Cancer Flashcards

1
Q

Define metaplasia

A

Metaplasia is a reversible change in which one adult cell type is replaced by another cell type.

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2
Q

What stimulates metaplasia?

A

It can be due to an adaptive response to a stimulus, such as cigarette smoke, acid reflux etc. The cells are replaced by those that can withstand the adverse environment.
Metaplasia also takes place when a stem cell is reprogrammed to differentiate along a different pathway in response to signalling by cytokines, growth factors and extracellular matrix components.

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3
Q

What is dysplasia?

A

Dysplasia is an abnormal pattern of growth in which some reversible cellular and architectural features of malignancy are present. (but at a non/pre-malignant stage)

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4
Q

What are the cytological features of dysplasia?

A
  • Loss in architectural orientation
  • Loss in uniformity of individual cells
  • Hyperchromatic, enlarged nuclei
  • Mitotic figures are abundant and in places where they are not usually found.
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5
Q

In which tissues is dysplasia most common? And what causes them.

A
  • Cervix – HPV Infection
  • Bronchus – Smoking
  • Colon – Ulcerative Colitis
  • Larynx – Smoking
  • Stomach – Pernicious Anaemia
  • Oesophagus – Acid Reflux
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6
Q

What was the previous name given to dysplastic tissue?

A

carcinoma-in-situ

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7
Q

Define neoplasia

A

A neoplasia is an abnormal, autonomous, proliferation of cells unresponsive to normal growth control.

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8
Q

Define tumour

A

A tumour is defined as a swelling resulting from excess cell proliferation.

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9
Q

Define metastasis

A

Metastasis is a discontinuous growing colony of tumour cells, at some distance from the primary tumour.

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10
Q

How are tumours named?

A

We name tumours on their presumed site of origin and weather they are benign or malignant.

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11
Q

What are malignant tumours of the epithelia called?

A

Malignant tumours of the epithelia are carcinomas.

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12
Q

Give examples of benign tumours of the epithelia

A

Their benign counterparts end in ‘–oma’. A papilloma is a benign tumour of surface epithelia, and an adenoma is a benign glandular tumour.

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13
Q

What are malignant tumours of the connective called?

A

Malignant tumours of connective tissue are sarcomas

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14
Q

Give examples of malignant tumours of the connective tissue

A

liposarcoma (fat), osteosarcoma (bone), chondrosarcoma (cartilage) leiomyosarcoma (smooth muscle).

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15
Q

Differentiate between lymphoma and leukaemia

A

A leukaemia is a malignant tumour of a bone marrow derived cell, which circulates in blood. While a lymphoma is a malignant tumour of lymphocytes (usually) in lymph nodes.

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16
Q

What is a teratoma?

A

A teratoma is a germ cell tumour

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17
Q

When are teratomas malignant and when are they benign?

A

Gonadal teratomas in males are all malignant, while those in females tend to be benign.

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18
Q

What is a hamartoma?

A

A hamartoma is a localised overgrowth of cells and native tissue to the organ. They are benign, have a completely normal cytology (and so not a neoplasia), but architecturally abnormal (so a tumour).

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19
Q

How are harmartomas different from neoplasias?

A

Harmartomas are benign and have a completely normal cytology.

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20
Q

Where and when are harmartomas common?

A

They are common in children and should stop growing when they do. Common ones are bile duct hamartomas, haemangiomas, bronchial hamartomas, and Peutz-Jegher polyps in the gut.

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21
Q

List features which distinguish benign from malignant tumours

A

Benign:

  • Does not invade nor metastasise
  • Encapsulated
  • Well differentiated
  • Slow growth
  • Normal mitosis

Malignant:

  • Invades surrounding tissue
  • Metastasises to distant sites
  • No capsule
  • Poorly differentiated
  • Rapid growth
  • Abnormal mitosis
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22
Q

When are benign tumours dangerous?

A

Benign tumours are not normally dangerous, except if they are in dangerous places (such as meninges) or secrete dangerous hormones (insulinomas secrete insulin which can lead to hypoglycaemia). They can also bleed, get infected, rupture, or twist/tort.

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23
Q

What are the five morphological features that allow you to see how well differentiated the tumour is?

A
  1. A small numbers of mitoses.
  2. Lack of nuclear pleomorphism
  3. A low nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio.
  4. Relatively uniform nuclei
  5. Close resemblance to the corresponding normal tissue
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24
Q

What is the grade of a tumour?

A

How well differentiated it is.

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25
Q

What is a cancer’s stage?

A

A cancer’s stage is how well/far it’s spread.

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26
Q

What is more important in predicting prognosis, stage or grade?

A

Stage (metastasis)

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27
Q

Describe the TNM staging system.

A
  • T describes the size of the original tumour and whether it has invaded nearby tissue (TX, Tin situ, T0, T1-T4)
  • N describes regional lymph nodes that are involved (Nx, N0-N3)
  • M describes distant metastasis (M0, M1)
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28
Q

What are the reasons some cells divide at different rates?

A
  • Maturity: embryonic cells divide at a much faster rate than adult cells
  • Complexity of the system: more complex cells have a slower rate of division
  • Necessity for renewal: skin and gastrointestinal epithelial cells divide every 20 hours, while hepatocytes divide every year.
  • State of differentiation: some cells such as neurones don’t ever divide.
  • Neoplasic cells have lost the ability to inhibit division
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29
Q

What does the fact that most cancer cells are aneuploidic show?

A

That there had been errors in cell division.

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30
Q

Define the cell cycle

A

The cell cycle is an orderly sequence of events in which a cell duplicates its contents and divides in two.

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31
Q

What are the two phases, and the states they are split by, of the cell cycle?

A
  • M-phase covers mitosis and cytokinesis

- Interphase covers G0, G1, S and G2

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32
Q

What is the most vulnerable period in the cell cycle?

A

Mitosis

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33
Q

Give four reasons why mitosis is the most vulnerable period in the cell cycle.

A
  1. Cells are most easily killed in that state; Premature or aberrant mitosis leads to cell death.
  2. DNA damage acquired during this phase cannot be repaired, and is passed on to daughter cells.
  3. Gene transcription is silenced as chromosomes are being separated.
  4. Metabolism is shut down to focus on mitosis.
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34
Q

Describe the states interphase is split into

A
  • G0 is when the cell cycle machinery is dismantled, and the cell is functional. Most cells are at this state.
  • G1 is when the decision to divide has been made.
  • S is when DNA and organelles are duplicated as well as increase in protein synthesis.
  • G2 is when the cell checks everything is okay before proceeding towards mitosis.
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35
Q

Briefly describe the structure of a centrosome

A

It consists of two centrioles, a mother and daughter, which are barrels of 9 triplet microtubules.

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36
Q

What are the functions of the centrosome

A

The centrosome functions as a microtubule organising centre and mitotic spindle.

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37
Q

When and how is the centrosome duplicated?

A

The daughter centrioles separate, duplicate, and thus form two centrioles in Late G1

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38
Q

From where do microtubules grow and polymerise?

A

Microtubules grow and polymerise from nucleating sites on centrosomes.

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39
Q

Describe what happens in prophase

A

Prophase mainly involves the condensation of chromatin to form chromosomes.

In late prophase, the homologous pair of chromosomes migrate to opposite sides of the nucleus and the mitotic spindle forms outside the nucleus:

  • Radial microtubules arrays (Asters) form around each centrosome.
  • The radial arrays meet, determining the polar microtubules
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40
Q

How are chromosomes formed in prophase?

A

As the DNA is already duplicated, there are two sets of DNA in the nucleus. The DNA wraps around histone proteins to form chromatin, which then pack closer to form nucleosomes. These eventually coil together to form a chromatid. The sister chromatids join at the centromere to form a chromosome.

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41
Q

How is metaphase split?

A

In early prometaphase there is breakdown of the nucleus, followed by the attachment of the chromosomes to the spindle via the kinetochores on each sister chromatid.

In late prometaphase the microtubules from opposite poles are captured by sister kinetochores. Chromosomes attached to each pole congress in the middle. It is metaphase when the chromosomes are at the equator.

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42
Q

How is anaphase split?

A

Anaphase A: there is a signal to break down cohesin (the protein that holds the chromatids together), allowing the separation of the chromatids.

At anaphase B, the daughter chromosomes migrate towards the poles, while the centrosomes migrate apart.

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43
Q

Describe what happens in telophase

A

Telophase begins when the sister chromatids have reached opposite poles, arriving at the centrosome spindles. The nuclear envelope reassembles around the chromosomes at opposite ends.
A contractile filament ring assembles around the equator, forming the cleavage furrow, which will contract to split the cell in two.

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44
Q

Describe the process cytokinesis

A

Mitosis ends when new membrane is inserted between the cells, essentially separating them. The acto-myosin ring contracts to divide the cell. A midbody is left between the cells, which is composed of residual spindle fibres. After cytokinesis, interphase microtubule array reassembles, chromatin decondenses and nuclear substructures reform.

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45
Q

Where is the mitotic checkpoint (in terms of timing)?

A

There is a mitotic checkpoint between prometaphase and metaphase controlling weather a cell progresses into anaphase.

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46
Q

Explain the mitotic checkpoint

A

CENP-E sense when kinetochores are attached. BUB protein kinases then dissociate from the kinetochore when the chromosomes are properly attached to the spindle. Only when all the BUBs are dissociated, can anaphase proceed.

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47
Q

What word is used to describe normal attachment of chromosomes to the mitotic spindles?

A

Amphelic

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48
Q

What names are given to the types of attachment that leads to aneuploidy?

A
  • Syntelic is when both sister chromatids are attached to the same centrosome pole.
  • Merotelic is when one kinetochore is connected to two microtubules from both centrioles, resulting in a broken/lost centrosome in cell division.
  • Monoletic is when only one chromatid is attached.
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49
Q

How can the mitotic checkpoint be manipulated to treat cancer?

A
  • A checkpoint kinase inhibitor will allow the tumour cells to produce gross chromosome mis-segregations, which will eventually cause the cell to undergo apoptosis.
  • Taxanes and Vinca Alkaloids alter the microtubule dynamics leading to unattached kinetochores. This therefore causes long-term mitotic arrest.
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50
Q

Which is the longest phase of the cell cycle (not G0)

A

G1

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51
Q

Where (when) are the checkpoints before the cell undergoes mitosis?

A
  • There is a checkpoint at late G1 before entering S phase. The cell will only continue to S phase if the cell is big enough
  • There is another checkpoint at G2, before the onset of mitosis. The cell can only continue if the cell size and external environment are correct, as well as accurate and complete DNA replication takes place.
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52
Q

What can happen if the cell doesn’t pass the checkpoint?

A
  1. Cell cycle arrest – at the checkpoints. This can be temporary, until the parameter has been fixed.
  2. Apoptosis – happens if DNA damage is too great, or if there are chromosomal abnormalities or toxic agents present.
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53
Q

What transcription factor stimulates the entry of the cell into the cell cycle?

A

c-Myc

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54
Q

What is the name given to the type of signal caused by binding of growth factors?

A

Mitogenic signal

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55
Q

How is the receptor that a growth factor binds to activated?

A

Growth factor peptides are dimers which bind simultaneously to two tyrosine kinase receptors, bringing them together. This allows the cytoplasmic tails of the receptor (containing the tyrosine kinases) to cross-phosphorylate each other. This creates multiple phosphorylated tyrosine residues, which act as docking sites that recruit other proteins.

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56
Q

How is Ras activated?

A

Once the tyrosine kinase receptor is activated, an adaptor protein called GRB2 hooks onto a phosphate group and recruits an exchange factor called SOS. SOS activates a membrane-bound signaling (GTP binding) protein called Ras, which is normally inactive bound to GDP. SOS catalyses the exchange of GTP from the cytoplasm to the Ras protein, changing the conformation and activating it.

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57
Q

How is Ras inactivated?

A

GTPase Activating Proteins (GAPs) turn off the Ras

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58
Q

Describe the nature and function of Ras

A
  • Membrane bound
  • GTP binding protein
  • Normally bound to GDP and inactive
  • Activated by exchange factors (SOS) which change GDP with GTP
  • Activates protein kinase cascade
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59
Q

How is Ras often mutated in caner?

A
  1. Glycine at position 12 valine: prevents GAP binding and therefore preventing Ras inactivation
  2. Glutamine at position 61 leucine prevents GTP hydrolysis as glutamine is normally involved in the intrinsic GTPase activity of Ras
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60
Q

How does Ras lead to increased levels of c-Myc?

A

GTP-Ras activates a protein kinase cascade by binding to the first kinase in the ERK (Extracellular Signal-regulated Kinase) cascade. The final MAPK phosphorylates Myc

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61
Q

What does MAPK stand for?

A

Mitogen Activated Protein Kinase

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62
Q

Describe the MAPK cascade activated by Ras

A
  • The first kinase (generically called MAPKKK), called Raf, phosphorylates to activate the second kinase, using ATP.
  • The second kinase (generically called MAPKK), called MEK, phosphorylates to activate the second kinase, also using ATP.
  • The last kinase (generally called MAPK), called ERK, phosphorylates target proteins involved in gene transcription and protein synthesis. An example of a transcription factor activated is Myc.
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63
Q

What proteins control progression through the cell cycle?

A

Cyclin-dependent kinases (Cdks) also called cyclically activated protein kinases .

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64
Q

What type of kinases are Cdks?

A

serine/threonine kinases

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65
Q

How are Cdks activated?

A

Cyclins and phosphorylation (twice, then one is removed)

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66
Q

When are cyclins and Cdks expressed in the cell?

A

Cdks are always expressed
Different cyclins are expressed transiently through the cell cycle. First cyclin D at the end of G1, then cyclin E, then cyclin A and finally cyclin B.

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67
Q

Describe how Cdks are activated by phosphorylation

A

The Cdk-cyclin complexes are further regulated by two kinases. CAK (Cdk Activating Kinase) phosphorylates one site on Cdk1 to promote Cdk1 activity – positive phosphorylation. Wee1 phosphorylates another site on to inhibit Cdk1 activity – negative phosphorylation. A Cdk with two phosphate groups is still inactive. In order for it to be catalytically active, the inhibitory phosphorylation must be removed by Cdc25, a phosphatase.

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68
Q

How does Cdk1-cyclinB increase due to positive feedback?

A

Active MPF (Cdk1-CyclinB) has a positive feedback effect on Cdc25 by stimulating phosphorylation of the inactive Cdc25 which can dephosphorylate more inactive MPF more active MPF

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69
Q

What is the name given to the Cdk1-cyclinB complex?

A

MPF (maturation promoting factor)

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70
Q

Describe the role of MPF (Cdk1-CyclinB)

A

In the early phase of mitosis, active MPF phosphorylates many substrates required for mitosis. The Cdk1-cyclinB complex holds mitosis until a signal is received that all kinetochores are attached to the spindle. When all kinetochores are attached, cyclinB degradation is triggered. This leads to the inactivation of Cdk1 and key substrates are dephosphorylated so that mitosis can proceed at the metaphase-anaphase transition.

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71
Q

From what points does MPF (Cdk1-CyclinB) exist in the cell?

A

The Cdk1-cyclinB (MPF) complex is only activated at the start of mitosis and is deactivated before anaphase

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72
Q

How does c-Myc kick start the cell cycle?

A

One of the main genes ‘activated’ by c-Myc (transcription factor stimulated by growth factor) is that which codes for cyclinD. CyclinD is able to form complexes with Cdk4 and Cdk6. (then cyclin E, then A then B)

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73
Q

What is the order of Cdk complexes activated in the cell?

A
  • Cdk4/6-cyclinD from G0 to G1
  • Cdk2-cyclinE from G1 to S
  • Cdk2-cyclinA from S to Mitosis
  • Gdk1-cyclinB from Prophase to Anaphase
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74
Q

How does Cdk2-cyclinE increase due to positive feedback?

A

CyclinE is then able to form a complex with Cdk2, which is needed to move the cell from G1 to S phase. An example of a protein phosphorylated by cyclinE is the RetinoBlastoma (RB) protein - pRB, which is inactivated by phosphorylation.

When inactivated, the conformational change allows the release of a transcription factor E2F. Among other proteins, E2F allows for the transcription of further cyclinE

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75
Q

Describe the nature of the RB protein

A

The RB protein is normally active, holding transcription factor E2F in place. When phosphorylated (twice) it is inactivated, letting lose E2F which up regulates transcription of cyclinE

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76
Q

How are Cdks inactivated?

A
  • Wee1

- CKIs (Cdk Inhibitors)

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77
Q

What are the two families of CKIs and what Cdks do they effect?

A
  • The INK4 family is active in G1, to inhibit Cdk4/6-cyclinD complexes by displacing cyclinD. There is a balance between
    cyclin D binding to Cdk4/6 and INK4 binding to control progression through G1.
  • The CIP/KIP family is active in S phase to inhibit all Cdk complexes by binding to the entire complex itself
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78
Q

Categorise the following into TS or Oncogenes:

  • EGFR/HER2
  • Ras
  • RB
  • CyclinD
  • B-raf
  • CKIs
  • c-Myc
A

The oncogenes (mutated proto-oncogenes) include:

  • EGFR/HER2 (receptors) mutationally activated or overexpressed in many breast cancers
  • Ras mutational activation in many cancers
  • CyclinD is overexpressed in 50% of breast cancers
  • B-Raf (top kinase in ERK cascade) mutationally overactivated in melanomas
  • c-Myc overexpression in many tumours

Tumour suppressors include:

  • RB is inactivated in many cancers
  • CKI under-expression in many cancers
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79
Q

What are the ‘pillars of therapy’ to treat cancer?

A

Surgery
Chemotherapy
Radiotherapy
Immunotherapy

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80
Q

What are the two subtypes of chemotherapy?

A
  • Cytotoxic chemotherapy

- Targeted therapies

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81
Q

List the types of cytotoxic chemotherapies

A
  • Alkylating agents
  • Anti-metabolites
  • Anthracyclines
  • Vinca Alkaloids and Taxanes
  • Topoisomerase inhibitors
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82
Q

List the types of targeted chemotherapies

A
  • Small molecule inhibitors

- Monoclonal antibodies

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83
Q

What is the general mechanism by which cytotoxic chemotherapies work?

A

Cytotoxics ‘select’ rapidly dividing cells by targeting their structures. They target DNA, apart from Vinca Alkaloids and Taxanes which target mitotic spindles. [Cytotoxic drugs are usually given intravenously, but occasionally orally.] Because of its systematic nature, they target all rapidly dividing cells.

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84
Q

What are the side effects of cytotoxic chemotherapies?

A

Side effects include: hair loss, nausea, vomiting, damaged nails, fatigue, weight loss, anorexia and immunosuppression (as bone marrow cells are also rapidly dividing, there is lowering of the neutrophil count causing neutropenia), nephrotoxicity, neurotoxicity and diarrhoea.

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85
Q

Define cancer treatment scenarios in terms of being neoadjuvant or adjuvant

A

When a treatment is given pre-operatively, it can be described as an neoadjuvant. When given post-operatively, it can be described as an adjuvant.

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86
Q

How do alkylating agents treat cancer?

A

Alkylating agents add alkyl groups (CnH2n+1) to guanine residues in DNA. This allows the formation of cross-links between the stands, entire DNA molecules and between the DNA and histones. This will ultimately lead to apoptosis via a checkpoint mechanism as the DNA cannot unwind.

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87
Q

What are the risks with using alkylating agents as chemotherapeutic agents?

A

The addition of alkyl groups to guanine residues leads t the risk of secondary malignancies as they encourage miss-pairings.

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88
Q

What is the difference between alkylating agents and pseudoalkylating agents?

A

Alkylating agents add alkyl groups to guanine residues. Pseudoalkylating agents add a platinum group to guanine residues instead.

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89
Q

What are the side-effects of alkylating agents?

A
  • hair loss
  • nephrotoxicity (alkylating)
  • neurotoxicity
  • ototoxicty (platinum)
  • nausea
  • vomiting
  • diarrhoea
  • immunosuppression
  • tiredness.
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90
Q

How do anti-metabolites treat cancer?

A

Anti-metabolites masquerade as purine or pyrimidine residues. They replace bases during DNA synthesis, leading to breakages in the DNA double strand and therefore apoptosis. Also blocks transcription. They can also be folate antagonists which prevents the formation of folate acid, an important building block for many amino acids.

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91
Q

What are the side-effects of anti-metabolites?

A

alopecia, immunosuppression, nausea and vomiting, diarrhoea, palmar-plantar erythrodysesthia and fatigue

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92
Q

How do anthracyclins treat cancer?

A

Anthracyclins fit in between (intercalate) DNA strands, inhibiting transcription and replication. They also generate free radicals that can damage DNA and cell membranes. Because they block DNA repair, they are mutagenic.

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93
Q

What are the side effects of anthracyclins?

A

Side effects of antracyclins include hair loss, fatigue, vomiting and nausea, immunosuppression, skin changes, cardiac toxicity, and red urine.

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94
Q

How do Vinca Alkaloids and Taxanes treat cancer?

A

Vinca Alkaloids inhibit microtubule assembly and Taxanes inhibit microtubule disassembly.

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95
Q

What are the side effects of Vinca Alkaloids and Taxanes?

A

Side effects include: nerve damage (peripheral neuropathy, autonomic neuropathy, alopecia, nausea and vomiting, immunosuppression, arthralgia and allergy.

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96
Q

How do topoisomerase inhibitors treat cancer

A

Topoisomerases prevent DNA torsional strain during DNA replication and transcription by introducing single (topo1) or double (topo2) strand breaks in the poshphodiester backbone of DNA. Inhibiting this leads to permanent DNA breaks –> apoptosis of the cell.

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97
Q

What cytotoxic drugs also have anti-topoisomerase activity (besides main function)?

A

Anthracyclines

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98
Q

What are the side effects of topoisomerase inhibitors?

A

Side effects include alopecia, nausea and vomiting, fatigue, immunosuppression and acute cholinergic type syndrome (irinotectan) which is diarrhoea, abdominal cramps, and diaphoresis (sweating) – therefore given with atropine.

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99
Q

Explain why different drugs and modalities are often given in combination to prevent/overcome resistance to treatment

A

Cancer cells can become resistant to some of the cytotoxic drugs. They do this by acquiring mutations, which are then naturally selected for during treatment.
Therefore, drugs are often given in combination as it is unlikely the cell can squire both resistant mutations.

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100
Q

Give examples of ways cancers can become resistant to treatment?

A
  • DNA repair mechanisms upregulated –> no double-stranded breaks and thus no apoptosis.
  • DNA adducts are replaced by Base Extinction repair
  • Drug efflux from the cell using ATP-binding cassette transporters
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101
Q

What are the 10 hallmarks of cancer?

A
  1. Self-sufficient: normal cells need growth signals to move into the cell cycle
  2. Insensitive to anti-growth signals
  3. Anti-apoptic
  4. Pro-invasive and metastatic
  5. Pro-angiogenic
  6. Non senescent
  7. Dysregulated metabolism
  8. Immune system evasion
  9. Unstable DNA
  10. Inflammation
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102
Q

How can monoclonal antibodies be used to treat cancer?

A

Monoclonal antibodies (mAbs) can bind to the growth factors to prevent them causing receptor dimerisation and thus leading to mitotic signalling pathway. mAbs can also bind to the ligand binding sites on the receptor itself, preventing ligand binding. This type of binding also causes receptor internalisation and thus down-regulating the number of expressed receptors.

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103
Q

Give examples of cancers that can be treated with monoclonal antibodies

A

Bevacizumab binds to and neutralises the VEGF receptor, improving survival in colorectal cancer. Cetuximab targets the extracellular portion of EGFR to prevent it dimerising.

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104
Q

How can monoclonal antibodies be administered?

A

Intravaenously

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105
Q

Outline monoclonal antibody nomenclature

A
  • momab refers to antibodies from mice
  • ximab refers to chimeric antibodies
  • zumab refers to humanised antibodies
  • mumab refers to fully human antibodies
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106
Q

How do small molecule inhibitors treat cancer?

A

Small molecule inhibitors bind to the intracellular portion of the tyrosine kinase receptors, preventing autophosphorylation and thus blocking downstream signalling. They can also block the receptor domain. [It can be given orally]

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107
Q

What is the name of the small molecule inhibitor that is very successful in treating CML?

A

Glivec

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108
Q

How is CML successfully treated with a small molecule inhibitor?

A

The (9,22) chromosome translocation in patients with chronic myeloid leukaemia is targeted as it was found to create a fusion protein (called Bcr-abl) containing a tyrosine kinase, which was found to cause over-production of white blood cells. Glivec is a small molecule inhibitor that only targets the Bcr-abl ATP binding region within the tyrosine kinase domain.

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109
Q

Why was CML treated so successfully with Glivec?

A

the case was an example of an ‘Oncogene addicted’ cancer. This is when a single mutation is the diving force of the tumour and can therefore be seen as it’s ‘Achilles’ Heel’

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110
Q

What are the advantages of using targeted therapies over systemic cytotoxic drugs?

A

The main advantages of using targeted therapies in the blockage of cancer hallmarks the without toxicity seen in cytotoxic drugs. Targeted therapies can also inhibit angiogenesis and anti-apoptosis.

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111
Q

What is the main disadvantage of using targeted therapies over systemic cytotoxic drugs?

A

a major disadvantage of targeted therapies is the ability for the tumour to develop resistance easily

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112
Q

Give examples of mutations that lead to resistance against targeted therapies

A
  • Mutation in the ATP binding region of the Bcr-abl protein allowing only ATP to bind and not Glivec.
  • Intrinsic resitance (Herceptin is only effective in 85% of HER2+ breast cancers, suggesting other driving pathways)
  • Intragenic mutations
  • Upregulation of downstream or parallel pathways
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113
Q

What are the future developments in targeted therapies?

A

Anti-sense oligonucleotides can hinder translation of specific mRNA. They can also recruit an enzyme to cleave the target mRNA. This is particularly useful for ‘undruggable’ targets.

RNA interference is a single stranded complementary RNA which recognises and destroys mRNA, preventing the ‘bad’ protein(s) from being synthesised. However, this technique has lagged behind anti-sense technology – especially in cancer therapy. Furthermore, all these treatments are very expensive and the NHS cannot afford them.

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114
Q

What types of external factors can influence the cell to divide?

A

Chemical – hormones, growth factors, ion concentrations, ECM, molecules on other cells, nutrients and dissolved gas concentrations

Physical – mechanical stresses, temperature and the topography of the ECM.

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115
Q

What are the most understood external factors that influence the cell to divide?

A
  • Growth factors
  • Cell-cell adhesion
  • Cell-ECM adhesion
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116
Q

What is anchorage dependece?

A

In suspension cells do not significantly synthesise proteins or DNA; cells require ECM attachment and a certain degree of spreading (important) to begin protein synthesis and DNA replication

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117
Q

Why is cell spreading not a passive process?

A

It requires energy to modulate cell adhesion and the cytoskeleton during spreading

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118
Q

Why don’t cells synthesise proteins or replicate in suspension?

A

They require ECM attachment and cell spreading

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119
Q

What are the most important cell-ECM adhesion molecules?

A

Integrins as they have lots of functions such as a role in development, the immune system, clotting system etc.

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120
Q

How do integrins allow mechanical continuity between the ECM and cell interior?

A

Most integrins are linked to the actin cytoskeleton through actin-binding proteins. An exception to this is the α6β4 integrin which is found in epithelial hemidesmosomes (basal structures associated with epithelial cells) and is linked to the cytokeratin (Intermediary Filaments of epithelial cells) network.

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121
Q

Explain the structure of integrins

A

Integrins are heterodimeric complexes of α and β subunits that are associated by their head regions. Each of their tail regions spans the plasma membrane into the cytoplasm.

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122
Q

What is required for integrins to function?

A

The head regions must bind to divalent cations such as calcium for their function.

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123
Q

How many combinations of integrin subunits exist?

A

There are 10 α units and 8 possible β subunits to make 20 combinations of integrin molecules.

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124
Q

What are integrin complex clusters called?

A

Focal adhesions

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125
Q

How are integrins involved in outside-in and inside-out signalling?

A

Focal adhesions are a way for the cell to interpret the environment around it. Ligand binding extends the tails of the integrein complex allowing cytoplasmic signalling and actin assembly.This is called outside-in signalling and can alter the phenotype of the cell.

Inside-out signalling is when a hormone can alter the affinity of the integrin.

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126
Q

What term is used to describe why cells in culture stop growing after they form a confluent layer?

A

Density dependence (competition for external growth factors), previously thought to be related to ‘contact inhibition’

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127
Q

How do density dependence (GF) and anchorage dependence (ECM) signalling work synergistically to allow cell proliferation?

A

There is cross-talk between growth factor signalling and ECM signalling. There is a convergence in the signalling of their pathways to produce proliferation. Individually, their activation of signalling pathways are weak, but together it is strong and sustained.

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128
Q

What are the two types of cell-cell contact?

A
  • Short-term contact is when the transient interactions between the cells do not form stable cell-cell junctions.
  • Long-term contact is when there are stable interactions leading to the formation of cell-cell junctions.
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129
Q

What happens when non-epithelial cells collide?

A

They actually ‘repel’ one-another by paralysing motility at the site of contact. This in turn promotes the formation of a motile front at the opposite site allowing the cell to move away.

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130
Q

What process prevents multi-layering of cells in culture and in vivo?

A

contact inhibition of locomotion

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131
Q

What cell types are able to form long-term cell-cell contacts?

A

epithelial or endothelial cells

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132
Q

How can cell-cell junctions be arranged?

A

These can be arranged continuously (zonulae) or in discrete spots (maculae).

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133
Q

What are the consequences of long-term cell-cell contact?

A

Contact between endothelial cells leads to stable adhesions and mutual induction of spreading. Cell-cell contact leads to lower proliferation of the cells.

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134
Q

How do adherens junctions enable cell-cell contact?

A

Adherens junctions are one of the most important types of cell-cell junctions. They use ca2+ dependent cadherin adhesion molecules to form a complex junction. Extracellular, CADHERIN associates with with identical molecules on adjacent cells. Intracellularly, the cadherin cytoplasmic tails associate with a β-CATENIN molecule, which associates with an α-CATENIN molecule, which associates with an actin filament.

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135
Q

How does cell-cell contact lead to decreased cell proliferation?

A

In the cytoplasm, β-catenin associates with LEF-1 forming a transcription factor, leading to proliferation. When bound to cadherin, β-catenin is not available for LEF-1 association and therefore inhibits proliferation.

  • also activates Rac and inhibits Rho
  • some growth factor receptors are associated with cell-cell junctions
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136
Q

How does APC gene mutation lead to increased proliferation?

A

APC gene-product is a protein that normally degrades beta-catenin in the cytoplasm. Without this, more beta-catenin can bind to LEF-1 to form a transcription factor leading to proliferation.

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137
Q

What term is given to the limit of the number of times a cell can divide?

A

The Hayflick limit

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138
Q

What changes must an epithelial cell go through to allow invasion and then metastasis?

A

Metastasis of a primary carcinoma cell only works when cell-cell adhesion is down-regulated. Cells must be motile in order to spread. Degradation of the ECM must also take place, and so matrix metalloproteinase levels are increase to migrate through the basal lamina.

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139
Q

In what percentage of cancer is Ras mutated?

A

30%

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140
Q

What type of genes are achorage dependent or density dependent related genes?

A

proto-oncogenes

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141
Q

What are the situations in which you may see cell movement?

A
  • organogenesis
  • wound healing
  • growth factors/chemoattractants
  • de-differentiation (in tumours)
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142
Q

How is directionality of cell movement achieved?

A

By the polarity of the cell

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143
Q

What do cells ‘hold’ onto while they move?

A

The substratum

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144
Q

What are the types of motility based on directionality?

A

Hapoptatic motility is movement with no direction. Chemotactic motility is where the cell senses a stimuli and goes towards it.

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145
Q

What molecule is assembled and disassembled in movement?

A

Actin filaments

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146
Q

What are the different structures formed by actin filaments, and how are they organised?

A
  • Filopodia are finger-like projections rich in actin filaments, used by the cell to sense the environment. The actin forms tight parallel bundles which do not contract.
  • Lamellipodia are sheet like protrusions rich in actin filaments, which attach to the substratum via focal adhesions to move the cell forward. Here the actin is branched and cross-linked.
  • In stress fibres, they form anti-parallel, contractile bundles (which contract to slide past each other and shorten).
  • Microvilli
  • Stereocilia
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147
Q

What are the different proteins that can regulate the shape of the actin filaments and the way they interact with themselves?

A
  • Sequestering proteins bind to the G-actin monomers and hold them in a pore until they are required.
  • Nucleating proteins are made to initiate the polymerisation of actin to generate the filament
  • Motor proteins provide contraction and other proteins bind to generate a filament.
  • Capping proteins are stop signals to prevent further growth
  • Severing proteins are like scissors
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148
Q

What is actin nucleation?

A

Nucleation is the limited step in actin dynamics, it is the formation of trimers to initiate polymerisation of filaments.

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149
Q

What proteins help in the formation of actin trimers in the process of nucleation (apart from nucleating proteins)?

A

Arp2 and Arp3 (actin related proteins) are proteins that stabilise the point at which nucleation starts, forming an Arp23 complex which is able to bind a trimer of actin monomers.

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150
Q

How do Profilin and Thymosin proteins influence actin filament elongation?

A

Profilin exchanges ADP in G-actin to ATP which makes it easier to join the filament. Thymosin forms complexes with G-actin, preventing it from polymerising. The balance between these two proteins regulate the rate of filament growth

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151
Q

Give examples of proteins that cap the positive and negative ends of actin filaments

A
  • At the positive end, these include: Cap Z, Gelosin and Fragmin/Severin.
  • At the negative end, these include: Tropomodulin and Arp Complex.
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152
Q

What are the purpose of severing proteins?

A

Severing is a scissor-like activity to cut the filaments in order to depolymerize and dissemble the filaments for quick remodelling of the cytoskeleton and a burst of new polymerisation.

153
Q

Give examples of severing proteins

A

Severing proteins include: Gelsolin, ADF/Cofilin and Fragmin/Severin.

154
Q

How do actin-binding proteins fascilitate movement?

A

Cells move forwards by lamellae protrusions, where there is net filament assembly at the leading edge, and disassembly behind it. The filaments at the assembled edge are eventually branched and capped. It is the addition of monomers which provides the force behind the movement. At the back of the lamaellae protrusions the filaments are disassembled by severing proteins to detach branches which are not needed.

155
Q

How are filopodia formed?

A

Filopodia form with actin polymerisation, building and cross-linking to form tightly-packed parallel bundles. The polymerisation begins at the amorphous region (end of the finger), building actin filaments towards the cell rather than away.

156
Q

What signalling mechanisms can control cytoskeletal components?

A
  • Ion flux changes, such as calcium ion influx
  • Phosphoinositide signalling – phospholipid binding
  • Kinases/phosphatases activate/inactive cytoskeletal proteins
  • Signalling cascade via small GTPases
157
Q

Explain the role of small G proteins of the Rho family in controlling organisation of the actin cytoskeleton.

A

The actin cytoskeleton can also be controlled by small G-proteins of the Ras superfamily (of which also include Rac, Rho and Cdc42). The proteins can be activated by tyrosine kinase receptors, adhesion receptors and signal transduction pathways. These active G-proteins bind to effector proteins such as WASP, Profilin etc., to carry out specific functions:
• Filopodia are activated by Cdc42
• Lamellipodia are activated by Rac
• Stress fibres (bundles of contractile filaments) are activated by Rho. (Too much Rho can cause the cell to shrink and detach due to uncontrollable contraction).

158
Q

What are the five scenarios where apoptosis is important/useful?

A
  1. Death of harmful cells (with damaged DNA that could potentially turn malignant)
  2. Developmentally defective cells need to die (such as in central tolerance)
  3. Excess/unnecessary cells also need to be removed. Such cells can include those between the digits during development
  4. Removal of obsolete cells such as mammary epithelium after lactation
  5. Exploration of the mechanisms by chemotherapy.
159
Q

Define necrosis

A

Necrosis is unregulated cell death associated with trauma, cellular disruption and an inflammatory response

160
Q

How do cells die by necrosis?

A

Traumatic damage causes the cell membrane to become more permeable. This leads to the cell swelling and eventually rupture of the membrane, leading to the release of proteases. This causes autodigestion, creating a mess of cellular material which attracts phagocytes and causes localised inflammation.

161
Q

Define apoptosis

A

Apoptosis is regulated cell death with controlled disassembly of cellular contents without disruption nor an inflammatory response.

162
Q

What are the changes associated with the execution phase of apoptosis?

A
  • Loss of microvilli and intercellular junctions
  • Cell shrinkage
  • Loss of plasma membrane asymmetry (phosphatidylserine is normally only on the interior side of the membrane, but now on the outer – can be used to detect apoptotic cells)
  • DNA fragmentation
  • Formation of membrane blebs
  • Fragmentation into membrane-enclosed apoptotic bodies
163
Q

Why can apoptotic cells be discovered through staining?

A

Due to loss of plasma membrane asymmetry - phosphatidylserine (normally only on the interior side of the membrane) is now on the outer side of the membrane.

164
Q

What produces the laddering effect seen in an agarose gel of the DNA from an apoptotic cell?

A

DNA cut in a regular manner by specific CADs (Caspase Activated Dnase)

165
Q

What are the two ways of initiating the death programme?

A
  • Death receptor trimerisation (death by design)

- Intrinsic breakdown of the mitochondria (death by default)

166
Q

What family of enzymes mainly execute the apoptotic response?

A

Caspases (Cysteine-dependent Aspartate-directed Proteases)

167
Q

What are the properties of caspases?

A

They have a cysteine residue in the active site which is required for the catalytic properties of enzyme. They cut the protein after the aspartate residue. Caspases are themselves also activated by proteolysis, which triggers a cascade of activation.

168
Q

What are the two types of caspases?

A

Initiator caspases and effector caspases.

169
Q

What are the initiator caspases?

A

2, 8, 9 and 10

Plan 10

170
Q

What is different about initiator caspases compared to effector caspases?

A

Initiator caspases have protein-protein interaction domains before their p20 and p10 subunits. These can either be CARD or DED domains.

171
Q

What common feature do all caspases have?

A

p20 and p10 subunits.

172
Q

How are initiator caspases activated?

A

Activator caspases need to be cleaved twice. After cleavage, the molecules fold into an active hetero-tetrameric capsule molecule, where two small subunits and two large subunits combine. The active hetero-tetramer is the enzyme that will go to cleave target proteins.

173
Q

What type of binding do caspases do to become activated?

A

homotypic binding

174
Q

What are the effector caspases?

A

3,6 and 7

175
Q

What are the properties of death receptors?

A

All cells have one or more members of the death receptors (such as the Fas ligand). They have cysteine-rich extracellular domains and a cytoplasmic Death Domain (DD). The monomeric receptors are only activated when bound to a specific trimeric ligand.

176
Q

Describe the Fas/FasL pathway

A
  1. Fas-Ligand on cytotoxic CD8+ T-lymphocytes can bind to the Fas receptor on a cell, causing the trimerisation of the receptor.
  2. The DDs of the Fas receptors interact with the DD of an adaptor protein called FADD
  3. The DED region of FADD interacts with the DED domain of procaspase 8
  4. This causes the oligomerisation of procaspase 8 leading to the formation of Death Inducing Signalling Complex (DISC). Oiligomerisation allows the cross-cleavage of three procaspase 8 molecules eventually leading to an active initiator caspase 8 tetramer being formed.
  5. This goes in to activate a cascade of caspases (mainly through caspase 3)
177
Q

What molecule competes for procaspase 8 for the DED domain presented by FADD?

A

Another adaptor protein called FLIP

178
Q

How does FLIP compete with procaspase 8, acting as a negative apoptotic regulator?

A

This because it has two DED domains, and so competes with procaspases. It has no proteolytic activity and so does not activate cause a caspase cascade.

179
Q

What causes the release of cyctochrome-c from the mitochindria?

A

Cellular stress such as lack of stimulation from growth factors, or damage can interfere with mitochondrial transmembrane potential (used to make ATP via the electron transport chain).

This causes the release of cytochrome-c and other other apoptosis-inducing factors into the cytoplasm.

180
Q

Describe the formation of the apoptosome

A

The apoptosome is made of Apaf1 (apoptotic activating factor-1), procaspase 9, cytochrome-c and ATP. When cytochrome-c is released from the mitochondria, it binds to the WD-40 domain of the Apaf1 protein (outer end). This triggers a conformational change in the Apaf1 protein causing it to form a heptamer. This assembly is ATP-dependent. The CARD domains are centered in the middle, allowing association with the CARD domain on procaspase 9. This completes the formation of the apoptosome.

181
Q

Which initator caspases contain CARD domains and which contain DED domains?

A

caspase 2 and 9 contain CARD domains

Caspase 8 and 10 contain TWO DED domains

182
Q

How does the apoptosome activate procasapse 9, and thus leading to apoptosis?

A

The 7 procaspase 9 molecules in close proximity leads to cross-cleavage and release active caspase 9. Caspase 9 also initiates the caspase cascade.

183
Q

How can are the two apoptotic pathways linked?

A

Caspase 8 (from the extrinsic pathway) can also cleave a protein called Bid which enhances release of cytochrome-c from the mitochondria.

184
Q

Why is it that a cell with low ATP may die in a way more related to necrosis than apoptosis?

A

The mitochondrial pathway requires ATP, therefore the energy levels of the cell can determine where on the gradient of apoptosis to necrosis the cell falls at. Low ATP levels will result in necrosis as the mitochondrial apoptotic pathway cannot be engaged.

185
Q

What is the name of the anti-apoptotic pathway activated by EGFR cross-phosphorylisation?

A

PI3’-Kinase Pathway

186
Q

Describe the PI3’-Kinase Pathway

A

The docking site on the EGFR allows the binding of the adaptor protein p85, which associates with protein p110 – together forming the PI3’-Kinase. The lipid kinase phosphorylates the cell membrane lipid PIP2 to PIP3. PIP3 is now a docking site for the protein kinase PKB/Akt. This kinase phosphorylates and inactivates pro-apoptotic protein Bad.

187
Q

Describe the interaction of Bcl-2 and Bcl-xL with Bax in the presence of survival signals

A

Normally, anti-apoptotic proteins (Bcl-2 and Bcl-xL) hold the pro-apoptotic proteins (Bax) in place, inactivating them through their BH3 domains.

188
Q

What family of proteins modulate apoptosis?

A

Bcl-2

189
Q

What domain on the Bcl-2 family of proteins allow them to dimerise with eachother?

A

BH3

190
Q

How does the lack of survival signals lead to apoptosis?

A

When there are not enough survival signals, the PKB/Akt protein no longer back Bad, which competes for the BH3 domains of Bcl-2. This releases Bax and Bak proteins, allowing them to create a pore in the mitochondrial membrane, facilitating the release of cytochrome-c formation of the apoptosome.

191
Q

Is the Bcl-2 gene a tumour suppressor or proto-oncogenic?

A

Proto-oncogenic

192
Q

What are common proto-oncogenes related to apoptosis?

A

Bcl-2 and PKB/Akt

193
Q

Define proto-oncogene

A

Proto-oncogenes code for essential proteins involved in the maintenance of cell growth, division and proliferation. A mutation coverts a proto-oncogene to an oncogene, whose protein product no longer responds to control influences.

194
Q

Define tumour suppressor gene

A

Tumour suppressor genes typically code for proteins that regulate cellular proliferation and maintain cell integrity

195
Q

How are TS and Proto-oncogenes different in their ability to cause cancer?

A
  • Each cell has two copies of TS genes. Mutation or loss of both genes means a loss of control, leading to cancer
  • Oncogenes can be aberrantly expressed, over-expressed or aberrantly active.
196
Q

Explain how a proto-oncogene can be activated to an oncogene

A
  • Point mutation/deletion/insertion can code for an active aberrant protein.
  • Gene amplification – multiple copies of the same gene leads to protein overproduction
  • Chromosomal translocation – places genetic material next to, or on an oncogene. Genetic material placed before the proto-oncogene can enhance expression of the protein. Genetic material placed in the middle of a proto-oncogene creates a fusion protein, which may also be hyperactive
  • Insertional mutagenesis – where a viral infection inserts genetic material, and can lead to the formation of an oncogene by the aforementioned mechanisms.
197
Q

Describe the chromosomal abnormality most commonly associated with CML

A

fusion protein created by a chromosomal translocation is the case of the Philadelphia chromosome. It is the result of a reciprocal translocation between chromosome 9 and chromosome 22, which is specifically designated t(9;22)(q34;q11).
This leads to the formation of leads to the formation of the BCR-ABL fusion protein.

198
Q

Give examples of proto-oncogenes involved in signal tranduction

A
  • Tyrosine kinase receptor – met and neu genes.
  • G-protein coupled receptor – Ras and gip-2 genes.
  • Nuclear or cytosolic receptor – Myc, fos and jun genes.
  • Signal transduction – src, ret, raf and pim-1 genes.
199
Q

What are common mutations of Ras?

A
  1. Glycine at position 12 valine: prevents GAP binding and therefore preventing Ras inactivation
  2. Glutamine at position 61 leucine prevents GTP hydrolysis as glutamine is normally involved in the intrinsic GTPase activity of Ras, and so prevents inactivation.
200
Q

What proto-oncogenes are commonly associated with:

a) Breast, Colon and Lung cancer
b) Burkitt’s lymphoma
c) Bladder cancer

A

a) SRC, a Tyrosine Kinase that is over-expressed
b) MYC - a Transcription Factor that is translocated
b) Ha-RAS a G-protein point-mutated

201
Q

What proto-oncogenes are commonly associated with:

a) Lung Cancer
b) Colon and Lung Cancer

A

a) JUN - an overexpressed transcription factor

b) Ki-RAS a point-mutated G-protein

202
Q

What are the functional classes of Tumour suppressor genes?

A
  • Regulate and control cell proliferation
  • Maintaining cellular integrity
  • Regulate cell growth
  • Regulate cell cycle
  • Nuclear transcription factors
  • DNA repair proteins
  • Cell adhesion molecules
  • Cell death regulators
203
Q

What tumour suppressor gene is commonly associated with:

a) 50% of all cancers
b) Breast, ovarian and postate cancer
c) Prostate and glioblastoma

A

a) p53 a cell cycle regulator
b) BRCA1 a cell cycle regulator
c) PTEN a tyrosine and lipid phosphatase

204
Q

What tumour suppressor gene is commonly associated with:

a) Colon cancer
b) Colon and others
c) Colon and gastric cancers

A

a) APC a cell signalling molecule
b) p16Y-INK4A a cell cycle regulator
c) MLH1 a mismatch repair gene

205
Q

What are the features of hertiable cancers?

A
  • Family history of related cancers e.g. breast and prostate cancer runs in families
  • Unusually early age of onset e.g. at birth, more susceptible to developing a tumour due to inheriting bad genes
  • Bilateral tumours in paired organs e.g. inherited susceptibility means more likely to get cancer in both kidneys
  • Synchronous or successive tumours e.g. p53 mutation leads to multiple cancers
  • Tumours in different organ systems in same individual e.g. p53 mutation leading multiple tumours in different organs
  • Mutation inherited through the germline
206
Q

How can retinablastoma arise due to an inherited predisposition towards it?

A

The RB1 gene is a tumour suppressor that needs both copies faulty to cause retinoblastoma. People can inherit a faulty copy.

207
Q

Where is the gene mainly responsible for retinoblastoma?

A

RB1 tumour suppressor gene on chromosome 13q14.

208
Q

Why do people with FAP develop polyps?

A

Familial adenomatous polyposis coli is a distressing condition of the colon caused by faulty APC tumour suppressor gene. Individuals who have don’t have a working copy, get many polyps on their colon due to hyperproliferation. APC is involved in cell adhesion and signalling, controlling the activity of β-catenin. Polyps are tissue that are no longer responding to external stimuli and therefore acquire further genetic damage which can lead to colorectal cancer.

209
Q

What is the purpose of p53?

A

p53 is a transcription factor, described as the guardian of the genome as it regulates transcription of various genes, including those involved in DNA repair and antioxidant defence.

210
Q

How does the p53 work?

A

It is normally inactive, bound to a protein called MDM2. If anything disturbs the binding, p53 is released and therefore active. Disturbances can include oxidative stress, ribonucleotide depletion, oncogene activation and especially DNA damage. If stress on p53 is mild, then the activities of p53 transcription products can deal with the situation. If the stress is too severe, p53 will guide the cell to apoptosis.

211
Q

Why doesn’t p53 require ‘two knockouts’ even though it is a TS gene?

A

Although p53 is a tumour suppressor, it’s mutated alleles act in a dominant manner mutation of a single copy is enough to cause dysregulation of its tumour suppressor activities.

212
Q

Why are successive gene mutations are thought to lead to clinical cancer?

A

. Damage to either proto-oncogene or both TS genes encourage proliferation and growth. Note this is not cancer yet, but has a cancer-like genotype. The lack of regulation also allows the cell to acquire more damage cancer (multi-step phenomenon).

213
Q

Where does cancer rank as the commonest cause of death in western countries?

A

2nd

214
Q

Describe the pattern of cancer incidence and mortality worldwide

A

Although cancer incidence is increasing worldwide, the rate of cancer mortality is decreasing (or stabilising).

215
Q

What are the main types of cancer that affect people around the world?

A

The main types of cancers that affect people around the world are: prostate, breast, lung, liver, and colorectal cancer.

216
Q

Why are incidences of liver, stomach and oesophageal cancers high in developing countries?

A

Incidences of liver, stomach and oesophageal cancers are high in developing countries due to their infectious causes (such as Hep B/C and H Pylori)

217
Q

What are the most lethal cancers in males?

A

The most lethal cancer (smallest gap between incidence and mortality) is pancreatic, followed by lung and oesophageal cancer

218
Q

Why is the incidence of prostate cancer greater in developed countries?

A

Incidence of prostate cancer is greater in developed countries; can be attributed to early diagnosis by PSA test. Survival is much better in prostate cancer particularly in HICL because PSA screening is more available in HIC and leads to early detection and therefore decreased mortality rate.

219
Q

Why is there decreased incidence of stomach cancer in developed countries?

A

Decreased incidence of stomach cancer in developed countries could be attributed to improved storage of food (refrigerators) reduction in Helicobacter Pylori reduction in stomach cancer.

220
Q

What is the most common cancer in women?

A

Breast cancer

221
Q

What percentage of cancers are due to infection worldwide?

A

Approximately 16% of cancers are a result of infection worldwide – this average is greater in developing countries.

222
Q

What are the common cancers caused by infectious agents?

A
  • Cervical, head and neck cancers –> Human Papilloma Virus
  • Hodgkin’s and Burkitt’s lymphoma –> Epstein-Barr Virus
  • Liver cancer –> Hepatitis-C Virus, Hepatitis-B Virus
  • Stomach cancer –> Helicobacter Pylori
223
Q

What are the three observations that support an environmental origin of cancer?

A
  • Migrant studies have shown that there is a rapid change of cancer risk following migration pointing towards lifestyle/environmental factors.
  • Time trends of cancers move too quickly to be influences by genes, and so are influenced by environmental factors instead.
  • Geographical distribution of cancers does not match the geographical distribution of genes.
224
Q

What is the secular trend in cancer rates?

A

The secular trend in cancer rates is the increase in incidence but decrease in mortality

225
Q

What accounts for the secular trends in cancer rates?

A

can be attributed to a range of factors, not just an improvement in treatment: better completeness of data and different data classifications, better diagnostic techniques, better screening practices, demographic changes and changes in risk factors.

226
Q

What are the main risk factors for cancer?

A
  • Smoking accounts for at least 30% of all cancer deaths
  • Diet: as dietary fiber increases, risk of colorectal cancer decreases
  • Alcohol affects oral cavity, pharynx, larynx, oesophagus and liver; synergism with tobacco and balance with preventative effect for CHD
  • Hormones: e.g. risk of breast cancer increases with levels of different hormones increased; Oestradiol leads to increased risk of breast cancer.
  • Infection
  • Occupation
227
Q

What are the main types of cancers in children?

A
  • Acute Lymphatic Leukaemia - treatable and curable with high success rates in developed countries.
  • Lymphomas
  • Nervous system tumours - neuroblastomas
  • Heterogeneous groups of tumours e.g. Renal tumours and sarcomas
228
Q

Define the three main strategies in making a blood vessel

A

A) Vasculogenesis - is the differentiation of precursor cells (from bone marrow) into endothelial cells and the de novo formation of a primitive vascular network.
B) Angiogenesis - the physiological process through which new blood vessels form from pre-existing vessels.
C) Arteriogenesis – the increase in the diameter of existing arterial vessels

229
Q

What is the initial stimulus for angiogenesis?

A

Hypoxia

230
Q

How does hypoxia lead to VEGF production?

A

Cells contain HIF (Hypoxia Inducible Factor) – a highly evolutionarily conserved transcription factor. In the presence of oxygen HIF is bound to pVHL (protein of the tumour suppressor gene Von Hippel-Lindau), which facilitates HIF destruction by the ubiquitin pathway. In the absence of oxygen, HIF is no longer bound, and can promote transcription of a large variety of genes. One important family of genes transcribed are the VEGF (Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor) genes.

231
Q

What are the five members of the VEGF family?

A

There are five members of the VEGF family: VEGF-A,B,C,D and PIFG (placental growth factor).

232
Q

What is the main VEGF receptor in mediating angiogenesis?

A

VEGFR2

233
Q

Briefly describe the differentiation of the endothelial cells caused by VEGF binding

A

Even though a number of endothelial cells would be exposed to VEGF, only one becomes a tip cell, while the other adjacent cells become stalk cells (supporting role).

234
Q

What changes does the tip cell go through?

A

Tip cells undergo dramatic conformational changes and project filopodia.

  • produces metalloproteinases to dissolve the basement membrane
  • expresses avb3 and avb5 integrins that act as grappling hooks, allowing the cells to sprout forwards
235
Q

Describe the final processes in angiogenesis

A

The tip cells of different vessels fuse with each other forming a new vessel. The vessel is stabilised by specialised muscle cells called pericytes.
Cadherin molecules are also important in creating tight cell- cell junctions.

236
Q

Name an inhibitor of angiogenesis

A

thrombospondin-1

237
Q

Explain the process of tip selection

A

Tip selection is based on notch signalling between adjacent endothelial cells at the angiogenic front. In stable blood vessels, DII4 and Notch signalling (through receptors) maintains quiescent. VEGF activation increases expression of DII4. DII4 drives notch signalling, which inhibits the expression of VEGFR2 in the adjacent cell. The DII4-expressing tip acquire a motile, invasive and sprouting phenotype. Adjacent cells form the base of the emerging sprout.

238
Q

What is the role of tissue macrophage in angiogeisis?

A

Tissue macrophages have a role in carving out tunnels in ECM, providing avenues for capillary infiltration. Tissue-resident macrophages where shown to be associated with an angiogenic tip. The process of stabilisation also occurs with help from macrophages.

239
Q

Explain the role of angiogeneis in disease

A
  • when excessive: cancers, atherosclerosis, obesity

- when insufficient: baldness, ischaemia, limb fractures, theombosis

240
Q

Give examples of when angiogenesis is involved in healthy processes?

A

It is important to remember, angiogenesis is also a natural and healthy process involved in embryonic development, the menstrual cycle and wound healing.

241
Q

How do tumours less than 1mm3 receive oxygen and nutrients?

A

Tumour growth is dependent on angiogenesis. Tumours less than 1mm^3 receive oxygen and nutrients through diffusion.

242
Q

How do tumours more than 1mm3 receive oxygen and nutrients?

A

Larger tumours require new vessels, and so secrete VEGF. The subsequent new vessel also provides a route for metastasis.

243
Q

Describe the stages in blood vessel changes as the tumour grows

A
  1. Perivascular detachment and vessel dilation.
  2. Onset of angiogenic sprouting
  3. New vessel formation and maturation, recruitment of perivascular cells
  4. Formation of tumour vasculature
244
Q

Describe the nature of tumour blood vessels?

A

Tumour blood vessels are irregularly shaped, dilated and tortuous. They are not organised into definitive venules, capillaries or arterioles. They also tend to be leaky and haemorrhagic, partly due to the overproduction of VEGF in comparison to relatively lower concentrations of inhibitors. Perivascular cells are only loosely associated.

245
Q

What anti-cancer drug targets angiogenesis?

A

Avastin is an anti-VEGF monoclonal antibody drug. It was first approved for advanced colon, lung, kidney and brain cancers. It does however produce a range of side-effects which includes: GI perforation, hypertension, proteinuria, venous thrombosis, haemorrhage, and wound healing complications.

246
Q

Summarise the potential applications and different approaches for pro-angiogenic therapies.

A

New vessels at the base of atheromatous plaques can promote growth and rupture (however this is controversial). Overall, pro-angiogenic therapy is useful in cardiovascular disease to prevent tissue damage.

Can also be used to improve tumour vasculature in order to increase cytotoxic drug delivery.

247
Q

What are the common sources of carcinogens?

A
  • Dietary – accounts for 40-45% of all cancers
  • Lifestyle – such as smoking and alcohol
  • Environmental – such as car exhaust fumes
  • Occupational – working in factories etc.
  • Medical – cytotoxic drugs in chemotherapy
  • Endogenous – chemicals generated in the body can also damage DNA
248
Q

What are the common sources of ionising radiation?

A

This can come from iatrogenic sources, from solar radiation, or even cosmic radiation.

249
Q

What are the seven types of DNA damage caused by carcinogens and ionising radiation?

A
  1. DNA adducts - chemicals covalently boned to a base.
  2. DNA alklyation
  3. Base hydroxylation -resulting in bases not recognised
  4. Abasic sites
  5. Base dimers and chemical crosslinks
  6. Double stranded breaks
  7. Single stranded breaks
250
Q

How are toxic chemicals usually removed from the body?

A

The toxic chemicals tend to be removed my mammalian metabolism – Type I followed by Type II metabolism.

251
Q

Describe how Benzo[a]pyrene can form a carcinogenic compound

A

Benzo[a]pyrene is a model compound to show how the product of a P450 reaction can be harmful. The molecule is a harmless polycyclic aromatic compound which is oxidised by P450 which adds an epoxide group to the molecule. The epoxide group is very electron deficient and so seeks out and reacts with DNA (a rich source of electrons, especially guanine). The epoxide group can be neutralised by an epoxide hydroxylase enzyme. If CYP450 epoxides faster than it can hydrolyse them, they can react with DNA resulting in electrophilic DNA adducts which causes DNA damage.

252
Q

Why does Aflatoxin cause liver cancer?

A

Aflatoxin is produced by Aspergillus flavus mold that grows on crops – commonly on poorly stored grains and peanuts. Aflatoxin B1 is a potent liver carcinogen as CYP450 enzyme generates a reactive epoxide (which this time is not a good substrate for epoxide hydroxylase) called Aflatoxin B1,2,3-epoxide. This attacks DNA in the liver causing liver cancer

253
Q

Why did dyestuffs cause bladder cancer in the past?

A

2-napthylamine was a component of dyestuffs in the past, which was a potent human bladder carcinogen. In the liver, the molecule is glucoronidated and detoxicated. However, in the bladder with the presence of the acidic urine, the glucoronides are hydrolysed – liberating the reactive electrophile –> DNA adducts

254
Q

Why can solar radiation cause skin cancer?

A

Solar (UV) radiation causes the cross-linking of pyrimidine bases (especially thymine) causing pyrimidine dimers. The resulting mutation can lead to skin cancer.

255
Q

How does ionising radiation damage DNA?

A

Ionising radiation can generate free radicals in cells - especially oxygen free radicals such as superoxide and hydroxyl radicals. There possess unpaired electrons and thus seek out electron-rich DNA. Oxygen free radicals cause double and single stranded breaks, abasic sites, and other base modifications .

256
Q

What can cause p53 release?

A

It is normally held inactive by MDM2, but is released by oxidative stress, nitric oxide, hypoxia, ribonucleotide depletion, mitotic
apparatus dysfunction, oncogene activation, DNA replication stress, double-strand breaks and telomere erosion.

257
Q

Summarise the natural repair mechanisms for damaged DNA

A
  1. Direct reversal of DNA damage:
    - Photolase is an enzyme that splits pyrimidine dimers (caused by UV radiation)
    - Metyltransferases and Alkyltransferases remove alkyl groups from bases
  2. Base excision repair (repairing abasic sites) is done by endonucleases to remove the nucleotide followed by a repair polymerase to refill the gap before DNA ligase re-joins the sugar backbone.
  3. Nucleotide excision repair is used for bulky DNA adducts, where endonuclease and helicase enzymes remove a section of DNA before repair polymerases fills the gap once more. DNA ligase again seals the DNA backbone.
  4. During/post-replication repair can be in form of base mismatch repair and recombinational repair (from breaks in DNA)
258
Q

Summarise how the potential of a chemical/agent to damage DNA can be assessed

A
  1. Structural alerts / SAR (Structural Activity Relationship) is where the chemical is looked at to see if it has a group known to damage DNA.
  2. Bacterial gene mutation test (AMES) is done with S. typhimurium.
  3. In-vitro mammalian cell assay – treat the cells with the chemical (mammalian cells with CYP450) and investigate for chromosomal abnormalities.
  4. In-vitro micronucleus assay – cells are treated with the chemical and allowed to divide. However, cytokensis is blocked by cytochalasin-B so that binucleate cells are assessed for the presence of micronuclei. These occur when there is DNA damage.
  5. In-vivo micronucleus assay
259
Q

How do AMES tests work?

A

Bacterial gene mutation test (AMES) is done with S. typhimurium. The chemical to be tested in incubated with bacteria engineered to not produce histidine, along with mammalian CYP450 enzyme. If the chemical and/or its metabolites damage DNA, it will allow bacteria to produce histidine again. This means they will form colonies on histidine-free media. This is quantitative as the more bacteria on a plate, the more DNA damage the chemical causes.

260
Q

How does colorectal cancer rank as a cancer, and cause of cancer death?

A
  • 4th most common cancer

- 2nd leading cause of cancer death

261
Q

What are the functions of the colon?

A
  • Extraction of water from faeces (and electrolyte balance)
  • Faecal reservoir
  • Bacterial digestion (especially of vitamins such as vitamins B and K)
262
Q

What cells in the colonic epithelium secrete mucin?

A

Goblet cells

263
Q

How do abnormal enterocytes look under the microscope?

A

Purple as they have a hyper chromic nucleus. They also tend to be disorganised and have mitotic figures.

264
Q

What is the cell turnover rate of the colon?

A

2-5 million cells die per minute

265
Q

Define polyp

A

A polyp is any projection from the mucosal surface into a hollow viscus

266
Q

What are the type of polyps?

A
  • hyperplastic
  • neoplastic (tend to be adenomas)
  • inflammatory
  • Juvenile Hamartoma
  • Peutz Jeghers Hamartoma
  • Lipoma
267
Q

What is the most common type of polyp (and the prevalence)?

A

Hyperplastic polyps are quite common (90% of all polyps).

268
Q

What type of polyp increases in prevalence with age?

A

Adenomatous

269
Q

What increases your risk of having a polyp?

A
  • Age
  • First-degree relatives with colorectal carcinoma or adenocarcinoma
  • Specific mutations
  • Inflammatory diseases such as Ulcerative Colitis
270
Q

What are the three main morphological patterns of adenomas?

A
  1. Tubular (most common) - Composed of columnar cells with nuclear enlargement, elongation, multilayering and loss of polarity. There is increased proliferative activity and reduced differentiation. Architecture is dysplastic/disorganised.
  2. Villous - Composed of mucinous cells organised in frond-like extensions
  3. Tubulovillous
    [4. Flat and Serrated are other patterns.]
271
Q

How is the nucleus abnormal in tubular adenomas?

A
  • enlarged
  • hyperchromasia
  • cigar shaped
272
Q

What is the essential difference between a colorectal adenoma and carcinoma?

A

Its ability to invade surrounding tissue. Specifically the muscularis mucosae (thin layer between mucosa and submucosa).

273
Q

What abilities has the cell gained in order to invade surrounding tissue?

A
  1. Extracellular matrix degradation (especially basement membrane)
  2. Adhesion to degraded or new ECM
  3. Ability to move into the new ECM
274
Q

Why are carcinomas that have reached the mucularis mucosae easily metastasised?

A

They are able to access the lymphatics and blood vessels easier.

275
Q

By how long (on average) does the adenoma precede the carcinoma?

A

15 years

276
Q

Why does UC increase the risk of developing colorectal cancer?

A

Ulcerative colitis increases the risk of cancer as inflammation damages wall, which then requires greater proliferation and thus has a greater chance to acquire a mutation.

277
Q

Describe the adenoma-carcinoma sequence

A

The adenoma-carcinoma sequence is the progression of an adenoma to a carcinoma accompanied by an increasing degree of genetic abnormalities. The accumulation of the mutations is more important than the order in which they occur.
The major genetic abnormalities include the APC gene (at 5q location), K-Ras mutation (12p), SMAD loss, and P53 mutation/loss (17p location).

278
Q

Describe the pathophysiology and aetiology of Familial Adenomatous Polyposis

A

This is a result of a mutation of the Adenomatous Polyposis Coli (APC) gene [on chromosome 5q21]. In classical FAP syndrome, patients have up to 2500 adenoma polyps all over their colon but mostly on their descending colon. This greatly increases the risk of developing colonic carcinoma, so many patients have prophylactic colectomy by age 30. If left unmanaged, almost all patients will develop cancer by age 30.

279
Q

Where the APC gene?

A

Chromsome 5q21

280
Q

What is Hereditary Non-Polyposis Colorectal Cancer

A

HNPCC is an autosomal dominant familial syndrome where there are fewer adenomas than FAP (but again mainly at the left colon). In this case, the DNA mutation is at DNA repair genes leading to micro-satellite instability. Micro-satellites are repeat sequences prone to misalignment. Some micro-satellites are in coding sequences of genes which inhibit growth or apoptosis.

281
Q

What genes are commonly mutated in Hereditary Non-Polyposis Colorectal Cancer?

A

Mismatch repair genes which are mutated in HNPCC include MSH2, MLH1 and 4.

282
Q

What countries have a high, and what countries have a low incidence of colorectal cancer?

A

There is a higher incidence in the US, Eastern Europe and Australia and a lower incidence in Japan, Mexico and Africa.

283
Q

What dietary factors are linked to colorectal cancer?

A
  • Low fibre
  • High fat
  • High red meat
  • Refined carbohydrates
284
Q

What are the carcinogenic compounds in red meat?

A

heterocyclic amines are carcinogens found in red meat cooked at high temperatures.

285
Q

What are the common anti-cancer components in food?

A
  • Vitamin C and E are ROS (oxygen radicals that damage DNA) scavengers
  • Isothyiocyanates are found in cruciferous vegetables (cauliflower, cabbage, broccoli).
  • Polyphenols found in green tea and fruit juices
  • Garlic is associated with apoptosis
286
Q

What are the clinical symptoms of colon cancer?

A
  • Altered bowel habits (constipation, diarrhoea, or a combination of the two)
  • Rectal bleeding
  • Tiredness and malaise due to iron deficiency
  • Discharge of mucus
  • Intermittent abdominal pain and cramps
  • Intermittent obstruction of colon leading to bloating
  • Constitutional weight loss and fatigue.
287
Q

Where are most of the colon cancers found?

A
  • rectosigmoid (55%)

- caecum/ascending colon (22%)

288
Q

Why do tumours in the caecum and ascending colon often present late?

A

Because they produce vaguer symptoms, partly due to the capacity of the caecum to expand before getting blocked, and also they are more often mucinous and soft in nature so obstruction occurs later.

289
Q

How is colon cancer diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis is usually done with the aid of radiology and a colonoscopy. As of yet, there are no reliable biomarkers for colon cancer, apart from advanced colorectal carcinoma.

290
Q

Are all colorectal cancers derived from the glandular epithelium?

A

Yes, all colorectal cancers are adenocarcinomas

291
Q

Define screening

A

Screening is the practice of investigating apparently healthy individuals with the object of detecting unrecognised disease or people with an exceptionally high risk of developing disease, and of intervening in ways that will prevent the occurrence of disease or improve the prognosis when it develops.

292
Q

What is the scale to describe the grading of colon cancer?

A

They are graded as well differentiated, moderately, or poorly differentiated.

293
Q

What is the treatment for colorectal cancer?

A

Treatment for all stages is surgery. Chemotherapy and palliative options are available for later stages.

294
Q

Summarise the major pathological features which are associated with aggressive malignant behaviour of colorectal carcinoma.

A

Pathological features associated with aggressive colorectal carcinoma include:

  • Greater depth of bowel wall penetration
  • Greater number of regional lymph nodes
  • Poor degree of differentiation
  • Venous or lymphatic invasion
295
Q

What are the types of skin cancers?

A
  • Basal cell carcinoma and Squamous cell carcinoma are from keratinocytes
  • Malignant melanoma are derived from melanocytes
  • Kaposi’s sarcoma and angiosarcoma are derived from vascular tissue
296
Q

What are the main causes of skin cancer?

A

Main causes of skin cancers are:
- Genetic (rare) syndromes such as Gorlin’s syndrome and xeroderma pigmentosum
- Viral infections such as HHV8 in Kaposi’s sarcoma and HPV in squamous cell carcinoma
- UV light causes basal and squamous cell carcinoma, as well as malignant melanoma.
Immunosuppression can also make you more susceptible to skin cancers.
- Immunosupression

297
Q

What is the most common type of skin cancer?

A

Basal Cell Carcinoma

298
Q

What are the characteristics of basal cell carcinoma?

A
  • Generally seen in elderly, but also teens with recreational sun exposure
  • Derived from pluripotent stem cells
  • Most commonly found in sun-exposed areas
  • Locally destructive but usually NOT metastatic
299
Q

What are the characteristics of squamous cell carcinomas?

A

Squamous cell carcinomas are also tumours of the elderly due to lifelong sun exposure, therefore appearing commonly in sun exposed areas. They develop from damaged basal keratinocytes (stem cells). Unlike basal cell carcinomas, squamous cell carcinomas can often metastasise to regional lymph nodes the to solid organs such as the lungs.

300
Q

What population is more susceptible to Melanomas?

A
  • Young adults
  • Light-skinned people
  • Previous sun burns before age of 15
301
Q

What are the characteristics of squamous cell carcinomas?

A

They are tumours arising from epidermal melanocytes (but also sometimes from dermal melanocytes). It is strongly associated with intermittent sun exposure. This type of skin cancer is highly metastatic and aggressive, spreading to regional lymph nodes before solid organs, often the lungs, liver and brain.

302
Q

What are the subtypes of melanomas?

A
  1. Superficial spreading melanoma – There is an initial horizontal growth phase, from which the cancer can usually be removed, followed by a vertical growth phase (and into lymphatics and vasculature).
  2. Nodular melanoma – this is when the melanoma has little or no horizontal growth phase, just a vertical growth phase. This sub-type of melanoma is the most aggressive and always has a poor prognosis.
  3. Lentigo maligna melanoma – usually affect the elderly and develop from lentigo maligna also known as melanoma in situ. Lentigo maligna is due to proliferation of malignant melanocytes within the epidermis, with no metastasis. It usually has an irregular shape, with light and dark brown colours with a size usually bigger than 2cm.
  4. Acral lantiginous melanoma – starts on the feet and hands as pigmented streaks. Tends to be related to trauma rather than sun exposure. It is most common in Afrocarribeans.
303
Q

What type of melanoma is not black?

A

Amelanotic melanoma

304
Q

What framework is used to monitor moles?

A

ABCD: Asymmetry, Border, Colour and Diameter

305
Q

What are the risk factors for developing melanoma?

A
  • Family history of dysplastic neavi or melanoma
  • UV irradiation
  • Sunburns below the age of 15
  • Intermittent burn exposure to fair skin
  • Atypical/dysplastic nevus syndrome
  • Personal history of melanoma
  • Skin types I and II
306
Q

What are the wavelengths of UV-light?

A

UV-C [100-280 nm]
UV-B [280-310 nm]
UV-A [310-400 nm]

307
Q

What is the most carcinogenic UV subtype?

A

UV-C

308
Q

What UV subtype is the most important in skin carcinogenesis?

A

UV-B

309
Q

What UV subtype is the most common cause of skin ageing?

A

UV-A

310
Q

How do UV rays damage DNA?

A
  • UV-B rays directly induces abnormalities in DNA. It affects pyrimidines (cytosine and thymine) creating dimers. Thymine dimers are the most commonly detected in UV-B irradiated DNA.
  • UV-A also promotes skin carcinogenesis by creating cyclobutane butane pyrimidine dimers
  • Photon energy can also create oxygen free radicals which can cause oxidative damage to DNA
311
Q

Why does UV exposure not immediately lead to cancer?

A

The pyrimidine dimers are usually repaired quickly by the process of nucleotide excision repair.

312
Q

What condition lacks the ability to repair damage caused by UV rays?

A

Xeroderma pigemntosum

313
Q

How does UV-A and UV-B affect skin immunity?

A
  • Increased expression of down-regulatory cytokines such as IL1-Ra which suppresses Langerhan cell activity
  • Inhibits expression of ICAM-1 (Inflammatory Cell Adhesion Molecule 1) which decreases migration of T-cells to the skin
  • Depletes the number of Langerhans cells which decreases epidermal immunosurvailance
314
Q

Where are the melanocytes located?

A

Basal layer of epidermis

315
Q

What causes variation in skin colour?

A

The amount and type of MELANIN.
NOT the number of melanocytes

This is determined by the MCR1 receptor.

316
Q

How many keratinocytes are associated with a melanocyte?

A

36 - forming an epidermal melanin unit.

317
Q

How is melanin transferred to the keratinocyte?

A

Melanin is transferred to the keratinocytes, packed in melanosomes and delivered via dendritic tips which are phagocytosed by the keratinocyte.

318
Q

Describe the two types of melanin

A
  • Eumelanin – brown/black and insoluble. It shields keratinocyte nuclei from UV rays by absorbing UV
  • Pheromelanin – yellowish/brown and soluble in alkalis.
319
Q

What amino acid is melanin derived from?

A

Tyrosine

320
Q

What controls the type and amount of melanin produced?

A

Melanocortins (from POMC) binding to types of Melanocortin Receptors (20 types of MCR1)

321
Q

Explain the role of the tumour suppressor gene p53 in relation to UV-induced mutations.

A

P53 mediates growth arrested in G1, to allow DNA repair or apoptosis of the cell. Mutation of the p53 allele due to UV exposure will lead to production of mutated p53 and inactivation of wild-type p53. Subsequent failure of p53 to arrest cell division allows the daughter cells to acquire mutations.

322
Q

Summarise the role of oncogenic human papilloma virus in the pathogenesis of squamous cell carcinoma

A

In renal transplant recipients (drug induced immunosuppression), squamous cell carcinoma are 10 times more common than basal cell carcinoma. EV–HPV types have been identified from squamous cell carcinomas.

323
Q

How many women will develop breast cancer in their lifetime?

A

1 in 8

324
Q

How many people develop breast cancer every year?

A

54,000

325
Q

Is the incidence and mortality increasing or decreasing?

A

incidence is increasing

mortality is decreasing

326
Q

Why is mortality of breast cancer decreasing?

A

mortality is decreasing mainly due to effective hormone therapies, but also earlier and more self diagnosis, as well as more effective chemo/radiotherapies.

327
Q

When do mammary glands undergo dramatic changes?

A

through infantile growth, puberty, pregnancy, lactation, weaning and postmenopausal regression.

328
Q

What cells do breast carcinomas come from?

A

Breast carcinoma is a tumour of the epithelial cells which line the acini and ducts.

329
Q

What breast cells respond to oestrogen?

A

Even though only the luminal epithelial cells have oestrogen receptors, they will stimulate other cells (Myopeithelial cells) in the mammary gland to grow through paracrine effects.

330
Q

How can we classify breast carcinoma based on histopathalogical features?

A
  • Lobular carcinoma – we can see rudimentary tubules etc. So still differentiated
  • Infiltrating ductal carcinoma (also simply breast carcinoma) – does not show these tubules, and is less differentiated than lobular carcinomas. They have no special type of histological structure. These are the vast majority of breast cancers (80%).
  • Medullary carcinoma – does not show many signs that it is from breast tissue. The cells are packed with vesicles containing neuropeptides and growth factors, very undifferentiated.
331
Q

How can we tell if a tumour is ER+?

A

Immunohistochemical staining

332
Q

What are the risk factors associated with breast cancer?

A

Important risk factors associated with breast cancer are to do with lifetime exposure to oestrogen:
• Age of onset of periods
• Age of first full-time pregnancy (pregnancy is protective)
• Some contraceptive pills
• Some hormone replacement therapies.
• Obesity
• Diet, physical activity, height, medication.

333
Q

How does the ER become a transcription factor?

A

The oestrogen receptor is a cytosolic protein (not in the membrane) that normally exists as a monomer bound to hsp90 (heat-shock protein).
Once in the cytoplasm, the oestrogen molecule is able to displace the hsp90 chaperone molecule and bind to the receptor. This then allows the oestrogen receptor to dimerise with another ER.

The dimerised protein enters the nucleus (with oestrogen still bound) to act as a transcription factor.

334
Q

What are the DNA recognition sequences by ER called?

A

Oestrogen Responsive Elements

335
Q

What are some of the important oestrogen regulated genes?

A
  • Progesterone receptor
  • Cyclin D1 – regulator of cell cycle
  • C-myc – regulator of apoptosis
  • TGF-α – a growth factor.
336
Q

What is the first line therapy for breast cancer?

A

Surgery

337
Q

What are the strategies used to block oestrogen’s abilities to stimulate breast cancer growth?

A

This can be done by ovarian suppression, blocking oestrogen production (for example by inhibiting aromatase) or inhibiting oestrogen responses.

338
Q

What are the ways ovary suppression can be achieved?

A
  • oophorectomy
  • ovarian irradiation
  • LHRH AGONists
339
Q

Give examples of LHRH agonists

A

Goserelin, Buserelin, Leuprolide and Triptorelin

340
Q

How do anti-oestrogen drugs work (SERMs)?

A

Anti-oestrogen drugs are compounds with a similar structure to oestrogen. They bind strongly to the ER, blocking their activity as transcription factors (and therefore blocking stimulation of cancer, causing the cell to be held at the G1 phase of the cell cycle). These drugs are as effective in post-menopausal women as in pre-menopausal women.

341
Q

Give examples of SERMs

A

Tamoxifen
Toremifene
ICI 182780
Baloxifene

342
Q

What are the desirable and undesirable oestrogenic effects of tamoxifen?

A

Tamoxifen has beneficial oestrogenic properties such as:

  • Oestrogenic effects in bone, and therefore protecting against osteoporosis
  • Oestrogenic effects in the cardiovascular system – lowering LDLs and increasing HDLs

Undesirable oestrogenic effects of Tamoxifen include:

  • Promoting endometrial cancer, fibroids, polyps, and vaginal discharge.
  • Associated with thromboembolic episodes such as DVT and stroke.
  • Increases cataracts, and vasomotor symptoms.
343
Q

Why is tamoxifen useful in treating breast cancer?

A
  • prevents growth of tumour so that it can be removed by surgery
  • reduces incidence of contralateral breast cancer by 1/3
344
Q

What is aromatisation?

A

The conversion of androstenedione (and to a lesser extent testosterone) to oestrone to osteradiol.

345
Q

What enzyme is involved in aromatisation?

A

Aromatase (a complex consisting CYP450)

346
Q

What targets can aromatase inhibitors aim to inhibit?

A
  • CYP450

- Steroid sulphatase

347
Q

Why can steroid sulphatase inhibitors reduce oestrogen circulation?

A

A lot of oestrogen is sulphated before it is exported, to oestrone sulphate by steroid sulphatase.

348
Q

What are the types of aromatase inhibitors and example drugs?

A
  • Type I are suicide inhibitors. When the enzyme acts on these inhibitors, they yield a reactive alkylating species, permanently inactivating the enzyme (think of suicide bombers). Exemestane is such a inhibitor.
  • Type II are simply competitive inhibitors. Anastrozole is such a drug.
349
Q

How can progesterone agonists be used to treat breast cancer?

A

We can also use progesterone agonists (over-stimulation) in the treatment of uterine and breast cancer with clinically proven antineoplastic properties. Progestin therapy for metastatic breast cancer has been used principally as a second or third line therapy following SERMs.

350
Q

What patients become resistant to endocrine therapies for breast cancer?

A

A significant proportion of patients presenting with breast cancer and, all patients with metastatic disease become resistant to endocrine therapies.

351
Q

What percentage of breast tumours are first spotted by women themselves?

A

90%

352
Q

What percentage of cancers does leukaemia make up?

A

5%

353
Q

Why is there a high blood cell count in leukaemia?

A

Leukaemia results from a series of mutations in a single lymphoid or myeloid stem cell (sometimes even haematopoietic stem cell). The mutations lead the progeny of that cell to show abnormalities in proliferation, differentiation and cell survival, leading to the steady expansion of the leukaemic clone.

354
Q

How is leukaemia fundamentally different from most cancers?

A

Leukaemia is different to most cancers, as it is not usually associated with solid tumours.

355
Q

Where can leukaemic cells be found?

A
  • replacing cells in normal bone marrow
  • circulating free in blood
  • invading tissue
356
Q

List the important leukaemogenic mutations (non-specific mutations that cause leukaemia)

A
  • Mutation in known proto-oncogene
  • Loss of function of TS gene
  • Creation of a novel chimeric or fusion gene
  • Deregulation of gene when translocation brings it under the influence of a promoter of another gene
  • mutations that result in increase tendency of chromosomal breaks
  • if the cell cannot repair DNA normally
  • Inherited of other constitutional abnormalities for example Down’s syndome
357
Q

What are the acquired causes of leukaemogenic mutations?

A
  • irradiation
  • anti-cancer drugs
  • cigarette smoking and other carcinogenic chemicals such as benzene
358
Q

Why can the concepts of invasion and metastasis NOT be applied to leukaemia?

A

Because leukaemia is cancer of the cells that normally travel around the body and enter tissues/

359
Q

How can leukaemia be categorised based on causing a benign or malignant condition?

A
  • Leukaemias that behave in a relatively benign way are called CHRONIC. They cause less impairment of function of normal tissues, but will still cause death in a number of years.
  • Leukaemias that behave in a relatively malignant manner are called ACUTE. If not treated, the disease is very aggressive and will lead to death quickly.
360
Q

What are the four main types of lukeamias?

A
  • Chronic myeloid leukaemia
  • Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
  • Acute myeloid leukaemia
  • Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
361
Q

Describe the characteristics of AML

A
  • cells continue to proliferate, but no longer mature. This means there is a build-up of the most immature cells – the myeloblasts.
  • These ‘blast cells’ are found built up in the bone marrow as well as circulating.
  • There is also a failure of production of normal functioning end cells such as neutrophils, monocytes, erythrocytes etc
  • decreased platelets because of decreased megakaryocytic production and increased platelet consumption
362
Q

Describe the different nature of mutations that would lead to acute OR chronic myeloid leukaemias

A

Acute: The mutations are usually of transcription factors, so the transcription of multiple genes are affected. This leads to a more profound disturbance in cell behaviour.

Chronic: The mutations are usually of signalling pathways. This has more of an affect on cell survival, with function not seriously affected.

363
Q

What is the difference between AML and CML in terms of end-cell production?

A

In AML there is a failure of production of end cells, while in CML there increased production of end cells.

364
Q

What is the difference between ALL and CLL?

A

Like AML, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia has a marked increase in very immature cells – lymphoblasts. This is accompanied by a failure to produce T or B lymphocytes or natural killer cells.
Whereas in chronic lymphocytic leukaemia there is an increase in abnormal T or B lymphocytes.

365
Q

What are the four main disease characteristics of leukaemia?

A
  1. Accumulation of abnormal cells
  2. Metabolic effects of leukaemic cell proliferation
  3. Crowding of normal cells
  4. Loss of immune function
366
Q

What pathologies lead from accumulation of abnormal leukaemic cells?

A
  • Leukocytosis –> increased viscosity of blood – CVD
  • Bone pain (in acute leukaemia)
  • Hepatomegaly and splenomegaly
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Thymic enlargement
  • Skin infiltration producing small tumours
367
Q

What are the metabolic effects of leukaemic proliferation?

A
  • Hyperuricaemia due to increased rate of DNA breakdown rate of uric acid production increases. Uric acid can be crystalised and deposit in the kidneys leading to kidney failure. In chronic leukaemias uric acid in tissues can cause gout
  • Hypermetabolism symptoms due to increased metabolic rate of leukaemic cells. These include weight loss, low grade fever, and increased sweating.
368
Q

What are the effects of cell crowding in leukaemia?

A

loss of function of bone marrow as a result of leukaemic replacement. Leads to anaemia, neutropenia, and thrombocytopenia.

369
Q

What proportion of ALL is T-cell and what proportion is B-cell?

A

ALL can be of B-lineage (about ¾ of cases) or T-lineage (about ¼ of cases)

370
Q

What age-group is affected by leukaemia the most?

A

15-24 year olds

371
Q

What age-group is affected by ALL the most?

A

2-5 year olds. However, there is a gradual increase of incidence after age 50 due to a genetic subset of ALL which occurs in older adults.

372
Q

What is known about the aetiology of ALL?

A

Nothing is known about the cause of T-lineage ALL, but a little is known about the cause of B-lineage ALL. Epidemiological studies suggest that B-lineage ALL results from delayed exposure to a common pathogen.

373
Q

What are the symptoms and clinical features of ALL?

A
  • Bone pain due to proliferation in the bone marrow
  • Hepatomegaly and splenomegaly
  • Lymphadenopathy – enlarged lymph nodes. These are commonly in the cervical, axillary and inguinal region.
  • Thymic enlargement (only if T-lineage)
  • Testicular enlargement due to leukaemic infiltration of the testes
  • Cranial nerve palsies due to meningeal infiltration
  • Renal enlargement
  • Hyperuricaemia
  • Anaemia – fatigue, lethargy, pallor and breathlessness
  • Neutropenia – fever and other features of infection
  • Thrombocytopenia – bruising, purpura and bleeding into subcutaneous tissue
374
Q

How is ALL investigated?

A
  • blood count
  • blood film
  • followed by liver and renal function test
  • bone marrow aspirate
  • chest x-ray to show thymic enlargement
375
Q

How is ALL characterised on blood film?

A

An ALL blood film will show large lymphocytes, high nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio and diffuse chromatin pattern.

376
Q

How can B-cell or T-cell ALL be differentiated?

A

immunophenotyping (using fluorescently labelled antibodies to detect the expression of antigens on surface of leukaemic cells) can be used to determine if the ALL is of B or T-lineage.

377
Q

Why is cytogenic and molecule analysis of lymphoblasts in ALL important?

A

different genetic subtypes have different prognosis and different management strategies.

378
Q

What is the treatment for ALL?

A

Treatment for ALL is supportive (red cells, platelets and antibiotics), systemic chemotherapy and intrathecal chemotherapy. In poor prognosis cases, a bone marrow transplant may be needed. ¾ of ALL cases can be cured!

379
Q

When tend to be the leukaemogenic mechanisms behind ALL specifically?

A
  • Translocation between chromosome 12 and 21 forming fusion gene ETV6-RUNX1
  • Dysregulation of a proto-oncogene by juxtaposition to it by a promoter region of another gene. For example in t(10;14)(q24;q11)—the TCL3 gene is dysregulated by proximity to the TCRA gene.
  • Point mutation in proto-oncogene