CAMRT Practice Exam Flashcards
To assist in the passing of CAMRT 2022
1
Q
What does PIPEDA (Personal information protection and electronic documents act ) do?
A
covers identifiable information that is created or received by a health care provider, employer, life insurer, school or university or health care clearinghouse related to past present or future health conditions, treatments or payments.
2
Q
What is an example of negligence
A
Patient injured when railings are left down, imaging the wrong patient or wrong part, positioning injuries, failing to inquire pregnancy status
3
Q
Respondeat superior (Definition and Example)
A
let the master answer- employer is responsible or jointly responsible for actions of their employees. Shared negligence between the health care worker and the health care employer or facility.
4
Q
Res ipsa loquitur (Definition and Example)
A
the thing speaks for itself- responsibility or burden of proof shifts to the defendant (patient with renal issues given a large dose of contrast and dies, if no contrast, no death.)
5
Q
Malpractice (definion and example)
A
when a radiographer who performs an examination without an examination ordered. (Not doing your job or not doing things in your job description)
6
Q
What should you do if there is a patient who is completely deaf
A
Call a interpreter if patient is able to sign language
7
Q
If patient refuses to have an IV started for contrast media injection, what should you do
A
Document the patients decision and consult with the ordering physician or radiologist
8
Q
If a patient consents to a barium enema, after it has started states they do not want to continue the test, what should you do
A
the MRT should stop the procedure and help them to the bathroom. Do not wait or remove tip.
9
Q
May a 16 year old give consent for her 6 month old
A
Yes
10
Q
A patient is unconscious, the emergency physician orders imaging, the ordering physician does or does not need consent
A
Does not as this is an emergency
11
Q
What does DNR mean and definition
A
Do not resuscitate. no efforts can be made to assist the patient once the patient has gone into cardiac arrest or respiratory arrest.
12
Q
What part of medical history is required when consenting for a knee image with chronic pain
A
Factors that aggravate the knee
13
Q
Chain of infection (6)
A
Pathogen, Reservoir, Portal of exit, Method of transmission, Portal of entry, susceptible host
14
Q
Routes for disease transmission (6)
A
Air, Droplet, Contact, Exogenous/Endogenous, Vector, Fomite
15
Q
What is a vector
A
From another species vs fomite- from an inanimate object
16
Q
What is a Fomite
A
Disease transferred through an improperly cleaned image receptor (from object to person)
17
Q
Nosocomial infection
A
hospital acquired disease
18
Q
Iatrogenic infection
A
Disease after treatment
19
Q
Medical asepsis-
A
decrease the number of organisms (cleaning and disinfecting, barrier techniques, handwashing, isolating patients with known infections)
20
Q
Standard precautions
A
used when chance of coming in contact with blood, bodily fluids, secretions, excretions, mucous membranes and nonintact skin or substances contaminated with these substances. Includes- gloving, handwashing and PPE
21
Q
What is the most effective method to prevent the spread of infection
A
Handwashing
22
Q
Surgical asepsis
A
Complete removal or absence of pathogenic organisms in the clinical setting. Aseptic or sterile technique most strictly applied in the operating room because of the extensive disruptions of skin that can occur with many surgeries.
23
Q
What is the minimum amount of time for hand scrubbing
A
20 seconds
24
Q
What precaution is used for the potential of coming in contact with fecal material
A
Contact
25
Mumps is under what precautions
Protective
26
Tuberculosis is under what precaution
Airborne
27
Covid 19 is under what precaution
Droplet/ Airborne
28
What should you wear in contact precautions
Gloving and Gown(Shielding)
29
What should you wear in droplet
Gown, gloves, eye coverage and mask. Maintain 3 feet from patients
30
What should you wear in airborne precautions
All PPE and N95 masks that properly fit
31
When should sharps bins be replaced
When no more than 2/3 full
32
Where should uncapped unused needles be placed after a procedure
Biohazard sharps bin
33
Where should you place bed sheets with saturated blood
Discard in biohazard bag
34
During a mobile procedure, what does the dirty technologist touch
The patient
35
Leukemia requires what isolation
Protective or reverse isolation
36
Droplets or dust can result in what kind of transmission
Airborne transmission
37
What are infectious diseases caused by
Pathogenic microorganisms
38
What is the breaths per minute for an adult
15-20 per minute for an adult
39
What is the average pulse/ BPM for an adult
60-90
40
What is the average temperature in Celsius for an adult
36-37.5 celsius
41
What is a normal blood pressure
90-120/ 50-70 mmhg
42
What is the blood pressure considered hypertension
anything consistently greater than 140 and above/ 90 and above
43
What would an appropriate flow rate through a nasal cannula be
4L/ min
44
What PPE would you wear for Clotted blood
Gloves and gown.
45
What PPE do you wear for an HIV patient
No PPE if no contact with body fluids
46
PPE for pertussis/ Whooping cough
Gloves, Gown, Mask, Eye protection
47
What PPE do you wear for urine transport
Gloves, gown, mask, and eye protection
48
What PPE should a airborne precaution patient wear and how should they be transported
Surgical mask and transported by wheelchair or stretcher
49
What medication would a patient with Cystitis require
Antibiotics (caused by E.Coli and that is a bacteria)
50
What rate of oxygen is required for a patient with emphysema
3L/min or less
51
What should you look at on a patient when ruling out cyanosis
Look at lips and nail beds
52
What is the appearance of a patient with jaundice
Yellow skin and yellow in whites of eyes
53
A severe life threatening response to a drug is called
Anaphylaxis
54
When a patient is experiencing an episode of syncope, how should they be placed
assist the patient to lie down and elevate the feet.
55
When a patient has a seizure, how should they be placed
place them in a lateral recumbent position one the seizure is complete.
56
A patient who sustained a head injury in a motor vehicle accident arrived in the DI department alert and well oriented. During the exam the patient was becoming drowsy, irritable and less coherent. What should the MRT do
The MRT should notify the ordering physician of the change in the patient’s condition.
57
Neurogenic shock
Associated with pooling of blood in the peripheral vessels
58
Hypovolemic shock
Results when you lose more than 20 percent of your bodies blood or fluid supply
59
Cardiogenic shock
Heart cannot pump enough blood and oxygen to the brain, kidneys, and other vital organs
60
Vasogenic shock
When blood in peripheral vessels results in decreased venous return to heart
61
Septic shock
Potentially fatal medical condition when sepsis, which an organ injury or damage is the response to an infection leading to low BP and abnormalities in cellular metabolism.
62
How does a thrombus become an embolus
When part of the thrombus breaks off and travels, it becomes an embolus
63
Orthostatic hypotension
decrease in 20 in systolic bp and or 10 mm in diastolic pressure 2-5 min after standing. Patients complaining of blurred vision and dizziness upon standing for an upright chest x-ray may be experiencing this
64
Parenteral route
any medication that is not given through a normal body opening
65
Water seal apparatus- what is it and where is it placed
For chest drainage, placed under the level of the chest when transporting patients.
66
Hypoglycemia- early signs and general symptoms. What to take
Patient often recognize early signs and need a quick form of carbs or take a glucose tablet
Extremely hungry, weak, shaky, blurred vision, may sweat excessively, confused, nervous and irritable, sometimes aggressive.
67
Hyperglycemia- what is wrong and what needs to be taken to fix
Excessive sugar, insulin required
68
Epistaxis- what is it
Nose bleed
69
Vertigo- what is it
Fainting, precursor to syncope
70
Syncope- what is it
fainting caused by insufficient blood to the brain. self corrected
71
Symptoms of a seizure
Confusion, blacking out, sensing strong smells.
72
Tracheotomy- what does it do
Allow access to upper airway for patients with obstruction
73
What is put in place for short term airway management
Endotracheal, nasotracheal or orotracheal.
74
Where does the base of the tracheostomy tube need to be placed
5-7cm above the carina. Position checked on Cxr
75
What percent of endotracheal tubes need to be replaced
20%
76
Where are chest tubes/ thoracostomy tubes placed in the body
In the pleural or mediastinal cavity to remove excess fluid or air
77
What are chest tubes indicated for
hemothorax, pneumothorax, bronchopleural fistula, empyema, pleural effusion, and mediastinal fluid
78
Where should the fluid container be placed for a chest tube
below the level of the patients lung.
79
Swan Ganz Catheter use
A soft catheter with an expandable balloon tip that is used for measuring blood pressure in the pulmonary artery. For heart function monitorting
80
Where in the body is the swan ganz catheter placed
in a large vein, often the internal jugular, subclavian, or femoral veins
81
Central venous catheter use
Used for long term medications, frequent blood transfusions or total parenteral nutrition.
82
Hickman Catheter use
A hickman line is an intravenous catheter most often used for the administration of chemotherapy or other medications, as well as for the withdrawal of blood for analysis.
83
Peripherally inserted central catheter insertion site and where it ends up
Inserted in a peripheral vein, such as the cephalic vein, basilic vein, or brachial vein and then advanced through increasingly larger veins, towards the heart until the tip rests in the distal superior vena cava.
84
Pacemakers use
Artificial pacemakers are electronic devices that stimulate the heart with electrical impulses to maintain or restore a normal rhythm in patients with slow heart rhythms.
85
Nasogastric and nasoenteric tubes use
drainage of gastric contents and decompression of the stomach.A specimen of the gastric contents can be obtained or substances can be introduced into the GI tract.
86
What is the indication for a nasogastric tube
gastric immobility and bowel obstruction
87
How long are medical records to be retained for adults and how long for pediatrics
7-10 years. Pediatrics until they are 18.
88
What can over and under collimation lead to
data recognition errors that affect the histogram in digital imaging.
89
what is an example of a secondary barrier
Ceiling
90
what is true about radiation with high LET
It is highly ionizing.
91
What is LET and what does it mean
LET is Linear energy transfer and is the amount of radiation deposited per unit length of tissue traversed by incoming photons
92
What is a stochastic effect
Radiation induced cancer (leukemia) and genetic effects
93
What is the relationship between cell growth rate and sensitivity of tissues to ionizing radiation
Directly related
94
How many times can a OSL dosimeter be scanned
They can be scanned and reanalysed an unlimited number of times.
95
What is Air Kerma and how is it used
Kinetic energy released per unit mass of air. Used to measure the amount of energy transferred to a mass of air by the photons
96
What is the unit of measurement for Air Kerma
Gray (J/KG) (most are in milligray)
97
What is absorbed dose
Radiation energy absorbed per unit mass of an organ or tissue or the actual energy deposited in the irradiated tissue
98
What is the unit of measure for absorbed dose
joules per kilogram or gray
99
What is equivalent dose
quantifies the risk of adverse effect for different types of radiation.
100
What is the equivalent dose expressed in
sieverts
101
What is Effective dose
Risk from a particular body exposure by using a tissue weighting factor
102
What is CTDI
CTDI is NOT a measurement of patient dose but is a parameter used in the CT scan which effects x-ray tube output. Measures the exposure per slice of tissue exposed
103
What is the effective dose limit of a pregnant woman for the remainder of her pregnancy
4 mSv
104
What law does exposure reduction in distance tend to follow
inverse square law (meters in distance 2 equals the intensity reduction) (Divergence of the x-ray beam)
105
As SID increases, what happens to beam intensity and patient dose
Both will decrease
106
A MRT must stand stand how far without lead during a mobile procedure
3 meters
107
What is the first choice to reduce exposure to the reproductive organs in every radiographic exam
collimate to include only the anatomy of interest as this decreases exposure to the patient and technologist
108
What is the reason for lead shielding to patients
to safeguard the reproductive potential of patients
109
What is the radiation factor for xray
1
110
What is the radiation factor for gamma
1
111
What is the radiation weighting factor for alpha
20
112
What is the total body dose for tissue in weighting factor
1
113
What is the total filtration for equipment that operates above 70kVp
2.5mm aluminum.
114
What does filtration do for patient dose and # of photons
decreases both
115
What total filtration for equipment 50-70kvp
1.5mm aluminum
116
below 50kvp total filtration?
0.5mm of aluminum
117
Where is leakage radiation emitted
Through x-ray tube house
118
What is the primary beam
radiation that exits the x-ray tube through the collimator
119
Stochastic effects are what kind of dose response
linear non threshold
120
When peak voltage exceeds 100kv and less than 150 kv what should the equivalency of the lead apron be
.35mm
121
How often should lead aprons be tested
annually
122
What is the lead equivalency for ceiling mounted acrylic screens and moveable shields
.5mm
123
Decreasing collimation is to
open cones
124
When decreasing kVp, what change is required in mAs
an inverse change in mAs is required
125
What is DLP
The CTDI volume multiplied by the length scanned.
126
Miscentering in CT does what to image quality and dose
decreases image quality and increases surface dose
127
After 5 minutes of fluoro what occurs
an audible indication and the stop of fluoro until timer is reset
128
When cells are __ ___ they are most radiosensitive
fully oxygenated
129
All x-ray control panels must contain permanent signs stating
prohibiting unauthorized use
130
proper collimation does what to dose
results in the lowest patient dose
131
A test prior to a CT neck that would result in a delay in examination would be
Nuclear medicine of the thyroid
132
If patient pregnancy identified after exposure, who do you contact
physician on duty, RSO and or RPO
133
Which is more radiosensitive, bone marrow or skin tissue
bone marrow
134
What is the inverse square law relationship and the mathematical formula
The inverse square law relationship between radiation intensity and distance from a point of radiation source is due to divergence of the x-ray beam. l^2xd^2 2= l^2x d^2 2
135
Adrenergic drugs
Constrict blood vessels and stimulate the heart
| Dopamine, epinephrine- used in cardiovascular, respiratory and allergic emergencies
136
Anesthetic drugs
Reversibly depress neuron function, producing loss of ability to perceive pain and/ or other sensations
2 types- general and local anesthetics
General (Propofol)- depress the central nervous system and cause loss of consciousness
only given for surgical procedures.
Local (Lidocaine 20%)- block nerve conduction from a certain area
137
Antianxiety
Valium (Diazepam) and Ativan (Lorazepam) are Benzodiazepines prescribed for the treatment of anxiety, muscle spasms and seizures.
138
Anticoagulant
Can be oral (Warfarin) or parenteral (Heparin)
| Inhibit clotting of the blood or increase the coagulation time.
139
Antidepressant
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors- Zoloft, Prozac, Ciprolex, Fluoxetine
Side effects: Nausea, weight gain, fatigue, drowsiness, insomnia.
140
Antidibetic (and contraindication)
Metformin can be taken orally and is only given if patient still makes insulin- it increases the action of insulin in the patient’s body and decreases the amount of glucose produced by the liver
Metformin in combination with iodinated intravascular contrast media is a potential risk for contrast induced nephropathy.
141
Antihistamine
```
Sedating (Diphenhydramine/ Benadryl)- can be given orally or parenteral (intramuscular for moderately severe allergic reaction
Non sedating (Claritin and Allegra)
```
142
Anticholingeric
reduce smooth muscle tine Atropine: reverses bradycardia and prevents salivary and bronchial secretions (given preoperatively)
143
Antiperistaltic/ Antispasmodic
Slows contractions in the GI system.Buscopan and glucagon are the most commonly used antiperistaltic (antispasmodic) agents in diagnostic imaging- CT colonography. Aid in treatment of diarrhea
144
Analgesics
Relieve mild to moderate pain. Aspirin, Advil, Tylenol
145
Bronchodilator
for asthma and COPD. Albuterol and ventolin. relax smooth muscle and dilate respiratory passage.
146
Cathartic
Milk of magnesia. Increases elimination of feces
147
Diuretic
Lasix (furosemide) often used for congestive heart failure and acute pulmonary edema and hypertension
148
Glucocorticoid/ NSAIDS
Corticosteroids are hormones- Prednisone, cortisone
NSAIDS are non narcotic pain relievers- ibuprofen, naproxen
Reduce inflammation
149
Narcotics
used to control intense pain
Morphine, Demerol, Fantanyl- strongest
Codeine, Percocet- Less severe pain
150
Sedative
Ambien and Lunesta. Produce varying degrees of CNS depression ranging from mild sedation to sleep
Can lead to physical dependence with prolonged use
151
Tranquilizer
Calming effect. Diazepam (Valium), Alprazolam (Xanax)- benzodiaepines
152
Thrombolytics
dissolve clots rt- PA
153
Vasodialtor
cause blood vessels to dilate. Nitroglycerin
154
NaCl is what percent Dextrose and what percent NaCl
5% and 0.9%
155
Contraindications to buscopan
angina, heart failure, glaucoma
156
Common drug given in ED to relieve pain without drowsiness
tylenol
157
What drugs would be used for abnormal heart rhythm
artiarrhythmic
158
What drugs are given for mild sedation and pain management during ERCP
Versed and Fentanyl
159
If a patient has a known allergic reaction to IV contrast, what should be given and when
prednisone and prior
160
What can happen if a patient doesn't stop metformin 48 hours post IV injection
Lactic acidosis
161
What is given to reverse the effects of fentanyl
naloxone
162
What drug is given in barium enemas to facilitate movement into the duodenal cap
Buscopan
163
What allows detail to be seen on a radiographic image
Contrast or shades of grey
164
How do you adjust contrast
Adjusting the window width on the monitor
165
Histogram errors are caused by
incorrect positioning and procedure. This causes the image to terminate early and the picture ends up being underexposed. indicated by quantum mottle
166
What happens with increasing SID
Less intense beam, therefore an increase of mAs is required
167
If OID is increased, what happens to unsharpness and magnification
both increase
168
Do grids reduce the amount of scatter
No, they decrease the amount reaching the IR but not the amount created
169
Where do you want the thickest part of the patient placed over (Anode/ Cathode)
Cathode
170
Which is postive, the anode or the cathode
Anode
171
Which is negative, anode or cathode
Cathode
172
List the 6 compensating filters
1. Wedge filter, 2. Chest filter, 3. boomerang filter for shoulders and hips, 4. Boomerang filter attached at tube, 5. C-spine filter, 6. adjustable filter
173
What cm change of part thickness requires how much change in mAs
4-5cm by a factor of 2
174
Technique change for small to medium plaster cast
^ mas 50-60% or +5-7 kVp
175
Technique change for large plaster cast
^ mAs 100% or +8-10 kVp
176
Fiberglass cast technique change
^ mAs 25-30% r 3-4 kVp
177
increasing kVp does what to scatter
increases the percentage of scatter
178
What happens to contrast as kVp increases
Decrease of contrast due to the increase of scatter or fog resulting in low or long scale contrast
179
As grid ratio increases, what happens to contrast
it increases
180
What happens with increasing FSS with contrast
No effect on contrast
181
Increasing collimation (decreasing field size) does what to contrast
increases contrast (makes it short scale or high)
182
SID changes effect on contrast
Can change if theres a change in mAs
183
decreasing OID and its effect on contrast
increases contrast
184
Define standard of care
A standard of care is the degree of skill, knowledge and care ordinarily possessed and employed by members in good standing within the profession. If a medical professional does not meet the standard of their profession or a person breaches the standard, then medical malpractice can occur.
185
What PPE should be removed first when wearing mask, gloves, gown and cap
Gloves
186
What is the WW and WL of a liver
150ww 50wl
187
What face covering is key when taking care of patients with tuberculosis
N95 (face shield?)
188
What is dysphagia
swallowing difficulties
189
What is emesis
the action of vomiting
190
What is dyspnea
SOB (shortness of breath)
191
What is epistaxsis
Nose bleed
192
What position should a patient be placed if they are experiencing dyspnea
Erect seated position
193
What area of the body is the most susceptible for bruises during a patient transfer
Elbows
194
What is bronchiectasis
Scarring of the lungs from an infection. Can be born with it or can develop.
195
What is cystic fibrosis
inherited disorder that causes damage to the lungs, digestive system and other organs in the body
196
What is RDS
Respiratory distress syndrome. It is an illness in children (most commonly premature babies) whos lungs do not fully develop causing them to need extra oxygen to the lungs.
197
What is the radiographic sign for croup
steeple
198
What is the radiographic sign for epiglottitis
thumb sign
199
What is a blow out fracture
Fracture of the orbital rim
200
What is the mathematical equation for the inverse square law
intensity at different distances. i1/i2=D2^2/D1^2
201
What is the mathematical equation for the direct square law
How much more mAs needed when SID changes.
| mAs1/mAs2=D1^2/D2^2
202
What is the pregnancy rate for pregnant workers
4msv for the remainder of the pregnancy
203
What should a boss do when a worker comes to them stating they are pregnant
go over protective measures and continue the same rotation for the worker while monitoring the workers dose.
204
NEW are allowed how many mSv for 1 year and 5 years
20 for 1, 100 for 5
205
How often can a OSL dosimeter be scanned and reanalyzed
unlimited number of times
