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CAMRT Practice Exam > CAMRT Practice Exam > Flashcards

CAMRT Practice Exam Flashcards

To assist in the passing of CAMRT 2022

1
Q

What does PIPEDA (Personal information protection and electronic documents act ) do?

A

covers identifiable information that is created or received by a health care provider, employer, life insurer, school or university or health care clearinghouse related to past present or future health conditions, treatments or payments.

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2
Q

What is an example of negligence

A

Patient injured when railings are left down, imaging the wrong patient or wrong part, positioning injuries, failing to inquire pregnancy status

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3
Q

Respondeat superior (Definition and Example)

A

let the master answer- employer is responsible or jointly responsible for actions of their employees. Shared negligence between the health care worker and the health care employer or facility.

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4
Q

Res ipsa loquitur (Definition and Example)

A

the thing speaks for itself- responsibility or burden of proof shifts to the defendant (patient with renal issues given a large dose of contrast and dies, if no contrast, no death.)

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5
Q

Malpractice (definion and example)

A

when a radiographer who performs an examination without an examination ordered. (Not doing your job or not doing things in your job description)

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6
Q

What should you do if there is a patient who is completely deaf

A

Call a interpreter if patient is able to sign language

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7
Q

If patient refuses to have an IV started for contrast media injection, what should you do

A

Document the patients decision and consult with the ordering physician or radiologist

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8
Q

If a patient consents to a barium enema, after it has started states they do not want to continue the test, what should you do

A

the MRT should stop the procedure and help them to the bathroom. Do not wait or remove tip.

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9
Q

May a 16 year old give consent for her 6 month old

A

Yes

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10
Q

A patient is unconscious, the emergency physician orders imaging, the ordering physician does or does not need consent

A

Does not as this is an emergency

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11
Q

What does DNR mean and definition

A

Do not resuscitate. no efforts can be made to assist the patient once the patient has gone into cardiac arrest or respiratory arrest.

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12
Q

What part of medical history is required when consenting for a knee image with chronic pain

A

Factors that aggravate the knee

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13
Q

Chain of infection (6)

A

Pathogen, Reservoir, Portal of exit, Method of transmission, Portal of entry, susceptible host

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14
Q

Routes for disease transmission (6)

A

Air, Droplet, Contact, Exogenous/Endogenous, Vector, Fomite

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15
Q

What is a vector

A

From another species vs fomite- from an inanimate object

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16
Q

What is a Fomite

A

Disease transferred through an improperly cleaned image receptor (from object to person)

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17
Q

Nosocomial infection

A

hospital acquired disease

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18
Q

Iatrogenic infection

A

Disease after treatment

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19
Q

Medical asepsis-

A

decrease the number of organisms (cleaning and disinfecting, barrier techniques, handwashing, isolating patients with known infections)

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20
Q

Standard precautions

A

used when chance of coming in contact with blood, bodily fluids, secretions, excretions, mucous membranes and nonintact skin or substances contaminated with these substances. Includes- gloving, handwashing and PPE

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21
Q

What is the most effective method to prevent the spread of infection

A

Handwashing

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22
Q

Surgical asepsis

A

Complete removal or absence of pathogenic organisms in the clinical setting. Aseptic or sterile technique most strictly applied in the operating room because of the extensive disruptions of skin that can occur with many surgeries.

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23
Q

What is the minimum amount of time for hand scrubbing

A

20 seconds

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24
Q

What precaution is used for the potential of coming in contact with fecal material

A

Contact

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25
Q

Mumps is under what precautions

A

Protective

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26
Q

Tuberculosis is under what precaution

A

Airborne

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27
Q

Covid 19 is under what precaution

A

Droplet/ Airborne

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28
Q

What should you wear in contact precautions

A

Gloving and Gown(Shielding)

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29
Q

What should you wear in droplet

A

Gown, gloves, eye coverage and mask. Maintain 3 feet from patients

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30
Q

What should you wear in airborne precautions

A

All PPE and N95 masks that properly fit

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31
Q

When should sharps bins be replaced

A

When no more than 2/3 full

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32
Q

Where should uncapped unused needles be placed after a procedure

A

Biohazard sharps bin

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33
Q

Where should you place bed sheets with saturated blood

A

Discard in biohazard bag

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34
Q

During a mobile procedure, what does the dirty technologist touch

A

The patient

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35
Q

Leukemia requires what isolation

A

Protective or reverse isolation

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36
Q

Droplets or dust can result in what kind of transmission

A

Airborne transmission

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37
Q

What are infectious diseases caused by

A

Pathogenic microorganisms

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38
Q

What is the breaths per minute for an adult

A

15-20 per minute for an adult

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39
Q

What is the average pulse/ BPM for an adult

A

60-90

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40
Q

What is the average temperature in Celsius for an adult

A

36-37.5 celsius

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41
Q

What is a normal blood pressure

A

90-120/ 50-70 mmhg

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42
Q

What is the blood pressure considered hypertension

A

anything consistently greater than 140 and above/ 90 and above

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43
Q

What would an appropriate flow rate through a nasal cannula be

A

4L/ min

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44
Q

What PPE would you wear for Clotted blood

A

Gloves and gown.

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45
Q

What PPE do you wear for an HIV patient

A

No PPE if no contact with body fluids

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46
Q

PPE for pertussis/ Whooping cough

A

Gloves, Gown, Mask, Eye protection

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47
Q

What PPE do you wear for urine transport

A

Gloves, gown, mask, and eye protection

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48
Q

What PPE should a airborne precaution patient wear and how should they be transported

A

Surgical mask and transported by wheelchair or stretcher

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49
Q

What medication would a patient with Cystitis require

A

Antibiotics (caused by E.Coli and that is a bacteria)

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50
Q

What rate of oxygen is required for a patient with emphysema

A

3L/min or less

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51
Q

What should you look at on a patient when ruling out cyanosis

A

Look at lips and nail beds

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52
Q

What is the appearance of a patient with jaundice

A

Yellow skin and yellow in whites of eyes

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53
Q

A severe life threatening response to a drug is called

A

Anaphylaxis

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54
Q

When a patient is experiencing an episode of syncope, how should they be placed

A

assist the patient to lie down and elevate the feet.

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55
Q

When a patient has a seizure, how should they be placed

A

place them in a lateral recumbent position one the seizure is complete.

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56
Q

A patient who sustained a head injury in a motor vehicle accident arrived in the DI department alert and well oriented. During the exam the patient was becoming drowsy, irritable and less coherent. What should the MRT do

A

The MRT should notify the ordering physician of the change in the patient’s condition.

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57
Q

Neurogenic shock

A

Associated with pooling of blood in the peripheral vessels

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58
Q

Hypovolemic shock

A

Results when you lose more than 20 percent of your bodies blood or fluid supply

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59
Q

Cardiogenic shock

A

Heart cannot pump enough blood and oxygen to the brain, kidneys, and other vital organs

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60
Q

Vasogenic shock

A

When blood in peripheral vessels results in decreased venous return to heart

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61
Q

Septic shock

A

Potentially fatal medical condition when sepsis, which an organ injury or damage is the response to an infection leading to low BP and abnormalities in cellular metabolism.

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62
Q

How does a thrombus become an embolus

A

When part of the thrombus breaks off and travels, it becomes an embolus

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63
Q

Orthostatic hypotension

A

decrease in 20 in systolic bp and or 10 mm in diastolic pressure 2-5 min after standing. Patients complaining of blurred vision and dizziness upon standing for an upright chest x-ray may be experiencing this

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64
Q

Parenteral route

A

any medication that is not given through a normal body opening

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65
Q

Water seal apparatus- what is it and where is it placed

A

For chest drainage, placed under the level of the chest when transporting patients.

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66
Q

Hypoglycemia- early signs and general symptoms. What to take

A

Patient often recognize early signs and need a quick form of carbs or take a glucose tablet
Extremely hungry, weak, shaky, blurred vision, may sweat excessively, confused, nervous and irritable, sometimes aggressive.

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67
Q

Hyperglycemia- what is wrong and what needs to be taken to fix

A

Excessive sugar, insulin required

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68
Q

Epistaxis- what is it

A

Nose bleed

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69
Q

Vertigo- what is it

A

Fainting, precursor to syncope

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70
Q

Syncope- what is it

A

fainting caused by insufficient blood to the brain. self corrected

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71
Q

Symptoms of a seizure

A

Confusion, blacking out, sensing strong smells.

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72
Q

Tracheotomy- what does it do

A

Allow access to upper airway for patients with obstruction

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73
Q

What is put in place for short term airway management

A

Endotracheal, nasotracheal or orotracheal.

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74
Q

Where does the base of the tracheostomy tube need to be placed

A

5-7cm above the carina. Position checked on Cxr

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75
Q

What percent of endotracheal tubes need to be replaced

A

20%

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76
Q

Where are chest tubes/ thoracostomy tubes placed in the body

A

In the pleural or mediastinal cavity to remove excess fluid or air

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77
Q

What are chest tubes indicated for

A

hemothorax, pneumothorax, bronchopleural fistula, empyema, pleural effusion, and mediastinal fluid

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78
Q

Where should the fluid container be placed for a chest tube

A

below the level of the patients lung.

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79
Q

Swan Ganz Catheter use

A

A soft catheter with an expandable balloon tip that is used for measuring blood pressure in the pulmonary artery. For heart function monitorting

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80
Q

Where in the body is the swan ganz catheter placed

A

in a large vein, often the internal jugular, subclavian, or femoral veins

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81
Q

Central venous catheter use

A

Used for long term medications, frequent blood transfusions or total parenteral nutrition.

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82
Q

Hickman Catheter use

A

A hickman line is an intravenous catheter most often used for the administration of chemotherapy or other medications, as well as for the withdrawal of blood for analysis.

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83
Q

Peripherally inserted central catheter insertion site and where it ends up

A

Inserted in a peripheral vein, such as the cephalic vein, basilic vein, or brachial vein and then advanced through increasingly larger veins, towards the heart until the tip rests in the distal superior vena cava.

84
Q

Pacemakers use

A

Artificial pacemakers are electronic devices that stimulate the heart with electrical impulses to maintain or restore a normal rhythm in patients with slow heart rhythms.

85
Q

Nasogastric and nasoenteric tubes use

A

drainage of gastric contents and decompression of the stomach.A specimen of the gastric contents can be obtained or substances can be introduced into the GI tract.

86
Q

What is the indication for a nasogastric tube

A

gastric immobility and bowel obstruction

87
Q

How long are medical records to be retained for adults and how long for pediatrics

A

7-10 years. Pediatrics until they are 18.

88
Q

What can over and under collimation lead to

A

data recognition errors that affect the histogram in digital imaging.

89
Q

what is an example of a secondary barrier

A

Ceiling

90
Q

what is true about radiation with high LET

A

It is highly ionizing.

91
Q

What is LET and what does it mean

A

LET is Linear energy transfer and is the amount of radiation deposited per unit length of tissue traversed by incoming photons

92
Q

What is a stochastic effect

A

Radiation induced cancer (leukemia) and genetic effects

93
Q

What is the relationship between cell growth rate and sensitivity of tissues to ionizing radiation

A

Directly related

94
Q

How many times can a OSL dosimeter be scanned

A

They can be scanned and reanalysed an unlimited number of times.

95
Q

What is Air Kerma and how is it used

A

Kinetic energy released per unit mass of air. Used to measure the amount of energy transferred to a mass of air by the photons

96
Q

What is the unit of measurement for Air Kerma

A

Gray (J/KG) (most are in milligray)

97
Q

What is absorbed dose

A

Radiation energy absorbed per unit mass of an organ or tissue or the actual energy deposited in the irradiated tissue

98
Q

What is the unit of measure for absorbed dose

A

joules per kilogram or gray

99
Q

What is equivalent dose

A

quantifies the risk of adverse effect for different types of radiation.

100
Q

What is the equivalent dose expressed in

A

sieverts

101
Q

What is Effective dose

A

Risk from a particular body exposure by using a tissue weighting factor

102
Q

What is CTDI

A

CTDI is NOT a measurement of patient dose but is a parameter used in the CT scan which effects x-ray tube output. Measures the exposure per slice of tissue exposed

103
Q

What is the effective dose limit of a pregnant woman for the remainder of her pregnancy

A

4 mSv

104
Q

What law does exposure reduction in distance tend to follow

A

inverse square law (meters in distance 2 equals the intensity reduction) (Divergence of the x-ray beam)

105
Q

As SID increases, what happens to beam intensity and patient dose

A

Both will decrease

106
Q

A MRT must stand stand how far without lead during a mobile procedure

A

3 meters

107
Q

What is the first choice to reduce exposure to the reproductive organs in every radiographic exam

A

collimate to include only the anatomy of interest as this decreases exposure to the patient and technologist

108
Q

What is the reason for lead shielding to patients

A

to safeguard the reproductive potential of patients

109
Q

What is the radiation factor for xray

A

1

110
Q

What is the radiation factor for gamma

A

1

111
Q

What is the radiation weighting factor for alpha

A

20

112
Q

What is the total body dose for tissue in weighting factor

A

1

113
Q

What is the total filtration for equipment that operates above 70kVp

A

2.5mm aluminum.

114
Q

What does filtration do for patient dose and # of photons

A

decreases both

115
Q

What total filtration for equipment 50-70kvp

A

1.5mm aluminum

116
Q

below 50kvp total filtration?

A

0.5mm of aluminum

117
Q

Where is leakage radiation emitted

A

Through x-ray tube house

118
Q

What is the primary beam

A

radiation that exits the x-ray tube through the collimator

119
Q

Stochastic effects are what kind of dose response

A

linear non threshold

120
Q

When peak voltage exceeds 100kv and less than 150 kv what should the equivalency of the lead apron be

A

.35mm

121
Q

How often should lead aprons be tested

A

annually

122
Q

What is the lead equivalency for ceiling mounted acrylic screens and moveable shields

A

.5mm

123
Q

Decreasing collimation is to

A

open cones

124
Q

When decreasing kVp, what change is required in mAs

A

an inverse change in mAs is required

125
Q

What is DLP

A

The CTDI volume multiplied by the length scanned.

126
Q

Miscentering in CT does what to image quality and dose

A

decreases image quality and increases surface dose

127
Q

After 5 minutes of fluoro what occurs

A

an audible indication and the stop of fluoro until timer is reset

128
Q

When cells are __ ___ they are most radiosensitive

A

fully oxygenated

129
Q

All x-ray control panels must contain permanent signs stating

A

prohibiting unauthorized use

130
Q

proper collimation does what to dose

A

results in the lowest patient dose

131
Q

A test prior to a CT neck that would result in a delay in examination would be

A

Nuclear medicine of the thyroid

132
Q

If patient pregnancy identified after exposure, who do you contact

A

physician on duty, RSO and or RPO

133
Q

Which is more radiosensitive, bone marrow or skin tissue

A

bone marrow

134
Q

What is the inverse square law relationship and the mathematical formula

A

The inverse square law relationship between radiation intensity and distance from a point of radiation source is due to divergence of the x-ray beam. l^2xd^2 2= l^2x d^2 2

135
Q

Adrenergic drugs

A

Constrict blood vessels and stimulate the heart

Dopamine, epinephrine- used in cardiovascular, respiratory and allergic emergencies

136
Q

Anesthetic drugs

A

Reversibly depress neuron function, producing loss of ability to perceive pain and/ or other sensations
2 types- general and local anesthetics
General (Propofol)- depress the central nervous system and cause loss of consciousness
only given for surgical procedures.
Local (Lidocaine 20%)- block nerve conduction from a certain area

137
Q

Antianxiety

A

Valium (Diazepam) and Ativan (Lorazepam) are Benzodiazepines prescribed for the treatment of anxiety, muscle spasms and seizures.

138
Q

Anticoagulant

A

Can be oral (Warfarin) or parenteral (Heparin)

Inhibit clotting of the blood or increase the coagulation time.

139
Q

Antidepressant

A

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors- Zoloft, Prozac, Ciprolex, Fluoxetine
Side effects: Nausea, weight gain, fatigue, drowsiness, insomnia.

140
Q

Antidibetic (and contraindication)

A

Metformin can be taken orally and is only given if patient still makes insulin- it increases the action of insulin in the patient’s body and decreases the amount of glucose produced by the liver

Metformin in combination with iodinated intravascular contrast media is a potential risk for contrast induced nephropathy.

141
Q

Antihistamine

A 
Sedating (Diphenhydramine/ Benadryl)- can be given orally or parenteral (intramuscular for moderately severe allergic reaction
Non sedating (Claritin and Allegra)
142
Q

Anticholingeric

A

reduce smooth muscle tine Atropine: reverses bradycardia and prevents salivary and bronchial secretions (given preoperatively)

143
Q

Antiperistaltic/ Antispasmodic

A

Slows contractions in the GI system.Buscopan and glucagon are the most commonly used antiperistaltic (antispasmodic) agents in diagnostic imaging- CT colonography. Aid in treatment of diarrhea

144
Q

Analgesics

A

Relieve mild to moderate pain. Aspirin, Advil, Tylenol

145
Q

Bronchodilator

A

for asthma and COPD. Albuterol and ventolin. relax smooth muscle and dilate respiratory passage.

146
Q

Cathartic

A

Milk of magnesia. Increases elimination of feces

147
Q

Diuretic

A

Lasix (furosemide) often used for congestive heart failure and acute pulmonary edema and hypertension

148
Q

Glucocorticoid/ NSAIDS

A

Corticosteroids are hormones- Prednisone, cortisone
NSAIDS are non narcotic pain relievers- ibuprofen, naproxen
Reduce inflammation

149
Q

Narcotics

A

used to control intense pain
Morphine, Demerol, Fantanyl- strongest
Codeine, Percocet- Less severe pain

150
Q

Sedative

A

Ambien and Lunesta. Produce varying degrees of CNS depression ranging from mild sedation to sleep
Can lead to physical dependence with prolonged use

151
Q

Tranquilizer

A

Calming effect. Diazepam (Valium), Alprazolam (Xanax)- benzodiaepines

152
Q

Thrombolytics

A

dissolve clots rt- PA

153
Q

Vasodialtor

A

cause blood vessels to dilate. Nitroglycerin

154
Q

NaCl is what percent Dextrose and what percent NaCl

A

5% and 0.9%

155
Q

Contraindications to buscopan

A

angina, heart failure, glaucoma

156
Q

Common drug given in ED to relieve pain without drowsiness

A

tylenol

157
Q

What drugs would be used for abnormal heart rhythm

A

artiarrhythmic

158
Q

What drugs are given for mild sedation and pain management during ERCP

A

Versed and Fentanyl

159
Q

If a patient has a known allergic reaction to IV contrast, what should be given and when

A

prednisone and prior

160
Q

What can happen if a patient doesn’t stop metformin 48 hours post IV injection

A

Lactic acidosis

161
Q

What is given to reverse the effects of fentanyl

A

naloxone

162
Q

What drug is given in barium enemas to facilitate movement into the duodenal cap

A

Buscopan

163
Q

What allows detail to be seen on a radiographic image

A

Contrast or shades of grey

164
Q

How do you adjust contrast

A

Adjusting the window width on the monitor

165
Q

Histogram errors are caused by

A

incorrect positioning and procedure. This causes the image to terminate early and the picture ends up being underexposed. indicated by quantum mottle

166
Q

What happens with increasing SID

A

Less intense beam, therefore an increase of mAs is required

167
Q

If OID is increased, what happens to unsharpness and magnification

A

both increase

168
Q

Do grids reduce the amount of scatter

A

No, they decrease the amount reaching the IR but not the amount created

169
Q

Where do you want the thickest part of the patient placed over (Anode/ Cathode)

A

Cathode

170
Q

Which is postive, the anode or the cathode

A

Anode

171
Q

Which is negative, anode or cathode

A

Cathode

172
Q

List the 6 compensating filters

A
  1. Wedge filter, 2. Chest filter, 3. boomerang filter for shoulders and hips, 4. Boomerang filter attached at tube, 5. C-spine filter, 6. adjustable filter
173
Q

What cm change of part thickness requires how much change in mAs

A

4-5cm by a factor of 2

174
Q

Technique change for small to medium plaster cast

A

^ mas 50-60% or +5-7 kVp

175
Q

Technique change for large plaster cast

A

^ mAs 100% or +8-10 kVp

176
Q

Fiberglass cast technique change

A

^ mAs 25-30% r 3-4 kVp

177
Q

increasing kVp does what to scatter

A

increases the percentage of scatter

178
Q

What happens to contrast as kVp increases

A

Decrease of contrast due to the increase of scatter or fog resulting in low or long scale contrast

179
Q

As grid ratio increases, what happens to contrast

A

it increases

180
Q

What happens with increasing FSS with contrast

A

No effect on contrast

181
Q

Increasing collimation (decreasing field size) does what to contrast

A

increases contrast (makes it short scale or high)

182
Q

SID changes effect on contrast

A

Can change if theres a change in mAs

183
Q

decreasing OID and its effect on contrast

A

increases contrast

184
Q

Define standard of care

A

A standard of care is the degree of skill, knowledge and care ordinarily possessed and employed by members in good standing within the profession. If a medical professional does not meet the standard of their profession or a person breaches the standard, then medical malpractice can occur.

185
Q

What PPE should be removed first when wearing mask, gloves, gown and cap

A

Gloves

186
Q

What is the WW and WL of a liver

A

150ww 50wl

187
Q

What face covering is key when taking care of patients with tuberculosis

A

N95 (face shield?)

188
Q

What is dysphagia

A

swallowing difficulties

189
Q

What is emesis

A

the action of vomiting

190
Q

What is dyspnea

A

SOB (shortness of breath)

191
Q

What is epistaxsis

A

Nose bleed

192
Q

What position should a patient be placed if they are experiencing dyspnea

A

Erect seated position

193
Q

What area of the body is the most susceptible for bruises during a patient transfer

A

Elbows

194
Q

What is bronchiectasis

A

Scarring of the lungs from an infection. Can be born with it or can develop.

195
Q

What is cystic fibrosis

A

inherited disorder that causes damage to the lungs, digestive system and other organs in the body

196
Q

What is RDS

A

Respiratory distress syndrome. It is an illness in children (most commonly premature babies) whos lungs do not fully develop causing them to need extra oxygen to the lungs.

197
Q

What is the radiographic sign for croup

A

steeple

198
Q

What is the radiographic sign for epiglottitis

A

thumb sign

199
Q

What is a blow out fracture

A

Fracture of the orbital rim

200
Q

What is the mathematical equation for the inverse square law

A

intensity at different distances. i1/i2=D2^2/D1^2

201
Q

What is the mathematical equation for the direct square law

A

How much more mAs needed when SID changes.

mAs1/mAs2=D1^2/D2^2

202
Q

What is the pregnancy rate for pregnant workers

A

4msv for the remainder of the pregnancy

203
Q

What should a boss do when a worker comes to them stating they are pregnant

A

go over protective measures and continue the same rotation for the worker while monitoring the workers dose.

204
Q

NEW are allowed how many mSv for 1 year and 5 years

A

20 for 1, 100 for 5

205
Q

How often can a OSL dosimeter be scanned and reanalyzed

A

unlimited number of times

CAMRT Practice Exam (1 decks)

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