Cancer and Pain Flashcards

1
Q

Name 2 bisphosphonates

A
  • alendronic acid
  • discodium pamidronate
  • zolendronic acid
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2
Q

Suggest 3 indications for the use of bisphosphonates:

A
  • protection vs. osteoporotic fragility fractures (alendronic acid)
  • treatment of severe hypercalcaemia of malignancy after IV rehydration (pamidronate, zolendronic)
  • protection vs. pathological fractures, cord compression and need for radiotherapy/surgery in pts with myeloma and breast cancer with bone mets
  • 1st line rx for metabolically active Paget’s disease to reduce bone turnover and pain
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3
Q

how do bisphosphonates reduce bone turnover?

A
  • they are readily incorporated into bone, where they accumulate and inhibit the action of osteoclasts
  • and promote apoptosis of osteoclasts so less bone is resorbed and bone mass is improved
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4
Q

2 SEs of bisphosphonates:

how is the most common protected against?

A
  • oesophagitis when taken orally and hypophosphatemia
  • –> swallow whole 30mins before breakfast with plenty of water, stay upright for 30mins after
  • rare: osteonecrosis of jaw (higher risk with IV high doses)
  • atypical femoral fracture
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5
Q

2 CIs and a caution in the administration of bisphosphonates?

A

-CI: SEVERE RENAL IMPAIRMENT (as renally excreted)
-CI: HYPOCALCAEMIA (bisphosphonates bind calcium)
-CI: UPPER GI DISORDERS
Caution: smokers and pts with major dental disease (osteonecrosis risk)

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6
Q

Bisphosphonates bind calcium so absorption is reduced if taken with what?

A
  • calcium salts inc milk
  • antacids
  • iron salts
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7
Q

Name 2 sex hormone antagonists used for breast cancer, which types of breast cancer are they indicated for?

A
  • tamoxifen, anastrozole, letrozole
  • early and locally advanced ER positive breast cancer (as adjuvant post op to reduce recurrence)
  • advanced ER-positive breast cancer to slow disease progression (if HER negative)
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8
Q

What is the difference between tamoxifen and anastrozole and letrozole, in what women are they used?

A
  • tamoxifen is a SERM (selective oestrogen receptor modulator) that prevents oestrogen binding to its receptor (and stimulating cell proliferation) Tamoxifen is used in pre-menopausal women.
  • anastrozole and letrozole are aromatase inhibitors that interfere with oestrogen synthesis outside the ovary (in muscle and fat), used for post-menopausal women but not for used in women with functioning ovaries
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9
Q

anastrozole and letrozole are aromatase inhibitors that interfere with oestrogen synthesis outside the ovary (in muscle and fat), used for post-menopausal women but not for used in women with functioning ovaries, why?

A

-they have little effect on ovarian oestrogen synthesis (may even cause it to rise)

NB: anti-oestrogen therapies are only effective if the tumour expresses oestrogen receptors

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10
Q

Name 4 SEs of tamoxifen and aromatase inhibitors e.g. anastrozole and letrozole
(sx of oestrogen depletion)

A
  • vaginal dryness
  • hot flushes
  • loss of bone density
  • tamoxifen increases risk of VTE and endometrial cancer
  • GI upset
  • headache
  • rarely can –> agranulocytosis and liver failure
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11
Q

2 CIs for tamoxifen and aromatase inhibitors e.g. anastrozole and letrozole

A
  • tamoxifen CI: PREGNANCY
  • tamoxifen CI: LACTATION
  • aromatase inhibitors CI: PRE-MENOPAUSAL WOMEN (unless ovarian function supressed/ablated)
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12
Q

Tamoxifen ____ CYP2C9 enzyme responsible for metabolising ____ so increases the risk of bleeding
The SSRIs fluoxetine and paroxetine ___ hepatic activation of tamoxifen

A
  • inhibits, warfarin

- inhibits

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13
Q

2 Indications for allopurinol

-preventing…..

A
  • preventing recurrent attacks of gout
  • preventing uric acid and calcium oxalate renal stones
  • preventing hyperuricaemia and tumour lysis syndrome associated with chemo
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14
Q

Allopurinal MOA

  • it is a ____ ____ inhibitor
  • ____ ____ metabolises ___ (produced from purines) to ____ ___
  • so inhibition of it lowers plasma ___ ___ concentrations and reduces ______ of it in the ____ or ____
A
  • xanthine oxidase
  • xanthine oxidase metabolises xanthine to uric acid
  • lowers plasma uric acid and reduces precipitation of it in the joints and kidneys
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15
Q

3 SEs of allopurinol

A
  • starting can trigger/worsen an acute gout attack (risk reduced if NSAID or colchicine co-prescribed)
  • skin rash (can be mild or Steven-Johnson’s or toxic epidermal necrolysis
  • allopurinol hypersensitivity syndrome: rare: fever, eosinophiliia, lymphadenopathy and other organ involvement
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16
Q

3 CIs to allopurinol (relate directly to the 3 SEs) and 1 caution

A
  • CI: DURING ACUTE GOUT ATTACK
  • CI: RECURRENT SKIN RASH
  • CI: SIGNS OF SEVERE HYPERSENSITIVITY
  • Caution in severe renal or hepatic impairment
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17
Q

Describe the interaction of allopurinol (a xanthine oxidase inhibitor) with azathioprine and ACE inhibitor and with amoxicillin:

A
  • mercaptopurine the active metabolite of azathioprine is metabolised by xanthine oxidase so use of both increases risk of toxicity
  • co-prescription with ACEi or thiazide diuretics increases risk of hypersensitivity reactions
  • co-prescription w Amoxicillin increases risk of the rash
18
Q

when starting allopurinol NSAID/colchicine should also be prescribed for how long for what?

A

-continue for 1 month+ after serum uric acid levels return to normal to avoid triggering an acute attack

19
Q

Ondansetron and Granistron are anti-emetics useful in prophylaxis and rx of what? esp. in what context? They are antagnoists of which receptor?

A
  • of N&V esp in context of general anaesthesia and chemotherapy
  • 5-HT3-receptor antagonists

NB: unsilenced but effective for hyperemesis gravidarium where benefits > risks

20
Q

Explain MOA of 5-HT3-R antagonists e.g. ondansetron

A
  • there is a high density of these receptors in the CTZ (senses emetogenic substances in blood)
  • 5-HT is a key NT released by gut in response to emetogenic stimuli
  • Ondansetron blocks these effects
21
Q

5-HT3-R antagonists e.g. ondansetron SEs / 1 adverse consequence

A
  • rare but constipation, diarrhoea, headaches are possible
  • rarely high doses can cause QT prolongation so avoid in pts with this already and avoid if pt is on other drugs that also have this effect e.g. anti-psychotics, quinine, SSRIs…
22
Q

Typical starting dose for 5-HT3-R antagonists e.g. ondansetron is ___mg 12-hrly can be oral, IV or?

A

8-12mg

-also rectal and injectable IM preparations are available

23
Q

Paracetamol is a weak inhibitor of ____ the enzyme involved in ____ metabolism. This increased pain threshold and decreases _____ E2 (PGE2) conc in thermoreg area of _____ therefore controls fever

A
  • COX (cox-2 selective)
  • prostaglandin
  • decreases prostaglandin E2
  • hypothalamus
24
Q

paracetamol is cox-2 selective, it is v safe with few SEs, what difference to NSAIDs mean it doesn’t cause peptic ulcers/renal impairment/risk of CVS event?

A

-lack of cox-1 inhibition

25
In paracetamol OD what toxic metabolite builds up due to insufficient _____for safe conjugation before elimination?
- toxic NAPQI | - glutathione
26
What damage does accumulated toxic NAPQI have on liver in paracetamol OD? -prevention is with giving the glutathione precursor a_____
- hepatocellular necrosis | - precursor = acetylcysteine
27
give 2 cautions for use of paracetamol/when you'd consider lower dose (relates to likelihood of toxic NAPQI buildup)
- chronic excessive alcohol use - reduced glutathione stores e.g. malnutrition, low BMI - severe hepatic impairment (esp. if paracetamol being given IV)
28
What medications increase the rate of NAPQI production and hence risk of liver toxicity after paracetamol OD?
-CYP inducers (e.g. phenytoin, carbamazepine)
29
Name 2 blood tests to do after paracetamol OD?
-INR -serum ALT -creatinine concentration (to establish efficacy of acetylcysteine rx and need for further rx)
30
NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandin synthesis from arachidonic acid by inhibiting COX COX-1 (constitutive) stimulates prostaglandin synthesis and is essential for what? COX-2 (inducible) is expressed in response to inflammatory stimuli -> pain (so SEs are related to COX1 inhibition, therapeutic effects from cox2)
COX1 prostaglandin needed to: - preserve integrity of gastric mucosa - maintain renal perfusion by dilating afferent glomerular arterioles - inhibits thrombus formation at vascular endothelium
31
Give 3 CIs to NSAID use and 2 cautions
``` CI: SEVERE RENAL IMPAIRMENT CI: HEART FAILURE CI: LIVER FAILURE CI: KNOWN NSAID HYPERSENSITIVITY Cautions: peptic ulcer disease, GI bleeding, cardiovascular disease, renal impairment ```
32
why is NSAID use CI in heart failure?
- increased risk of cardiovascular events (MI, stroke) | - also risk of fluid retention which can worsen hypertension and heart failure
33
What advice should you give someone when prescribing NSAIDs? | in terms of safety netting and when to stop taking
- warn that most common SE is indigestion and to stop rx and seek advice if occurs - for pts with acute pain explain long-term use >10days is not recommended due to SEs - advise (if on long-term rx) to stop taking if: become acutely unwell/dehydrated to reduce risk of damage to kidneys
34
Quinine sulphate is used for the treatment and prevention of night-time what? only if regularly disrupting sleep and non-pharm methods have failed.
Leg-cramps
35
Quinine sulfate as well as rx for leg-cramps is the 1st-line option for what disease?
-P. falciparum Malaria | NB: kills parasites in the schizont stage in the blood
36
Quinine is safe at recommended doses but overdose carries many severe risks, suggest 2
- tinnitus, deafness - blindness (can be permanent) - GI upset - hypersensitivity reactions - prolongs QT interval (arrhythmia risk) - Hypoglycaemia
37
Suggest 2 cautions for prescription of quinine:
- hearing/visual loss pre-existing - avoid in 1st trimester pregnancy as teratogenic (risk/benefit) - avoid in people with G6PD deficiency (can precipitate haemolysis)
38
Naloxone has few intrinsic adverse effects but opioid reversal can -> severe withdrawal reaction, what are 3 symptoms of withdrawal?
- pain - restlessness - N&V - dilated pupils - cold, dry skin with piloerection
39
Activated charcoal reduces absorption of certain poisons and increases elimination of them. Benzos and methotrexate are adsorbable. What are risks esp in pts with reduced conciousness? (NB: protect airway with endotracheal intubation, and give with NG tube)
- aspiration --> pneumonitis, bronchospasm, airway obstruction - intestinal obstruction - black stools, vomiting
40
What mild/mod opioid lowers seizure threshold? | NB: this med can increase the risk of seratonin syndrome with other seratonergic drugs
Tramadol