refers to direct extension
into adjacent organs/tissues

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2
Q

TMN Staging: How is N determined?

A
  • Nx: nodes cannot be assessed
  • N0: no evidence of nodal involvement
  • N1: site/tumour specific
  • N2: site/tumour specific
  • N3: site/tumour specific
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3
Q

TMN Staging: How is M determined?

A
  • Mx: presence of metastases cannot be assessed
  • M0: no evidence of metastases
  • M1: distant metastases present
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4
Q

How is nodes evaluated on imaging as suspicious?

A

Malignant characteristics:

  • indistinct borders
  • heterogenous
  • round shape

Size
- >9mm always suspicious

  • size: larger-more likely malignant
  • shape: round, L/T <2
  • heterogeneous echotexture
  • loss of central fatty hilum/thinning of the hilum
  • eccentric versus concentric thickening of the cortex
  • presence of microcalcifications
  • necrosis: cystic/coagulative
  • Ill-defined capsular margins: invasion
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5
Q

What are the disadvantages of clinical trial?

A

The clinical trial may require more time than a non-clinical trial treatment such as more visits to the clinical trial site, more treatments, hospital stays, etc. There may be unpleasant, serious or life threatening side effects to experimental treatments

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6
Q

What is a phase 1 study in a clinical trial?

A

• The aim of phase I studies is to explore drug toxicity
• May involve about 12 to 20 patients who are treated with the
drug under investigation at escalating doses.
• This may be achieved either through dose escalation in the same individuals or by increasing doses between patient cohorts, for instance by using a Fibonacci approach
• Early and late phase 1 studies
• First in human studies/ healthy volunteers

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7
Q

Six rights most relevent to palliative medicine

A
  1. right to life
  2. right to be free from inhuman or degrading treatment
  3. right to liberty
  4. right to private life and family life home and correspondence
  5. right to freedom of thought, consioenxe and religion
  6. right to enjoy all these human rights without discrimination
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8
Q

explain the concept of double effect as it applies to medicine

A

Double effect
– Permits the relief of suffering even when this may lead to a premature death
In case law this has been understood in the context of suffering physical pain

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9
Q

explain the concept of acts and ommissions as it applies to medicine

A
  • Where an action and a failure to act (or stopping something) that lead to the same outcome
  • That it makes an ethical difference whether an agent intervenes to bring about a result, or omits to act in circumstances in which it is foreseen that as a result of the omission the same result occurs
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10
Q

What is the law around giving fluids and nutrition to patients at end of life?

A
  • If clinically assisted nutrition or hydration is necessary to keep a patient alive, the duty of care will normally require the doctor to provide it, if a patient with capacity wishes to receive it.16
  • Clinically assisted nutrition or hydration may be withheld or withdrawn if the patient does not wish to receive it; or if the patient is dying and the care goals change to palliative care and relief of suffering; or if the patient lacks capacity to decide and it is considered that providing clinically assisted nutrition or hydration would not be in their best interest
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11
Q

How can you decide when treatment his futile at EOL?

A

Physiological futility
Quantitative futility Qualitative futility
Treatment that cannot achieve its physiological aim
Treatment that has <1% chance of succeeding
Treatment that cannot achieve an acceptable quality of life treatment that merely preserves unconsciousness or fails to relieve total dependence on intensive medical care
An intervention that will not change the fact that the patient will die in the near future
The patient has an underlying condition that will not be affected by the intervention and which will lead to death within weeks to months

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12
Q

What is the difference between active and passive euthanasia?

A
  • Active euthanasia –Deliberately doing something to someone to cause them to die, by a HCP or other . ( to a patient with observed and irreversible suffering )
  • Passive euthanasia –When someone dies because medical professionals don’t do something necessary to keep a patient alive , or by stopping something that is keeping patient alive
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13
Q

What is the current position of the UK on euthanasia?

A

• Withdrawal of life-support is permissible
• Withdrawal of feed and fluids administered by tube is
permissible (Bland 1993)
• Withdrawal and failure to start are morally indistinguishable
• Any action with intent to end life is illegal
• Illegal for doctors to assist a suicide
• CPS guidance 2010

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14
Q

Public health lecture:

What percentage of cancers are preventable?

A

50%

safe sex
screening
diet
sun exposure
physical activity
limit alcohol
control weight
reduce tobacco use
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15
Q

Wilson Jungner criteria for screening programmes

A

Condition
• The condition sought should be an important health problem
• The natural history of the condition, including development from latent
to declared disease, should be adequately understood
• There should be a recognizable latent or early symptomatic stage

Test
• There should be a suitable test or examination
• The test should be acceptable to the population

Treatment
• There should be an accepted treatment for patients with recognized disease
• Facilities for diagnosis and treatment should be available

Programme
• There should be an agreed policy on whom to treat as patients.
• The cost of case-finding (including diagnosis and treatment of patients diagnosed) should be economically balanced in relation to possible expenditure on medical care as a whole.
• Case-finding should be a continuing process and not a “once and for all” project.

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16
Q

How do you calculate sensitivity?

A

a/a+c

true positives / true positives _+ false negatives

  • Is the proportion of the people with the disease who are test positive
  • Also known as the detection rate
  • The proportion of the people who really have the disease who are identified correctly by the test as having the disease
  • Sensitivity is the probability a case will test positive
17
Q

How do you calculate specificity?

A

d / b+d

true negatives / false positive + true negative

  • Is the proportion of the people without the disease who are test negative
  • The proportion of the people who really do not have the disease who are identified correctly by the test as not having the disease
  • Probability a non-case will test negative
18
Q

How do you calculate Positive predictive value?

A

A / A+B

true positive / all positives

“If I am test positive Doctor, do I have the disease?”
“If I am test positive – what is my risk of actually having the
disease?”

19
Q

How do you calculate negative predictive value?

A

D / C+D

true negatives / all negatives

• NPV - is the proportion of the people who are test negative who actually do not have the disease
• The NPV is the answer to the question:
“If the screening test is negative – what are the chances that I really don’t have the disease?”

20
Q

Lead time bias

A
  • Early diagnosis falsely appears to prolong survival
  • Screened patients appear to survive longer, but only because they were diagnosed earlier
  • Patients live the same length of time, but longer knowing they have the disease
21
Q

Length time bias

A

• Screening programmes better at picking up slow growing,
unthreatening cases than aggressive, fast growing ones
• Diseases that are detectable through screening are more likely to have a favourable prognosis, and may indeed never have caused a problem
• Could lead to a false conclusion that screening is beneficial in lengthening the lives of those found positive – curing people that didn’t need curing?

22
Q

Risk factors for sarcoma

A
  • prior radiation therapy
  • Chemical exposures (Thorotrast, vinyl chloride, arsenic for hepatic angiosarcoma)
  • Genetic Syndromes: neurofibromatosis, familial gastrointestinal stroll tumour syndrome
23
Q

Sarcoma: when is limb-sparing surgery indicated?

A

Comparison study with post-op radiation in limb sparing showed no difference
in survival between limb-sparing and amputation.

Amputation still may be indicated for neurovascular or bone involvement

24
Q

Most common site of metastatic disease for sarcomas

A

Lung most common site of mets, but visceral often go to liver