Cancer as a disease: Cellular Pathoglogy of cancer Flashcards

1
Q

Define Metaplasia

A

A reversible change in which one adult cell type (usually epithelial)is replaced by another adult cell type
Adaptive

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2
Q

Describe physiological metaplasia

A

Cervix during pregnancy – the cervix opens up and the columnar epithelium of the endocervical canal is exposed to the acidic uterine fluids making it squamous
pH of cervix is the key stimulus here

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3
Q

Describe pathological metaplasia

A

Barrett’s Oesophagus – gastro-oesophageal reflux (regurgitated stomach acid) can change the stratified squamous epithelium of the distal oesophagus to simple columnar
Reversible and adaptive to changes in pH (I.,e if you treat GERD- the epithelium will return to squamous)

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4
Q

Ultimately, what is meant by an adaptive response in metaplasia

A

ADAPTIVE response where cells sensitive to the stressful stimulus – reflux of acid, cigarette smoke, etc – and are replaced by cells which can withstand the adverse environment e.g. respiratory columnar ciliated epithelium changes to squamous, squamous oesophageal to columnar/ intestinal.

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5
Q

What are the two types of metaplasia that can take place in Barrett’s Oesophagus?

A

Gastric metaplasia – stratified squamous to simple columnar (but no goblet cells)
Intestinal metaplasia – goblet cells begin to appear (becomes columnar too)

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6
Q

What else can cause metaplasia

A

Or reprogramming of stem cells (reserve cells) to differentiate along a different pathway in response to signalling by cytokines, growth factors and extracellular matrix components.

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7
Q

Define dysplasia

A

an abnormal pattern of growth in which some of the cellular and architectural features of malignancy are present
pre-invasive stage with
intact basement membrane - hence non-invasive

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8
Q

What is important to remember about dysplasia

A

Cells are dysplastic before invasive (so it is the step before cancer). The cells show many of the cytoplasmic, genetic and molecular features of cancer- but the BM is intact and the cells themselves are not invasive yet.

Morphological correlation of molecular changes is seen in dysplasia.

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9
Q

Describe the clinical importance of detecting cells

A

Easier to treat and treatment will be 100% effective due to the lack of invasion
Therefore it is associated with a better prognosis
Aim of screening programmes.

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10
Q

List the key features of dysplasia

A
Large nuclei (and hyperchromatic) 
Increased mitoses 
Abnormal mitoses 
Increased nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio 
Loss of architectural orientation 
Loss of uniformity of individual cells
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11
Q

Why are the nuclei hyperchromatic in dysplasia

A

Due to the increased concentration of DNA in the cell

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12
Q

Why does the nuclear: cytoplasmic ratio increase in dyslaisa

A

Because the nucleus grows without the cell itself growing (hence the percentage of the cell that is nucleus increases).

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13
Q

What is meant by the loss of architectural orientation

A

Lose the normal differentiation of squamous epithelium.

Should go from basal - mature- keratinised- but this pathway of differentiation is lost in dysplasia.

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14
Q

What is dysplasia common in

A
CERVIX – HPV infection
BRONCHUS – Smoking
COLON – Chronic Ulcerative Colitis
LARYNX – Smoking
STOMACH -Pernicious Anaemia (chronic inflammatory process) 
OESOPHAGUS-Barret’s metaplasia
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15
Q

Describe the basis of screening for cervical cancer

A

Previously looking for dysplastic changes

Now moved to looking at genotypes of HPV.

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16
Q

What is important to remember about the relationship between metaplasia and dysplasia

A

Often occur in the same sites
metaplasia first- then dysplasia
why you can get squamous carcinomas of the lung (first metaplastic change from columnar, then the squamous cells become dysplastic and then cancerous)

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17
Q

Compare low grade dysplasia to high grade dysplasias

A

Low grade- lower risk of progression and more likely to revert back to normal spontaneously
high grade- darker- due to increased nuclei:cytpolasm ratio.

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18
Q

Define neoplasia, tumour and malignancy

A

A tumour is an abnormal, autonomous proliferation of cells which are unresponsive to normal control mechanisms governing their growth, and which persists in proliferating even when whatever stimulus started it going has stopped.

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19
Q

What are the characteristics of benign tumours

A
do not invade do not metastasise
encapsulated
usually well differentiated
slowly growing
normal mitosess

first one is absolute- functional classification of benign tumours, the rest are just descriptive and help with the diagnosis.

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20
Q

Describe non-encapsulated tumours that are benign

A

§ Encapsulated – note NOT always like this – i.e. Leiomyomas are NOT encapsulated but ARE benign

i.e fibroids in the uterus are not encapsulated but are benign.

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21
Q

Describe fibrous adenoma of the breast

A

Benign
Encapsulated- sharp, well demarcated edge, so can be resected easily
Can move around easily upon palpation- not adherent to skin or pectoral muscle (good thing)- less likely to be invasive

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22
Q

What is meant by well differentiated

A

Looks like the tissue from which the cancer originated from.

23
Q

Under what conditions can benign tumours become fatal

A

In a dangerous place: meninges (tumour blocks flow from lateral ventricles to 3rd ventricle- hydrocephalus raising ICP), pituitary (impinges on optic chiasm)
Secretes something dangerous: insulinoma
Gets infected: bladder
Bleeds: stomach (presses on artery and bleeds into peritoneal cavity))
Ruptures: liver adenoma
Torts (twisted): ovarian cyst (twist artery- leading to ischaemic death- infarction).

24
Q

Describe the features of malignancy

A
o Characteristics: 
§ Invade surrounding tissue. 
§ Metastasize. 
§ No capsule (but not always). 
§ Well à poorly differentiated (but tend to be poorly differentiated). 
§ Rapidly growing. 
§ Abnormal mitotic figures.

First 2- functional behaviours
The rest- how we recognise them- descriptive

25
Q

Describe the basis of screening for malignancy

A

Pick up malignant tumours early- before they have spread to distant sites- heavily improves diagnosis as in metastasis- local treatment not enough.

26
Q

Define metastasis

A

A metastasis is a discontinuous growing colony of tumour cells, at some distance from the primary cancer

27
Q

What does metastasis depend on

A

These depend on the lymphatic and vascular drainage of the primary site
Lymph node involvement has a worse prognosis

Lateral breast tumours — axillary nodes
Medial breast tumours — mammillary chain

Testicular cancers- drain to aortic nodes

28
Q

Describe the staging of colon cancers

A

Duke’s A (confined to wall of colon)- 90%

Duke’s C (spread to lymph nodes) -30%

29
Q

What is meant by a pleomorphism

A

The nuclei look different from one to the other

30
Q

What does the suffix -oma mean

A

Benign.

31
Q

Describe the nomenclature of benign epithelial tumours

A

Of surface epithelium
= PAPILLOMA
e.g. skin, bladder

Of glandular epithelium = ADENOMA
e.g. stomach, thyroid, colon, kidney, pituitary, pancreas

32
Q

Define carcinoma

A

A malignant tumour derived from epithelium

33
Q

Describe the different types of carcinoma

A

Basal cell carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Transitional cell carcinoma (transitional epithelium is found in the bladder and urinary tract)
Adenocarcinoma

34
Q

State some different types of benign soft tissue tumours

A

Osteoma – bone
Lipoma - fat
Leiomyoma – smooth muscle (uterus)

35
Q

Define sarcoma

A

A malignant tumour derived from connective tissue (mesenchymal) cells

36
Q

Describe the different types of sarcoma

A
Fat = LipoSARCOMA
Bone = OsteoSARCOMA
Cartilage = ChondroSARCOMA

Muscle
striated = RhabdomyoSARCOMA,
smooth = LeiomyoSARCOMA
Nerve sheath = Malignant Peripheral Nerve Sheath Tumour

37
Q

Define tumours of the blood cells

A

Tumours of white blood cells:
Leukaemia a malignant tumour of bone marrow derived cells which circulate in the blood
Lymphoma is a malignant tumour of lymphocytes (usually) in lymph nodes

38
Q

Describe the inter-relationship between lymphomas and leukaemia

A

Leukaemias can spread to lymph nodes and be recognised as lymphomas
Lymphomas can move to the blood and become leukaemias

39
Q

Where can lymphomas be found

A

Any tissue where lymphocytes reside

i.e lymph nodes, spleen ,stomach, tonsils

40
Q

Define a teratoma

A

A teratoma is a tumour derived from germ cells, which have the potential to develop into tumours of all three germ cell layers:
ectoderm,
mesoderm,
endoderm

41
Q

Compare teratomas in males and females

A

Different developmental pathways:
Gonadal teratomas in males, all malignant
Gonadal teratomas in females, most are benign

42
Q

What type of cells are found in teratomas and where can they occur

A

Totipotent stem cells
Can be found in cells where stem cells are present (i.e gonads)
but occur in midline situations outside the gonads (Pituitary, pineal, mediastinum, sacrococcygeal areas)

43
Q

Describe dermoid cysts

A

§ E.G. Dermoid cysts – can contain anything such as teeth, bone, eyes, et

44
Q

Define hamartoma

A

localised overgrowth of cells and tissues native to the organ.
cells are mature but architecturally abnormal

therefore the cells look the same, but they are arranged abnormally.

45
Q

Describe some common hamartomas

A

common in children, and should stop growing when they do,
e.g. bile duct hamartomas, bronchial hamartomas,

Common ones are haemangiomas, bronchial hamartomas, Peutz-Jegher polyps in the gut.

Can have a mass of normal cartilage in the lungs- normal cells- but can incur problems for the diagnosis.

46
Q

What should you expect to find in a hamartoma

A

o Cells are mature but architecturally abnormal – expect to find the same types of tissue expected to grow in the organ but not in the right place in the organ.

47
Q

Describe the criteria for assessing the differentiation of a malignant tumour

A
Evidence of normal function still present production of:
	keratin, 
	mucin
	bile
	hormones 

i.e is it doing what a normal squamous epithelium or glandular epithelium would normally do

look for glands for glandular epithelium

48
Q

What is important to remember about lymphomas and melanomas

A

They are malignant

Despite their suffix suggesting that they are benign.

49
Q

Outline a method for assessing the differentiation of a malignant tumour

A
  1. Evidence of normal function is still present – i.e. production of keratin, mucin, etc.
    a. E.G. A ectopic squamous cell cancer of the lung produces PTH-rp.
  2. If no evidence of normal function – high-grade or anaplastic carcinoma.
  3. If no evidence of differentiation – anaplastic carcinoma.
  4. Presence of abnormal mitoses – some tumours have a mitotic count.
    a. I.E. Tumour with 15 mitoses/mm2 behaves worse than one with 5 mitoses/mm2.
  5. Various grading systems – for cancer of breast, prostate & colon.
50
Q

if the tumour shows no differentiation, what do we call it

A

no differentiation, ANAPLASTIC carcinoma

51
Q

What are the different grading systems for breast and prostate cancers

A

Breast – Nottingham scoring system

Prostate – Gleason classification

52
Q

What is the difference between grade and stage and describe the relationship between the two

A

The grade of a tumour describes its degree of differentiation
The stage of a tumour describes how far it has spread
Tumours of higher grade (i.e. more poorly differentiated) tend to be of higher stage (i.e. spread further)

53
Q

What is more important for determining prognosis

A

Overall, stage is more important than grade in determining prognosis

54
Q

Summarise the TNM system

A

The Tumour, Node, Metastasis (TNM) system can be applied, and individualised, to tumour in all sites

Tumour: TX (not assessed) and then T0-T4 based on invasion
Nodes: NX (not assessed) then N0-N3 based on number/size nodes
Metastasis: M0-1 (not spread | spread)

T can sometimes be size or distance the tumour has spread