Cancer Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 6 hallmarks of cancer?

A
Sustaining proliferative signalling
Evading growth suppressors
Resisting cell death
Inducing angiogenesis
Enabling replicative immortality
Activating invasion and metastasis
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2
Q

What are the 2 emerging hallmarks of cancer?

A

Deregulating cellular energetics

Avoiding immune destruction

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3
Q

What are the 2 enabling characteristics of cancer?

A

Genome instability and mutation

Tumour promoting inflammation

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4
Q

Explain how cancer cells sustain proliferative signalling

A

Normal cells require external stimulation/regulation from growth factors to drive entry to the cell cycle. Cancer cells have enhanced external stimulation or lost dependency on external signalling.
Enhanced external stimulation: mutations in GFRs can cause them to be constitutively active, an increase in receptors results in too much signalling, increased levels of growth factors causes over stimulation.
Loss of dependency on external stimulation: mutations in cell cycle components can enhance the molecules positively driving growth, or activating mutations in signal transduction components downstream from the growth factor can result in the cell cycle being activated regardless of growth factor presence.

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5
Q

Explain how cancer cells evade growth suppressors

A

Cancer cells have lost the ability to respond to inhibitor signals that regulate growth, differentiation, apoptosis, etc, due to:

  • Loss of activity of tumour suppressor genes e.g. p53, PTEN, RB1
  • Aberration in developmental signalling pathways e.g increased PIP2 → PIP3 → AKT leads to increased proliferation, mutated TGF-β loses its anti-apoptotic abilities and so supports metastases
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6
Q

Explain how cancer cells resist cell death

A

Cancer cells evade the apoptotic signals that usually induce death in cells with damaged DNA. They do this through mutations in the intrinsic pathway of apoptosis such as loss of p53 activity, down regulation of pro-apoptotic molecules in the BCL-2 family such as BAX, BAK, BAD and up regulation of anti-apoptotic molecules such as BCL-2 or BCL-XL. Cancer cells also evade apoptosis through mutations in the extrinsic pathway such as aberrations in death receptor regulation.
There is suggestion that cancer cells may benefit from tolerating some degree of cell death; necrotic cells release bio-active regulatory factors (e.g. IL-1α) which stimulate proliferation in neighbouring cells (Hanahan and Weinberg 2011).

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7
Q

Explain how cancer cells induce angiogenesis

A

Tumours need their own blood supply in other to grow larger than 1-2mm - allows growth and prevents death of the cells due to hypoxia. Tumours can lie dormant and then switch on angiogenesis. Percicytes come away from the blood vessel causing dilation, instability of the vessel and proteins start to leak out. Percytes are re-recruited but there are not enough to fully stabilise the blood vessel. This unstable, leaky, dynamic nature of blood vessels promotes angiogenesis which carries on for as long as the tumour grows. Cancer cell up regulate pro-angiogenic molecules including VEGF - makes the vessel dilate and leak which is the first stage of angiogenesis. Normal angiogenic regulatory processes are disrupted so tumour vasculature is abnormal.

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8
Q

Explain how cancer cells enable replicative immortality

A

Cancer cells express telomerase, which maintains telomere length through specialised DNA polymerase action and so allows an infinite number of cell divisions. 80% of cancer cells have extensive, unregulated telomerase. The telomeres of cancer cells are actually slightly too long, making the chromosome unstable, contributing to the mutation accumulation and genetic instability of cancer cells.

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9
Q

Explain how cancer cells activate invasion and metastasis

A

Cancer cells gain the ability to spread through the body by breaking cell-cell/cell-ECM attachment and changing shape to become more motile. They also induce angiogenesis to support secondary tumour growth. Less than 1 in 10,000 circulating cancer cells with survive to set up a secondary metastatic tumour. Some metastatic cells show organotropism in which certain cells show preferential spread to certain sites. Tumours can spread to close proximity sites or to distal sites (seed and soul or pre-metastatic niche hypotheses). Invasion, intravasation, transport, extravasation, colonisation, angiogenesis.

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10
Q

How many proven cancer driver genes are there?

A

299 (Bailey et al 2018)

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11
Q

How many proto-onco genes have been identified?

A

79 (Bailey et al 2018)

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12
Q

How many tumour suppressor genes have been identified?

A

95 (Bailey et al 2018)

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13
Q

Explain how cancer cells deregulate cellular energetics

A

Tumour cells utilise aerobic glycolysis to drive pyruvate into lactate (like normal diving cells do). This generates intermediates for biosynthetic pathways such as growth. Tumour growth depends on the expression of pyruvate kinase M2 - drives pyruvate to lactate, upregulated a little bit in normal dividing cells and a lot in cancer cells. Also depend on lactate dehydrogenase and glucose uptake through GLUT1. This excessive glucose metabolism via the Warburg effect can be exploited therapeutically/diagnostically.

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14
Q

Explain how cancer cells avoid immune destruction

A

The immune system can recognise and eliminate cancer cells through recognition of tumour antigens by tumour specific antibodies. Cancer cells avoid this by:
- Loss of tumour antigens
- Down regulation of antigen presenting molecules that would prime the T cells
- Overexpress PD-L1 ligand (immune checkpoint protein) that binds PD-1 receptors on T cells and reduces their cytotoxic action as they think the tumour cell is self.
The immune system can promote tumour formation via immunoediting: elimination of the cancer cells, equilibrium (selection by the immune system of the cells it can kill, immunogenic ones) so the less immunogenic cells escape the immune system.

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15
Q

Explain how genome instability aids cancer progression

A

Cancer genomes have many non-synonymous mutations.
Mutations in driver genes confer a growth advantage and contribute to the cancer phenotype, such as p53 or Ras. There are also multiple coincedental passenger mutations that occur due to the lack of DNA damage repair. Cancer cells often have aboral karyotypes: aneuploidy, polyploidy, translocations, deletions, duplications, chromothripsis. Acquisition of the other hallmarks depends on alterations of the genome.

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16
Q

Explain how inflammation promotes tumour formation

A

Many carcinogens cause cancer through chronic inflammation. Tumour cells secrete cytokines which attract tumour-associated-macrophages. These produce growth factors, cytokines, and ROS/RNS which can causes DNA mutations. Those cytokines activate transcription factors that drive proliferation and angiogenesis. Inflammation can contribute to multiple hallmark capabilities by supplying bioactive molecules to the tumour microenvironment including growth factors, proangiogenic factors, etc (Hanahan and Weinberg 2011).

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17
Q

Define neoplasm

A

“new growth” i.e. a tumour

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18
Q

Define dysplastic tissue

A

a transitional state between benign and pre-malignant, cells are abnormal but not specifically proliferative/hyperplastic. Variable shape, crowded, irregularly spaced, lack differentiation markers.

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19
Q

Are tumours monoclonal or polyclonal? Define the answer.

A

Monoclonal: tumours are derived from a single cell

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20
Q

How are tumours classified and what are the 4 main categories?

A

Based on cell type of origin
1. Epithelial: sheets of cells, coverings etc. Carcinoma.
2. Haematopoeitic: cell types in ‘blood forming’ tissues and the immune system. Leukaemia or lymphoma
3. Mesenchymal: sarcomas, connective tissue cells
4. Neuroendodermal: derived from the CNS/PNS
Not all cancers fit these groups i.e. melanoma

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21
Q

What is the major difference between benign and metastatic tumours?

A

Benign: non-invasive and localised
Metastatic: invasive and spreads to other sites

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22
Q

Describe the two types of benign tumours

A

Hyperplastic: excessive cell numbers due to dysregulated proliferation. Cells are normal and form structures/tissues that look reasonably normal. There’s just too many cells.
Metaplastic: displacement of normal cells with other normal cells not found in that tissue. One type of normal cell is replaced by another normal cell type but a type that is not normally seen there.
Benign tumours are often surrounded by a fibrous capsule.

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23
Q

Describe the properties of a metastatic tumour.

A

Abnormal cells with poor differentiation, breach the basement membrane and invade the surrounding stroma, then spread to distant sites.

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24
Q

Describe the 6 steps involved in invasion and metastasis

A
  1. Invasion: of the tissue. break down the basement membrane by inavadopodia, migrate towards the blood vessel using fibres and ECM, guided by EGF
  2. Intravasation: entry to the blood vessel. Change shape to squeeze through the holes. Known now as circulating tumour cells - inly 1 in 10,000 cells survive this, but only one needs to survive to set up a metastatic colony
  3. Transport through the blood vessel
  4. Extravasation: get out of the blood vessel
  5. Metastatic colonisation: invade the local tissue in that area and grow into a new colony
  6. Angiogenesis: trigger the formation of new blood vessels in order to grow exponentially
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25
Q

What is src and describe its role in cancer

A

A soluble tyrosine kinase. Can be activated by growth factor signalling. When activated causes the e-cadherin complex to break down, the cell loses contact and becomes more motile. When treated with a small molecule Src inhibitor the cells are slowed down.

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26
Q

What is a cancer stem cell?

A

A small proportion of the cell sin a tumour are cancer stem cells. These are responsible for the heterogeneity of tumours, tumour plasticity, and migratory abilities - they maintain the cancer phenotype. A normal differentiated cell can accumulate mutations which cause it to de-differentiate into a cancer stem ell, resulting in a cancer cell which can replicate indefinitely and differentiate which is huge problem in treatment.

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27
Q

Explain the development and metastasis of human colorectal cancer and its genetic basis

A
  1. Normal epithelium develops a driver mutation - loss of APC tumour suppressor gene. This leads to excessive epithelial proliferation.
  2. An oncogene such as Ras is activated, leading to formation of a small benign tumour.
  3. Another tumour suppressor gene is lost leading to formation of a larger dysplastic tumour.
  4. A third tumour suppressor is lost. Once p53 is lost the tumour becomes malignant/invasive and becomes difficult to stop.
  5. Rapid accumulation of mutations results in metastasis
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28
Q

How many mutations are needed in a cell to develop the average colorectal cancer?

A

11

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29
Q

How many mutations are needed in a cell to develop the average kidney cancer?

A

2

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30
Q

How many mutations are needed in a cell to develop the average stomach cancer?

A

4

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31
Q

How many mutations are needed in a cell to develop the average lung cancer?

A

6

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32
Q

How many mutations are needed in a cell to develop the average breast cancer?

A

4

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33
Q

How many mutations are needed in a cell to develop the average brain cancer?

A

6

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34
Q

List some categories of carcinogenic agents

A

Radiation, chemicals, infections pathogens, endogenous reactions

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35
Q

What are the two types of radiation that can cause DNA damage?

A

Ionising radiation

UV radiation

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36
Q

Describe the two ways in which ionising radiation can damage DNA

A

Direct DNA damage: ionisation of atoms comprising DNA
Indirect DNA damage: more common, the radiation hits a water molecule and causes radiolysis of H2O generating hydroxyl radicals, H2O2, and ROS. H2O2 is less reactive but more stable and so problematic. ROS can interact with and damage DNA

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37
Q

Describe the carcinogenic affect of UV radiation

A

UVB (λ = 290-320nm) is the most effective carcinogen and the main cause of skin cancer. Causes formation of cyclobutane pyrimidine dimers and 6-4- photoproducts. Mutations induced cause bends in the DNA which are misread by DNA polymerase.

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38
Q

What is an oncogenic virus?

A

DNA tumour virus: encodes proteins that block tumour suppressor action e.g. HPV
RNA tumour virus: encodes mutated forms of normal genes, e.g. HTLV-1 linked to leukaemia

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39
Q

List three things which support the multi-hit model of carcinogenesis

A
  1. Genetic homogeneity in cells from a give tumour due to monoclonal origin
  2. Cancer incidence increases with age: can take decades for a cell to accumulate enough mutations
  3. In vivo evidence of cooperative effects of mutations to drive cancer - different combinations of proliferation genes can cooperate to enhance tumour induction
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40
Q

List some risk factors of exposure to ionising radiation

A

exposure to X-rays, living at altitude, plane travel

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41
Q

What is the general action of chemical carcinogens on DNA?

A

Electrophiles react with the nucleophilic sites in the purine and pyrimidine rings of nucleic acids

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42
Q

Describe the properties of direct acting chemical carcinogens

A

Uncommon, reactive nucleophiles, interact with nitrogen and oxygen atoms in DNA. Naturally exist in an electrophilic state. e.g. dimethyl sulphate and nitrogen mustards

43
Q

Describe the properties of indirect acting chemical carcinogens

A

Unreactive and water soluble. Can dissolve when taken into the body and enter cells, can then be metabolised to an electrophilic state. Electrophilic centre produced by enzyme modification (e.g. via processing by cytochrome p450 enzymes) which then interacts with the DNA. Forms an adduct making the area unstable, the base is deleted or misread giving errors in the DNA. e.g. polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs in cigarette smoke) or PhIP

44
Q

How does PhIP act as a carcinogen?

A

2-amino-5-phenylpyrimidine. Found in human diet (cooked meats), processed by P450 enzymes, adds a hydroxyl group to guanine, forms a large adduct making it unstable, can result in depurination, deletions, misreading, transversions etc.

45
Q

How does cigarette smoke lead to lung cancer?

A

PAH benzo(a)pyrene in cigarette smoke is processed by P450 enzymes (CYP1A1). Forms BP diol epoxides which forms adducts with purine bases. Leading to transversions, error prone DNA replication, etc, leads to cancer.

46
Q

How does lung cancer vary so greatly?

A

Varying levels of P450 enzymes CYP1A1 between individuals vary by 50 fold in the lung.

47
Q

How can endogenous reactions act as carcinogenic agents?

A

Normal enzyme reactions in a cell can generate ROS or carcinogens from natural endogenous molecules (e.g. in the metabolism of oestrogen)

48
Q

What is the main mechanism by which oestrogen causes cancer?

A

Causing cell division and proliferation

49
Q

How can alcohol increase risk of breast cancer?

A

Alcohol is metabolised by alcohol dehydrogenase. This enzyme also metabolises oestrogen (not to a carcinogenic form). So if the alcohol dehydrogenase is too busy metabolising alcohol, there is excess oestrogen present that can lead to the carcinogenic form.

50
Q

What is the mechanism of oestrogen carcinogenicity? (Two short pathways)

A

Oestrogen enters the cell and binds to oestrogen receptors. This complex acts as a transcription factor for mitogenic genes, leading to cell proliferation and increased errors in DNA replication. These mutations can lead to breast cancer. Oestrogen also gets converted to estradiol-3,4-quinone which forms depurination adducts. These abasic sites also lead to mutations which can lead to breast cancer.

51
Q

How does mutation in BRCA genes increase susceptibility to breast cancer?

A

BRCA inhibits the oestrogen/receptor complex from transcribing mitogenic genes

52
Q

What are the two main classes of genes implicated in the onset of breast cancer?

A

Proto-oncogenes and tumour suppressor genes

53
Q

What is the function of a proto-oncogene?

A

Promote cell proliferation and survival

54
Q

What kind of mutation makes proto-oncogenes cancerous?

A

Gain of function (dominant mutations)

55
Q

What are the genetic changes that convert a proto-oncogene to an oncogene?

A
  • Mutation in the coding sequence: mutated protein may be constitutively active
  • Gene amplification: results in too many copies of a protein (but the protein itself is normal)
  • Chromosome rearrangement: part deletions or translocations. Translocations can result in hyperactive fusion proteins (e.g. CML). Deletions can result in nearby regulatory sequences causing normal proteins to be overproduced.
56
Q

Describe the fusion protein involved in chronic myeloid leukaemia

A

bcr-abl. Formed by a 9:22 translocation. Philadelphia chromosome = most of chromosome 22 fused to the ABL kinase portion of chromosome 9, resulting in a permanently active kinase.

57
Q

What are the general functions of tumour suppressor genes?

A

Negatively regulate cell proliferation, inhibit cell survival, induce apoptosis

58
Q

What kind of mutation makes tumour suppressor genes cancerous?

A

Loss of function (recessive)

59
Q

What are the genetic changes that can cause loss of function in tumour suppressor genes?

A
  • Loss of entire chromosome
  • Chromosomal rearrangements: gene is disrupted, or a region containing a normal gene is deleted
  • Mutation in coding sequence: results in a non-functional protein
  • Gene activity silenced by epigenetic changes: mutations in genes coding for chromatin-remodelling complexes e.g. SWF/SNF
60
Q

What is the general function of a caretaker gene?

A

Repair or prevent DNA damage

61
Q

What kind of mutation makes care taker genes cancerous?

A

Loss of function (recessive)

62
Q

What is the role of cyclins and Cyclin Dependent Kinases?

A

Regulate passage through the cell cycle. Cyclins are the regulatory subunit of the CDK through specific pairing. CDKs bind to different cyclins to trigger cell cycle events. This activates the CDK to phosphorylate proteins involved in each stage of the cell cycle.

63
Q

What are the four classes of cyclin?

A

G1, G1/S, S phase, M phase

64
Q

How can cyclins regulate the progression through the cell cycle?

A

Levels of different cyclins change throughout the cycle. (CDK levels do not change)

65
Q

What are the three checkpoints in the cell cycle?

A

G1 checkpoint
G2 checkpoint
Checkpoint in mitosis

66
Q

What is checked at the G1 checkpoint?

A

Is the environment favourable? Before entry to S phase

67
Q

What is checked at the G2 checkpoint?

A

Is all DNA replicated? Is all DNA damage repaired?

Before entry to mitosis.

68
Q

What is checked at the checkpoint in mitosis?

A

Are all chromosomes properly attached to the mitotic spindle? Before pulling duplicated chromosomes apart

69
Q

Which transcription factor is responsible for the production of S phase cyclins?

A

E2F

Required for progression of the cell cycle

70
Q

What is the role of Retinoblastoma protein in the cell cycle?

A

Holds onto E2F, preventing it from inducing transcription of S phase cyclins and so stopping the cell cycle. Acts as a tumour suppressor. Becomes phosphorylated by CDK4, releasing the E2F which then goes on to transcribe S phase proteins.

71
Q

What is the role of p16 in the cell cycle?

A

Binds cyclin D - CDK4 complex, preventing phosphorylation of other proteins that drive the cell cycle. Growth factor signalling causes accumulation of cyclin D and CDK4, and the p16 comes away. This allows CDK4 to go onto to phosphorylate Rb.

72
Q

What mutations in the proteins involved in the progression of G1 to S phase can cause cancers?

A
  • Over expression of the proto-onco gene for cyclin D (too much activation of CDK4)
  • Loss of tumour suppressor genes for p16 CDK inhibitor
  • Loss of tumour suppressor gene for Rb: a killer blow to the cell
73
Q

What is the role of p53?

A

A transcription factor. Aulti-functional tumour suppressor gene that can promote apoptosis, arrest in G1 and G2, and DNA repair with respect to DNA damage.
Promotes DNA repair, but if repair cannot be done p53 triggers apoptosis in the cell.
p53 is degraded in the absence of DNA damage.

74
Q

How many genes do we have that can be influenced by p53?

A

300

75
Q

How does p53 become activated?

A

DNA damage causes activation of protein kinases that phosphorylate p53. This stabilises and activates it.

76
Q

What is the action of p53 in transcription?

A

Active form of p53 binds to the regulatory region of the p21 gene, increasing expression. P21 is a key CDK inhibitor in G1 and G2, so increased levels of P21 prevents CDK complexes from phosphorylating further target proteins.

77
Q

What mutations in p53 can cause cancer?

A

Loss of function; usually missense mutations in the DNA binding domain.

78
Q

What are some of the mechanisms of oncogenic activation of growth factor induced pathways?

A
  • Hyperactive mutants growth factor (rare)
  • Elevated levels of normal growth factor (more common, tumour cells often produce more GFs)
  • Increased levels of receptor tyrosine kinase (too many GF receptors, gene amplification)
  • Constitutively active receptor tyrosine kinase (mutated, doesn’t need GF present to act)
  • Activation of a receptor tyrosine kinase by a viral protein (can mimic ligands)
  • Loss of receptor tyrosine kinase regulatory elements (dephosphorylation, internalisation, degradation)
79
Q

What roles in cancer does high levels of EGFR play?

A

Metastasis/advanced disease and resistance to treatments (any that induce apoptosis). This results in more aggressive tumours and poor outcomes.

80
Q

Which signalling pathways are activated as a consequence of EGFR action?

A

PI3K AKT pathway: regulates cell cycle
RAS RAF MAPK pathway: associated with driving the cell cycle
STAT pathway: transcription

81
Q

How is EGFR signalling regulated/switched off?

A

Through receptor degradation by recruitment of Cbl (ubiquitin ligase)

82
Q

List 3 mechanisms that lead to abnormalities in EGFR signalling

A
  1. Increased ligand production
  2. Increased EGFR receptor levels
  3. Mutations giving rise to constitutively active variant receptors
    Often over-expression of both ligand and receptor occur together
83
Q

Missense mutations in the tyrosine kinase region of EGFR are common in what type of cancer?

A

Lung

84
Q

What is EGFR variant III?

A

Loss of most of the extracellular binding domain of EGFR, a common mutation caused by deletion of exons 2-7. Makes the receptor permanently active even in the absence of ligand. Strongly activates the PI3K/AKT pathway (survival). Prominent in very aggressive brain tumour glioblastoma.

85
Q

How can the intrinsic pathway of apoptosis be deregulated?

A
  • Over expression of anti-apoptotic molecules (BCL-2, BCL-XL)
  • Loss of activity/levels of pro-apoptotic molecules (BAD, BID)
    In both cases excessive survival signalling is promoted by receptor tyrosine kinases.
86
Q

What tissue types is the prostate gland comprised of?

A
Glandular (30-40%)
Fibromuscular stoma (60-70%)
87
Q

How many tubular glands are there and what are they comprised of?

A

30-50

2 cell layers. Outer: low cuboidal, inner: tall columnar epithelium

88
Q

What are the symptoms of benign prostate hyperplasia?

A

Difficulty urinating, leaking/dribbling of urine, nocturia, urinary retentions and infection.

89
Q

What is the cell morphology in BPH?

A

Hyperplastic: normal cells but too many of them. These cells still have the right differentiation markers to form structures and are not invasive.

90
Q

Which disease of the prostate is a likely precursor for prostate cancer?

A

Prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia (PIN)

91
Q

What is the cell morphology in PIN?

A

Dysplastic - epithelial cells are crowded and irregularly spaced, with hyper chromatic

92
Q

What type of cells do most prostate cancers originate from?

A

Secretory epithelial cells = adenocarcinoma

93
Q

How is prostate cancer scored?

A

The Gleason grading system
Heterogenous: two grades are given based on the two most common patterns observed
Stage is determined by size and location of the cancer

94
Q

List some examples of factors which prostate cells can produce that modify bone to allow metastasis there

A

Bone morphogenic factor, osteoprogenin, TGF-β

95
Q

What is PSA?

A

Prostate specific antigen, an androgen regulated transcription factor - could be used as a marker for prostate cancer. Peptidase with serine protease activity, involved in the liquefaction of seminal fluid.

96
Q

What is PSA found complexed to in the blood?

A

Anti-chymotrypsin (ACT) and α-macroglobulin (αMG)

97
Q

What are the levels of PSA in the blood of a healthy individual compared to someone with prostate cancer?

A

Healthy: ~0.6ng/ml

Can increase 100x in the case of prostate cancer

98
Q

Why is PSA not used for mass screening of prostate cancer?

A

It is prostate specific but not cancer specific. Other factors can increase PSA too so high levels are not always indicative of cancer.

99
Q

What are the risk factors for prostate cancer?

A

Being male, age, diet, genetics/ethnicity (family history), oncogenic fusion proteins

100
Q

What are oncogenic fusion proteins?

A

The result of chromosomal rearrangements/translocations - can produce fusion proteins with cancerous properties. Usually those in prostate cancer result in the androgen driven production of an ETS transcription factor.

101
Q

Describe the TMPRSS2:ERG gene fusion

A

Formed from an interstitial deletion of chromosome 21. Gives the androgen regulated promoter portion of TMPRSS2 attached to the ERG gene. The TMPRSS2 promoter is activated by testosterone, of which there is lots in the prostate, which drives production of ERG transcription factor. ERG is involved in cell proliferation, differentiation, apoptosis, angiogenesis - all of which can cause cancer if dysregulation

102
Q

Describe the TMPRSS2:ETV1 gene fusion

A

Forms from a translocation between chromosomes 7 and 21. Gives the andiron regulated promoter portion of TMPRSS2 attached to the ETV1 transcription factor. Detected in prostate cancer but is uncommon.

103
Q

Which are the most frequent events in the causation of prostate cancer?

A

Loss of p53 and PTEN