Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CLASP and Cancer Revision > Cancer > Flashcards

Cancer Flashcards

1
Q

Define Hypertrophy

A

Increase in cell size in response to a stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Give a physiological example of hypertrophy

A

Growth of skeletal muscle due to increased exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Give a pathological example of hypertrophy

A

Left ventricular hypertrophy due to hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define hyperplasia

A

Increase in cell number in response to a stimulus. Hyperplasia is reversible on withdrawal of the stimulus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Give a physiological example of hyperplasia

A

Increase in breast and uterus size during pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define atrophy

A

Decrease in cell size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define metaplasia

A

Change from one type of differentiated tissue to another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What happens to the DNA of metaplastic cells?

A

All cells have the same DNA but metaplasia occurs due to different signals so different proteins etc are expressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Give 2 common examples of metaplasia in the body

A
  1. Barrett’s oesophagus- the squamous epithelium of the oesophagus changes to the columnar epithelium of the stomach in response to prolonged contact with stomach acid caused by GORD. This is intestinal metaplasia
  2. Change of respiratory epithelium to squamous epithelium which is more resistant to the harmful effects of smoking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define dysplasia

A

Disordered growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define neoplasia

A

New growth not in response to a stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define malignant

A

Means the tumour has metastatic potential. In epithelial malignancies this refers to invasion beyond the basement membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Neoplasia has five characteristics. Name them.

A

1) Progressive
2) Purposeless
3) Regardless of surrounding tissues (will continue to grow even when it is harming the tissue around it)
4) Not related to the needs of the body
5) Parasitic (uses the body’s resources providing no function in return)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define carcinoma in situ (CIS)

A

Dysplasia affecting the whole epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Name 4 characteristics of benign tumours

A

1) They resemble the cells of their tissue origin
2) They grow in uniformity
3) They have a normal nucleus to cytoplasm ratio
4) They have a normal mitotic index

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name 5 characteristics of malignant tumours

A

1) They are poorly differentiated (they look unlike the cells they originated from)
2) They show hyperchromasia (they have very large nuclei which take up a lot of dye)
3) Pleomorphism (the cells are variable they are not uniform)
4) They have abnormal mitotic indices
5) Often they show evidence of necrosis and haemorrhage as they are growing too fast for their blood supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Name the 8 hallmarks of cancer

A

1) Sustained growth signalling
2) Loss of growth inhibition
3) Unlimited replicative potential
4) Avoiding apoptosis
5) Inducing angiogenesis
6) Evasion of the immune system
7) Disordered repair mechanisms
8) Activating invasion and metastases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are cellular proto-oncogenes?

A

Normal genes that stimulate cell division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are oncogenes?

A

Mutated/ activated proto-oncogenes that allow uncontrolled cell proliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How many copies of a proto-oncogene need activated to allow uncontrolled proliferation?

A

One

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are tumour suppressor genes?

A

Normal genes that inhibit cell division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How many copies of tumour suppressor gene need to be lost to allow cancer to develop?

A

Both (two)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Name 5 examples of tumour suppressor genes

A

1) p53
2) Retinoblastoma
3) APC
4) NF1
5) WT1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

For a cell to be cancerous it must have unlimited replicative potential, what mutation do cancer cells often have that allows this?

A

A mutation that reactivates telomerase that is present in stem cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the most common type of malignancy?

A

Epithelial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What increases your risk of developing an epithelial malignancy?

A

Age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Characteristic pattern of spread for epithelial malignancies?

A

Local growth, haematogenous and lymphatic spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the defining feature of mesenchymal tumours?

A

Local growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Epithelial tumours are called?

A

Carcinomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Mesenchymal tumours are called?

A

Sarcomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How common is lymphatic spread in mesenchymal tumours?

A

Not at all. It is extremely rare.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What type of metastases are fairly common in sarcoma?

A

Blood borne to the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Most sarcomas consist of what shape of cell?

A

Spindle shaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How may you have to determine the type of sarcomas sometimes?

A

Using immunohistochemistry. Sometimes they are difficult to identify histologically.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Characteristics of a lymphoma?

A

Tumour like masses in the lymph nodes with swelling and classical features of tumour. Tends to be more lumps and bumps.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Characteristics of leukaemias?

A

Tend to be limited to the blood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When should you consider haematological malignancy|?

A

When there are large lymph nodes that don’t fit with the anatomical drainage of an epithelial malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Histologically how do malignancies of the blood often appear?

A

They appear less pleomorphic in comparison to other malignancies and the cells often resemble their cell of origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The name for malignant skin cancer?

A

Melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Name for tumours of the brain?

A

Gliomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Do Gliomas tend to spread anywhere?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is a papilloma?

A

Benign tumour of an epithelial surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is an adenoma?

A

Benign tumour of glandular epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is a lipoma?

A

Benign tumour of the fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is a chondroma?

A

Benign tumour of the cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is an osteoma?

A

Benign tumour of the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is a leiomyoma?

A

Benign tumour of the smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is a rhabdomyoma?

A

Benign tumour of the skeletal muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is a squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Malignant tumour of surface epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is an adenocarcinoma?

A

Malignant glandular epithelium tumour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is a liposarcoma?

A

Malignant tumour of the fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is a leiomyosarcoma?

A

Malignant tumour of the smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is a rhabdomyosarcoma?

A

Malignant tumour of the skeletal muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is a haemangioma?

A

Benign tumour of the blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What risk factor is second highest after smoking in regards to developing cancer?

A

Obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Is physical inactivity an independent risk factor for cancer?

A

Yes- this basically means that even if you are of healthy weight but don’t exercise and are sedentary for large parts of the day your risk of cancer is increasing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What cancer is particularly associated with a high salt diet?

A

Gastric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What two cancers are particularly associated with processed red meat?

A

Bowel and gastric cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What cancer is associated with a high calcium intake?

A

Prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Name five cancers associated with alcohol?

A

Breast, mouth and throat, oesophageal, gastric and liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Why did the go for gold campaign come about?

A

Burned toast was shown to cause cancer so the campaign encourages the public to only have their bread lightly toasted ie. GOLD!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Acrylamide increases risk of cancer- what foods is it found in, name 5?

A

potatoes, crisps, coffee, cakes and fries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Acrylamide can cross the placenta in pregnancy, what cancer does it increase the risk of in the baby?

A

Leukaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Are high dose vitamin supplements protective against cancer?

A

No- they actually increase your risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How does breast feeding affect your cancer risk?

A

For the mother it decreases the risk of them developing breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Beta carotene is found in vegetables such as carrots, what cancer is it meant to be protective of?

A

Lung cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Calcium supplements can decrease your risk of what cancer? Is it worth giving this advice? Why?

A

Decrease risk of colorectal cancer but not worth advising this as it also increases your risk of prostate cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What two cancers is coffee protective against?

A

Liver and endometrial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Does dairy affect your cancer risk?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Prostate specific antigen has good sensitivity… what does this mean?

A

It will detect those with cancer- not many people with cancer will get a negative result. Sensitivity= those detected with disease/ those with disease x 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Prostate specific antigen has bad specificity… what does this mean?

A

It is bad at detecting those with out the disease- many people who are perfectly healthy will get a positive result. Specificity= no of normal results where disease is not detected/ no of people without the disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Prostate specific antigen has a poor positive predictive value… what does this mean?

A

Getting a positive result doesn’t mean you have prostate cancer. PPV= no of people with positive result and the disease/ no of people with positive result.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Prostate specific antigen is likely to have an okay negative predictive value… what does this mean?

A

Getting a negative result is indicative that you don’t have the disease. NPV= no of people with negative result without disease/ no of people with negative result

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Creatine kinase tells you there may be damage in two places what are they?

A

Heart and skeletal muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Where does troponin tell you there is damage?

A

The heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

AST tells you there may be damage in four places what are they?

A

RBCs
Skeletal muscle
Liver
Heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Where does ALT tell you there is damage?

A

The liver- hepatitis marker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

LDH tells you there may be damage in two places what are they?

A

The heart and RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

ALP tells you there may be damage in two places what are they?

A

The liver and bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Skeletal muscle damage markers?

A

CK and AST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Heart damage markers?

A

Troponin, CK, AST and LDH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

RBCs damage markers?

A

AST and LDH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Liver damage markers?

A

ALT, AST, ALP and GGT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Pancreas damage markers?

A

Amylase and Lipase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Bones damage markers?

A

ALP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Explain why ALP shows bone damage may be present?

A

If there is bone lysis/ loss then osteoblasts make new bone, this produces ALP. Osteoblast activity is always in response to bone damage by osteoclasts hence a raised ALP shows bone damage.

87
Q

ALP is not specific to bone damage, how could you determine that it is bone damage causing the raise?

A

Test for GGT. If GGT is raised too there is damage in the liver. NOTE: there could be both bone and liver damage. You can only say for certain it is bone damage by doing a scan or if only ALP and note GGT is raised.

88
Q

A transudate or an exudative pleural effusion is suggestive of a malignancy?

A

Exudative

89
Q

The protein content of an exudative pleural effusion is?

A

More than 30 g/l

90
Q

4 treatment intents?

A

Radical, palliative, adjuvant, and neo adjuvant

91
Q

If a treatment has radical intent what does this mean?

A

It is curative

92
Q

If a treatment has palliative intent what does this mean?

A

It is not curative but aims to improve symptoms and therefore quality of life

93
Q

If a treatment has adjuvant intent what does this mean?

A

It is done after surgery to reduce the risk of recurrence

94
Q

If a treatment has neo adjuvant intent what does this mean?

A

It is done before surgery to shrink the tumour for surgical removal

95
Q

4 treatment endpoints?

A

Overall survival, disease free survival, progression free survival, local control

96
Q

Overall survival refers too?

A

time alive

97
Q

Disease free survival refers too?

A

time alive without symptoms or sign of cancer

98
Q

Progression free survival refers to?

A

time living within cancer that is not getting worse

99
Q

Local control refers to?

A

time without recurrence or progression at a specific tumour site

100
Q

Surgery as a cancer treatment is usually done with what intent?

A

Radical

101
Q

How does chemotherapy work?

A

It targets rapidly dividing cells and as cancer cells are often rapidly dividing these will be killed off.

102
Q

What are common side effects of chemotherapy?

A

It helps to remember that chemotherapy targets rapidly dividing cells NOT cancer cells. Hence most of the side effects are due to this. For example hair is rapidly growing part of the body- hence one of the most infamous side effects is alopecia.

Others include malaise, fatigue, lethargy, diarrhoea, mucositis, altered tase, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, renal and liver impairment.

103
Q

Name 5 common agents for chemotherapy?

A

Alkylating agents, platinum salts, taxanes, antracyclines, topisomerase inhibitior

104
Q

How does radiotherapy kill cells?

A

It ionises cell DNA and breaks the double strand

105
Q

What are acute side effects of radiotherapy, name 3?

A

fatigue, skin peeling (erythema desquamation) and head and neck pain

106
Q

What are chronic side effects of radiotherapy, name 8?

A

skin fibrosis, dysphagia, bowel dysfunction, incontinence and bladder instability, pneumonitis, menopause, infertility and secondary cancer

107
Q

What does traztuzamab do?

A

Target the HER2 receptor in breast cancer

108
Q

Signet rings on histology suggest?

A

A bad gastric cancer- the cells are dysplastic and all the mucin in the cells has pushed the nucleus to the front

109
Q

What is linitus plastica? What is it a sign of?

A

A rigid stomach due to gastric cancer

110
Q

In terms of genetics cancer is a disease of?

A

Mosaicism largely caused by post zygotic mutations

111
Q

What do cells acquire every time they divide?

A

Mutations

112
Q

Is cancer rarely or commonly inherited as a high penetrance mendelian disorder?

A

Rarely

113
Q

Define driver mutations?

A

Those that drive carcinogenesis

114
Q

Define passenger mutations?

A

Incidental mutations the cancer picks up because it is unstable

115
Q

Why is it not always helpful to sequence a cancer?

A

You will pick up both driver and passenger mutations and can’t necessarily tell which are which

116
Q

What does Knudson’s two hit hypothesis help explain?

A

The inactivation of tumour suppressor genes. You may inherit a fault in one copy of the gene but then you don’t develop problems until you acquire a mutation in the other and both tumour suppressor genes are inactivated.

117
Q

Is it more difficult to activate a gene or knock it out?

A

activate: activating a gene requires more specific mechanisms, literally any damage to a gene is enough to knock it out

118
Q

What is the problem with target therapy?

A

Just because one pathway is knocked it that doesn’t mean the cancer can’t mutate and find another pathway to come back

119
Q

What type of malignancy is more susceptible to targeted therapy? Why?

A

Haematological

These are less genetically complex

120
Q

What is lynch syndrome also known as?

A

Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer

121
Q

Lynch syndrome is caused by mutations in what genes?

A

Mismatch repair genes

122
Q

Mode of inheritance of lynch syndrome?

A

Autosomal dominant

123
Q

What is loss of mismatch repair by cells in a tumour seen as?

A

Microsatellite instability

124
Q

Two inherited conditions that predispose someone to colorectal cancer? Which is more common?

A

Lynch syndrome- most common (and can also predispose to other cancers)
FAP - less common

125
Q

Mode of inheritance of FAP?

A

Autosomal dominant

126
Q

What does FAP cause?

A

Causes numerous adenomatous polyps to develop in childhood in the colon. In untreated individuals carcinoma is inevitable by 40 years old.

127
Q

Gene responsible for FAP?

A

APC

128
Q

Why is FAP more easily recognised and picked up compared to Lynch syndrome?

A

You will see hundreds of polyps on endoscopy

129
Q

BRCA 1 and 2 are implicated in what two cancers?

A

Breast and ovarian

130
Q

What is HER2? What is it implicated in?

A

An epidermal growth factor that many breast carcinomas show changes in this gene

131
Q

If someone is worried about their genetic risk of cancer who is it best to test?

A

It is better to test the person with cancer first. If there is a young and an old person test the young person first as the old person may be coincidence and not genetic

132
Q

How are lung metastases described on imaging?

A

Multiple, rounded and basal predominant

133
Q

How is primary lung cancer likely to look on imaging?

A

Apical, solitary and speculated

134
Q

Cannon ball metastases in the lungs suggest?

A

Renal cell carcinoma

135
Q

Renal cancer bone metastases usually result in?

A

Head of the humerus destruction

136
Q

Pelvic bone metastases usually occur in what cancer?

A

Prostate cancer

137
Q

What does a cancer’s stage refer to?

A

Tumour size and whether it has spread beyond the area is firsted started growing in

138
Q

What does a cancer’s grade refer to?

A

How the tumour looks under the microscope compared to normal cells

139
Q

T of TNM refers to the tumours ____

A

size

140
Q

Explain the five T stages of Bowel cancer?

A 
Tis= the tumour is only in the mucosa- carcinoma in situ
T1= tumour has invaded the submucosa
T2= tumour invades the muscular propriety
T3= tumour invades the serosa
T4= tumour invades into other organs or peritoneum
141
Q

Explain the N of TNM staging?

A

Refers to lymph nodes involvement. Number= the amount involved.

142
Q

Explain the M of TNM staging?

A

Refers to metastasis. Either 0 or 1. Metastasis present or absent.

143
Q

What type of lung cancer is the most aggressive, metastasising widely and early?

A

Small cell lung cancer

144
Q

What do most SCLC tumours express?

A

NCAM-1

145
Q

What treatment does small cell lung cancer respond well to initially?

A

Chemo

146
Q

What is the most common lung cancer?

A

Squamous cell

147
Q

Where do squamous cell tumours tend to arise from?

A

Centrally from major bronchi
(think squamous cells are metaplastic as they have been in contact with smoke, smoke it most likely to concentrate in the central parts of the lung such as main bronchi)

148
Q

What do squamous cell lung cancers often produce and express?

A

Often produce keratin

Express p40, p63 and cytokeratin 5

149
Q

What is the most common type of lung cancer in non-smokers?

A

Adenocarcinoma

150
Q

Is adenocarcinoma more common in women or men?

A

Women

151
Q

Where do adenocarcinomas of the lung often arise?

A

In the peripheries of the lung

think not related to smoke damage so doesn’t need to be near major airways

152
Q

What do adenocarcinomas normally express?

A

TTF-1 or Napsin

think TTF-1 stands for thyroid transcription factor, thyroid is a gland and adeno tumours arise from glands

153
Q

Diagnosis of large cell carcinoma is a diagnosis of what?

A

Exclusion- the cells have no particular differentiation- you’ve excluded all other types- these diagnoses are less common as we get better at identifying tumours under the microscope

154
Q

Someone with lung cancer and a hoarse voice suggests?

A

Invasion of the recurrent laryngeal nerve

155
Q

Someone with lung cancer and pleuritic chest pain and effusion suggests?

A

Invasion of the pleura and chest wall

156
Q

Someone with lung cancer and breathlessness, AF and pericardial effusion suggest?

A

Invasion of the pericardium

157
Q

Someone with lung cancer and arm weakness suggests?

A

Invasion of the brachial plexus (usually caused by a pan coast tumour)

158
Q

What is a pancoast tumour?

A

An apical lung tumour

159
Q

What are the three features of horner’s syndrome?

A

Ptosis (drooping of upper eye lid, think your eye lid is coming to your toe for TOEsis), mitosis (excessive pupil constriction) and anhydrosis (lack of sweating, think hydro is water, an usually means lack of)

THIS IS ALL ON ONE SIDE OF THE FACE

ie if someone says they have stopped sweating on only one side of the face think straight away lung cancer

160
Q

What causes horner’s syndrome?

A

Lung cancer invasion of the sympathetic chain, usually by a pan coast tumour

161
Q

Lung cancer invasion of the phrenic nerve will cause what to become paralysed?

A

The diaphragm

162
Q

Someone with lung cancer presents with puffy eye lids, headache, distended external jugular vein and clear anastomoses in the abdomen to the IVC what has been invaded?

A

The lung cancer has invaded the SVC.

Easier to understand the symptoms. The puffy eye lids and headache are cause blood can’t drain due to obstruction same with the distended EJV. The anastomoses allow the upper body to try and drain bypassing the blocked SVC. This is an oncological emergency.

163
Q

Name eight paraneoplastic effects of lung cancer?

A

1) Finger clubbing
2) Eaton Lambert Syndrome
3) Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthopathy
4) Hyponatraemia
5) Hypercalcaemia
6) Cushing’s syndrome
7) Weight loss
8) Thrombophlebitis

164
Q

Cushing syndrome is usually caused by what type of lung cancer?

A

Small cell

165
Q

Explain how SCLC results in cushing syndrome?

A

The tumour secretes ACTH resulting in adrenal hyperplasia and raised blood cortisol.

166
Q

Signs and symptoms of cushing syndrome?

A

Weight gain, increase in BP and glucose

167
Q

Name two things small cell lung cancer can secrete?

A

ACTH

ADH

168
Q

Hyponatraemia is usually caused by what type of lung cancer?

A

Small cell

169
Q

Explain how SCLC results in hyponatraemia?

A

The tumour secretes ADH so there’s water retention reducing sodium concentration

170
Q

What type of lung cancer can cause hypercalcaemia?

A

Squamous

171
Q

Explain how squamous cell lung cancer can cause hypercalcaemia?

A

Secretes PTHrp which mimics the real parathyroid hormone so calcium is secreted when its not needed.

172
Q

How can you infer someone has hypercalcaemia due to malignancy?

A

They have really high calcium levels but you can barely detect PTH (parathyroid hormone) in the blood

173
Q

Explain what hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is?

A

A paraneoplastic syndrome that causes the periosteum of the bone to lift off causing pain in the legs and down the shins in particular.

174
Q

Explain what eaton lambert syndrome is?

A

This is weakness in the legs, arms and face due to the body attacking its own nerves. Causes aren’t fully understood and there are several causes but it is mainly associated with lung cancer.

175
Q

8 risk factors for colorectal cancer?

A

FAP, HNPCC, diet high in red meat, smoking, obesity, lack of exercise, IBDs and alcohol

176
Q

Colorectal cancer is most commonly found where?

A

On the left side

177
Q

5 symptoms of right sided colorectal cancer?

A

unexplained iron deficiency anaemia, change in bowel habit, persistent tiredness, colicky abdominal pain, lump in the abdomen

178
Q

3 symptoms of left sided colorectal cancer?

A

rectal bleeding, tenesmus and worsening constipation

179
Q

Why must you always investigate unexplained iron deficiency anaemia?

A

It may be caused by right sided colorectal cancer

180
Q

What is a polyp?

A

A protrusion above an epithelial surface- it can be benign or malignant

181
Q

Most colorectal cancers are?

A

Adenocarcinomas

182
Q

Where do colorectal cancers often metastasise to?

A

The liver- late on.

183
Q

Which type of mutation is most likely to directly activate an oncogene?

A

An amino acid change (missense)

184
Q

What type of hepatitis is hepatocellular carcinoma most strongly associated with?

A

Hepatitis C

185
Q

What virus increases your risk of getting nasopharyngeal cancers and lymphoma?

A

Epstein barr virus

186
Q

What type of asbestos fibre is mesothelioma associated with?

A

chrysotile

187
Q

Where does lung cancer commonly metastasise to?

A
  • Liver
  • Brain
  • Bone
  • Adrenal glands
  • Lung
188
Q

Primary sclerosing cholangitis is a risk factor for developing what type of cancer?

A

Cholangiocarcinoma

189
Q

What does herceptin target?

A

Epidermal growth factor HER-2

190
Q

The most common tumours of the liver are?

A

Metastases from elsewhere

191
Q

Where can p53 cause cell cycle arrest?

A

Between G1 and S phase

192
Q

What type of infection greatly increases your risk of gastric cancer?

A

H. pylori

193
Q

Raised alfa feto protein could be a marker of?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

194
Q

Asbestos is linked to what two cancers?

A

Mesothelioma and adenocarcinoma

195
Q

Coeliac disease increases your risk of what type of cancer?

A

T cell lymphoma

makes sense as coeliacs is a T cell mediated disease

196
Q

Heptoma is the old and outdated name (yes I’m bitter about this) for what?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

197
Q

Cancers caused by lynch syndrome tend to occur where?

A

in the ascending colon

198
Q

How do smooth muscle grow physiologically?

A

by hyperplasia

199
Q

A well circumscribed tumour protruding into the bronchus with a yellow cut surface is most likely to be a?

A

Carcinoid tumour

200
Q

What is the most common heart tumour (bearing in mind they are all extremely rare)?

A

Atrial myxoma in the left atrium

201
Q

Almost all cancers of the mouth are what?

A

Squamous cell carcinomas

202
Q

Two types of malignant oesophageal tumours? Where are they found?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma= upper portion

Adenocarcinoma= lower portion

203
Q

What oesophageal cancer is associated with Barretts and GORD?

A

Adenocarcinoma (think it’s lower down so its near the stomach where the acid is coming from, it also has glands like the stomach)

204
Q

What two things do people with oesophageal cancer usually present with?

A

Progressive dysphagia and weight loss

205
Q

Most common type of gastric cancer?

A

Gastric carcinomas

206
Q

Most cases of carcinoma of the gall bladder are?

A

Adenocarcinomas

207
Q

Gall bladder cancers are always associated with what and spread to where?

A

Gall stones and spread to the liver

208
Q

Pancreatic cancers are usually?

A

Adenocarcinomas

209
Q

Pancreatic cancers are usually found in what part of the pancreas?

A

The head

210
Q

Symptoms of pancreatic cancer?

A

jaundice, steatorrhoea, dark urine, weight loss

211
Q

Explain cerebellar ataxia as a paraneoplastic syndrome?

A

in some cancers e.g. gynae, breast, lung, hodgkins lymphoma you can get cerebellar degeneration as a paraneoplastic syndrome. it is believed to be immune mediated. symptoms will be of cerebellar degeneration i.e. DANISH

212
Q

Explain the limbic encephalitis as a paraneoplastic syndrome?

A

not sure what causes it, thought to be immune mediated. observed in lung cancer patients. symptoms - personality changes, irritability, depression, seizures, memory loss and sometimes dementia.

213
Q

What is dose of radiotherapy measured in?

A

Grays

CLASP and Cancer Revision (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions