Campbell Management of Muscle-Invasive and Metastatic Bladder CA Flashcards

1
Q

_____ of patients will present with muscle-invasive bladder cancer at the time of initial presentation.

_____ will progress to muscle-invasive disease after an initial diagnosis of non–muscle-invasive bladder cancer.

if left untreated, MIBC will result in mortality
within 2 years of diagnosis in _____% of cases.

A

Twenty percent to 30%

A smaller subset (approximately 20%)

85% of cases

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2
Q

The majority of primary bladder cancers are _____, representing more than ____ of all bladder tumors.

Squamous cell comprises ____% of all bladder cancers in the Western world, but more common in the ____ and ____ due to infection with ____

A

urothelial carcinomas

90%

5% SCCA
Middle East and Africa
Schistosomal parasites

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3
Q

_____ variants of bladder cancer are relatively rare but highly aggressive, and they typically present at high pathologic stages or with metastatic disease.

Standard treatment: ____
Paraneoplastic syndromes: (3) _____

A

Pure neuroendocrine
NAC + RC
PNS: ectopic adrenocorticotropic hormone production, hypercalcemia, and hypophosphatemia.

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4
Q

Variant histologies of UC (4):

A

Micropapillary: aggressive, resemble papillary serous CA of the ovary
Sarcomatoid
Squamous
Glandular differentiation

** subtypes are considered aggressive - early definitive therapy

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5
Q

_____ is the gold standard method for establishing the diagnosis of muscle-invasive bladder cancer

A

TUR

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6
Q

Prostatic urethra biopsy

A

Using a resectoscope, a full loop of tissue is taken from the midprostate (or bladder neck in shorter prostates) to the mid- to distal verumontanum and 5 and 7 o’clock adjacent to the verumontanum.

** This is the site of the highest concentration of prostatic ducts and the area where carcinoma in situ (CIS) is most likely to be found

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7
Q

Bimanual Examination under Anesthesia

A
  • Dominant hand on the suprapubic region and one or two fingers from the nondominant hand in the rectum (males) or vagina.
  • Should be done before and after
    resection
  • Performed with the bladder drained and without a Foley catheter in place to maximize palpation of the bladder
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8
Q

It is optimal to obtain cross-sectional imaging ____ TUR.

If imaging is obtained AFTER TUR, it should be delayed ____ post-procedure to minimize inflammatory artifact (can be mistaken for T3 disease).

A

BEFORE TUR

7 days delay

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9
Q

Baladder CA T staging

A

TX Primary tumor cannot be assessed
T0 No evidence of primary tumor
Ta Noninvasive papillary carcinoma
Tis Carcinoma in situ: “flat tumor”
T1 Tumor invades subepithelial connective tissue
T2 Tumor invades muscularis propria
pT2a Tumor invades superficial muscularis propria (inner
half)
pT2b Tumor invades deep muscularis propria (outer half)
T3 Tumor invades perivesical tissue
pT3a Microscopically
pT3b Macroscopically (extravesical mass)
T4 Tumor invades any of the following: prostatic
stroma, seminal vesicles, uterus, vagina, pelvic
wall, abdominal wall
T4a Tumor invades prostatic stroma, uterus, vagina
T4b Tumor invades pelvic wall, abdominal wall

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10
Q

Bladder CA N staging

A

Nx Lymph nodes cannot be assessed
N0 No lymph node metastasis
N1 Single regional lymph node metastasis in the true
pelvis (hypogastric, obturator, external iliac,
perivesical, or presacral lymph node)
N2 Multiple regional lymph node metastasis in the true
pelvic (hypogastric, obturator, external iliac, or
presacral lymph node metastasis)
N3 Lymph node metastasis to the common iliac lymph
nodes

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11
Q

Bladder CA M staging

A

M0 No distant metastasis

M1 Distant metastasis

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12
Q

Anatomic Stage/Prognostic Groups

A

Stage 0a Ta N0 M0
Stage 0is Tis N0 M0

Stage I T1 N0 M0

Stage II T2a N0 M0
T2b N0 M0

Stage III T3a N0 M0
T3b N0 M0
T4a N0 M0

Stage IV T4b N0 M0
Any T N1-3 M0
Any T Any N M1

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13
Q

For patients with clinical T2–T4a, N0, M0 disease, _____ remains the gold standard therapy.

A

radical cystectomy and bilateral pelvic lymph node dissection

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14
Q

Risks of Delaying RC

Higher proportion of extravesical tumors, nodal metastasis, and poorer survival in patients in which cystectomy was DELAYED more
than _____.

A

12 weeks

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15
Q

RC in Men: _____

RC in Women: _____

A

RC in Men: bladder, perivesical soft tissue, prostate, and seminal vesicles

RC in Women: bladder, ovaries, uterus with cervix, and anterior vagina.

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16
Q

Unless there is _____, a complete urethrectomy can be omitted at the time of cystectomy, allowing for orthotopic bladder substitution in women.

Although an anterior exenteration has classically been advocated in women at
the time of radical cystectomy, urothelial carcinoma rarely involves the gynecologic organs, with an overall incidence of approximately _____.

A

tumor involvement of the bladder neck

5% of cases

*** carefully selected patients can also forgo removal of the uterus and anterior vagina, which potentially allows for better anatomic support for a neobladder and preserves the autonomous nerves.

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17
Q

BPLND: essential component of radical cystectomy

_____ of patients will have pathologic lymph node metastases at the time of cystectomy.

Lymph node status is the most powerful surrogate for ____ and ____ following radical cystectomy.

A

Approximately 25%

Long-term recurrence-free and OS

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18
Q

The primary lymphatic drainage site for bladder cancer includes: (4)

Secondary drainage sites: (4)

A

The primary lymphatic drainage site for bladder cancer includes: internal iliac, external iliac, obturator, and presacral lymph nodes.

Secondary drainage sites: common iliac, para-aortic, interaortocaval, and paracaval lymph nodes

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19
Q

Standard PLND during RC: _____

Extended PLND: _____

Superextended PLND: _____

A

Standard PLND during RC: lymph node packets from the external iliac lymph vessels up to the level of the common iliac bifurcation cephalad and the genitofemoral nerve laterally to the ureter medially

Extended PLND: include the tissue extending
above the common iliac bifurcation to the aortic bifurcation and presacral region.

Superextended PLND: up to the level of the inferior mesenteric artery should be
included

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20
Q

PLND: Threshold number of LNs associated with risk for pelvic failure

A

10 lymph nodes

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21
Q

For patients with clinically positive lymph nodes, the standard of care is _____.

Patients who have a radiographic complete or partial response to are candidates for and should be evaluated for _____.

A

cisplatin-based systemic chemotherapy

cystectomy

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22
Q

overwhelming majority of patients who initially respond to chemotherapy but do not have
surgery are destined to recur:

THEREFORE: _____

A

consolidative cystectomy should be strongly considered in appropriate surgical candidates who respond to systemic therapy.

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23
Q

INTRAOP: Cystectomy is NOT performed (aborted) when: (4)

A

Lymph node metastases are unresectable because of bulk
Extensive periureteral disease
Bladder is fixed to the pelvic sidewall
Tumor is invading the rectosigmoid colon

** If RC is aborted, prognosis is poor.

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24
Q

The extent of prostatic involvement is also predictive of urethral recurrence.

____ is associated with the highest risk (as high as 30%) compared with that of prostatic urethral CIS and ductal or acinar involvement

A

Prostatic stromal invasion

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25
Q

URETHRECTOMY should be considered in men with _____.

A

Diffuse CIS of the prostatic urethra or ducts or if there is prostatic stromal invasion

**Given the modest value of preoperative urethral biopsy, some experts advocate for
urethrectomy only in the setting of a positive apical urethral margin.

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26
Q

_____ has demonstrated high correlation with final urethral margin and should be performed in all women in which orthotopic bladder substitution is being considered.

A

Frozen-section analysis of the distal urethra

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27
Q

____% of patients with muscle-invasive bladder cancer treated with cystectomy ALONE will progress to metastatic disease.

A

Nearly 50%

  • Surgery alone is not sufficient therapy in a large number of patients with invasive bladder cancer
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28
Q

Arguments for/advantages of NAC (cisplatin-based) for MIBC: (4)

A
  1. Systemic chemo better tolerated before surgery (post-op debilitation/complications)
  2. Micrometastatic disease will receive therapy when burden of disease is potentially low
  3. NAC has potential to downstage bulky and locally advanced tumors - higher likelihood of negative surgical margins
  4. NAC allows clinician to assess individual’s response to therapy
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29
Q

Patients with _____ disease are known to be at high risk for recurrence following cystectomy.

_____ has been used in this population in an attempt to treat micrometastatic
disease and to improve survival.

A

pT3–T4 or node-positive

Adjuvant chemotherapy

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30
Q

A major limitation of ADJUVANT chemotherapy is ____.

A

that it is often difficult or impossible for patients to undergo systemic therapy following cystectomy secondary to surgical deconditioning, deteriorating renal function, or perioperative complications.

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31
Q

Currently the NCCN guidelines favor neoadjuvant chemotherapy instead of adjuvant chemotherapy based on higher-level evidence
data;

HOWEVER, the guidelines do suggest considering adjuvant chemotherapy in the setting of _____ disease based
on the available data.

EAU: _____

A

pT3–4 or node-positive

EAU: adjuvant chemotherapy within clinical trials but not as a routine
therapeutic option

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32
Q

Adjunctive radiation can increase risk for _____.

The strongest case for its use can be made for patients with _____, but there are several ongoing prospective studies specifically studying its role for patients with pT3–4 primary tumors, less than 10 nodes identified, and N+ disease.

A

postoperative small bowel obstruction

positive soft-tissue surgical margins

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33
Q

Bladder PRESERVATION is a curative intent

paradigm that should be considered in two (2) distinct populations: _____

A

(1) patients who have high operative risks as a result of comorbidities
and frailty and

(2) patients who are fit for radical cystectomy but
have limited burden of disease, adequate normal bladder urothelial and function, and are motivated to retain their bladder

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34
Q

The most rigorously studied approach to bladder preservation is: _____

A

Trimodality therapy: a maximal safe and ideally visibly complete TUR, chemotherapy, and radiation

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35
Q

Two basic strategies for trimodal bladder preservation: (2)

A

SPLIT-COURSE: patients are administered induction chemoradiation therapy to approximately
40 Gy, which is followed by restaging with cross sectional imaging and endoscopic evaluation. If persistent invasive disease is noted, radical cystectomy is recommended; for surgically fit patients eligible for immediate salvage cystectomy

CONTINUOUS-COURSE: full course of chemoradiation therapy followed by an endoscopic restaging examination 3 to 4 months after therapy to allow time for an adequate response to therapy; for BOTH surgically fit and unfit patients

36
Q

Appropriate candidates for trimodality bladder preservation: (3)

A

Limited burden of disease: unifocal, small (<4 cm maximal dimension), without frank extravesicular extension on imaging, no hydronephrosis, can be totally resected with TUR

Adequate normal bladder urothelium and function

Motivated to retain their bladder

37
Q

Trimodality bladder preservation: _____ of patients will ultimately have salvage cystectomy in the long-term as a result of muscle-invasive recurrences

A

25% to 30%

38
Q

A major limitation of radical TUR monotherapy is the significant risk for _____.

_____ has been noted in cT2 cystectomy specimens in up to 40% and 9% of patients, respectively.

A

occult extravesical disease noted in patients with clinical T2 disease

Pathologic T3 and pT4 disease

**Therefore, TUR monotherapy in upward of 50% of patients presenting with muscle-invasive bladder cancer would be undertreatment.

39
Q

If a patient is going to elect TUR
monotherapy (RADICAL TUR), that patient should be properly informed regarding the risk for recurrent disease and should be appropriately selected based on clinical criteria including: (5)

A
a negative restaging TUR
no hydronephrosis
no evidence of adenopathy
tumor size less than3 cm
lack of multifocal disease
40
Q

Ideal candidates for partial cystectomy include those with (3):

A

Small, solitary tumors amenable to wide resection with 2-cm margins

Ideally the tumor should be away from the ureteral orifices to avoid reimplantation.

Tumor is in a location that allows for complete resection while maintaining adequate functional bladder capacity.

41
Q

_____ is the standard of care for patients with metastatic urothelial bladder cancer.

Firstline systemic regimens include: _____

A

Systemic cisplatin-based combination chemotherapy

MVAC, HD-MVAC, and gemcitabine/
cisplatin

42
Q

NOT cisplatin candidates (5): _____

A

ANY of the following:
- a World Health Organization or
Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group performance status greater
than 2
- creatinine clearance less than 60 mL/min,
- grade 2 or above
audiometric hearing loss
- grade 2 or above peripheral neuropathy,
- a New York Heart Association Class III or higher heart failure

43
Q

When cisplatin therapy is contraindicated, ____ has been substituted with the benefit of improved tolerability, but with the cost of decreased efficacy

A

Carboplatin

44
Q

Stomach for urinary diversion:

ADVANTAGES: ____

ELECTROLYTE IMBALANCE: ____

COMPLICATIONS: ____

A

ADVANTAGES: less permeable to urinary solutes, it has a net excretion of chloride and protons rather than a net absorption of them, and it produces less mucus.

HYPOCHLOREMIC metabolic ALKALOSIS

Hematuria-dysuria syndrome
Rare: severe ulcerative complications

45
Q

Jejunum for urinary diversion

ADVANTAGES: ____

ELECTROLYTE IMBALANCE: ____

COMPLICATIONS: ____

A

The jejunum is usually not used for reconstruction of the urinary system because it may result in severe electrolyte imbalance, most concerningly HYPERKalemia

If it is the only segment available: USE DISTAL SEGMENT to minimize electrolyte abnormalities

46
Q

Ileum for urinary diversion

ADVANTAGES: ____

ELECTROLYTE IMBALANCE: ____

COMPLICATIONS: ____

A

ADV: mobile and of small diameter, has a constant blood
supply, and serves well for ureteral replacement and the formation of conduits.

ELECTROLYTE IMBALANCE:

COMPLICATIONS: Lack of B12 absorption, diarrhea (lack of bile salt absorption), and fat malabsorption; 10% chance of postop bowel obstruction

47
Q

When should a lymph node be regarded as pathological on CT and MRI?

A

pelvic lymph nodes > 8mm

abdominal lymph nodes > 10 mm short axis diameter

48
Q

How often does a FDG-PET-CT influence the treatment of muscle-invasive bladder cancer?

A

20% of patients

49
Q

How often does a PDG-PET-CT change the tretment plan for high risk muscle-invasive bladder cancer?

A

28% of patients

50
Q

What types of urinary diversions are there?

A

Orthotopic neobladder ( best if ileum i used)
Ileal conduit
Ureterocutaneostomy
Continent cutaneous diversion (mainz pouch, indian pouch)

51
Q

What patients can be considered for pelvic organ-preserving cystectomy (nerve-sparing)?

A

organ-confined disease

abscenceo f tumour in bladder neck or urethra

52
Q

What are the evindence-based perioperative measures at redical cystectomy?

A

No bowel preparation
Restrictive fluid adminstration during surgery
Peritoneal readaptation
Multiple measures to avoid paralytic ileus
ERAS

53
Q

Why should you not use bowel preparation before a radical cystectomy if small bowel is used for reconstruction?

A

it increases histological oedema in small bowel wall

54
Q

What are the benefits of readaptation of the peritoneum after a cystectomy?

A

Less postoperative pain
Earlier intestinal transit
Fewer complications

55
Q

What are the rationale for Adjuvant therapy in muscle-invasive bladder cancer?

A

Deal with the “bladder”problem immediately
Chemotherapy decisions based on true pathology
No compromise of local therapy due to toxicites
No delay in definitive locan therapy
Surgery will act as a stress test for the tolerance for chemotherapy

56
Q

What are the rationale for NeoAdjuvant therapy in muscle-invasive bladder cancer?

A

Give systemic therapy when pelvic blood supply is intact
Patiens are more fit and better able to tolerate chemotherapy
In vivo shemo-sensivity test
Deal with micrometastatic disease immediately
Might fascilitate surgery by decressing tumour mass
Radical cystectomy complications might delay adjuvant therapy
Patients commonly refuse adjuvant therapy after radical cystectomy

57
Q

How much does chemotherapy improve 5-year-survival in muscle-invasive bladder cancer?

A

5%

58
Q

When should NeoAdjuvant chemotherapy be offered in muscle invasive bladder cancer?

A

T2-T4aN0M0

59
Q

What kind of chemotherapy should be used for muscle-invasive bladder cancer?

A

cisplatin-based combination therapy

60
Q

What immunesystemic factors can be prognostic for bladder cancer?

A

PD-L1 expression

CD8 tumour-infiltrating lymphocytes in the primary tumour

61
Q

Which PD-L1 inhibitor has level 1 evidence for use against muscle invasive bladder cancer in patients who are cisplatin unfit?

A

Pembrolizumab (keytruda)

62
Q

Name two PD-L1 inhibitors that according to guidelines can be used in patientens with muscle invasive bladder cancer who are PDL1+ and cisplatin unfit:

A

Pembrolizumab (Keytruda)

Atezolizumab (Tecentriq)

63
Q

What types of systemic therapy are now included in the treatment of urothelial carcinoma?

A

In addition to standard chemotherapy, systemic therapy now includes immune checkpoint inhibition, FGFR tyrosine kinase inhibition, and antibody-drug conjugates (ADCs).

64
Q

How many CPIs are FDA approved for urothelial cancer, and what are their names?

A

There are 4 CPIs FDA approved for urothelial cancer: Atezolizumab, Avelumab, Nivolumab, and Pembrolizumab.

65
Q

What happened to Durvalumab’s approval for urothelial cancer?

A

Durvalumab was previously approved in the second-line (2L) setting, but approval was withdrawn when a phase III trial failed to meet the primary endpoint.

66
Q

What was the change in approval for Atezolizumab in urothelial cancer treatment?

A

The FDA withdrew Atezolizumab’s second-line (2L) indication after failing to meet superiority over chemotherapy, but it remains approved in the first-line (1L) setting for chemotherapy-ineligible patients.

67
Q

What is the standard first-line (1L) chemotherapy for metastatic or unresectable urothelial cancers?

A

Platinum-based chemotherapy, combined with gemcitabine and cisplatin or carboplatin. Accelerated methotrexate, vincristine, adriamycin, cisplatin is also a 1L choice.

68
Q

What is the role of pembrolizumab in BCG-unresponsive nonmuscle-invasive bladder cancer (NMIBC)?

A

Pembrolizumab, a PD-1 inhibitor, is FDA-approved for patients with BCG-unresponsive CIS-containing NMIBC, with complete response observed in 40% of patients.

69
Q

What are ADCs, and how might they be relevant to BCG-unresponsive bladder cancer in the future?

A

ADCs (Antibody-Drug Conjugates) target specific cancer cells, and studies suggest they may become a viable systemic option for patients with BCG-unresponsive bladder cancer.

70
Q

What is the main concern for patients with residual muscle invasive and/or lymph node-positive urothelial cancer after surgery?

A

The main concern is the high risk of recurrence, leading to the evaluation of adjuvant immunotherapy.

71
Q

What are the results of using nivolumab as adjuvant therapy, and is there a biomarker requirement?

A

Nivolumab has been FDA approved for a disease-free survival (DFS) rate of 22.9 months, compared to 13.7 months with placebo. There is no biomarker requirement, but a more profound effect was seen in patients with PD-L1+ tumors.

72
Q

What findings were discovered regarding atezolizumab in the postoperative setting?

A

Atezolizumab failed to meet its primary DFS endpoint but demonstrated significant improvement in overall survival in patients with detectable circulating tumor DNA (+ctDNA), leading to a follow-up trial.

73
Q

What is Avelumab, and how is it used in the context of urothelial cancer treatment?

A

Avelumab is a CPI tested and approved for maintenance therapy after achieving a clinical benefit following 1L platinum-based therapy. It’s administered IV every 2 weeks and has improved median overall survival.

74
Q

What were the results of the Javelin 100 trial for Avelumab in comparison to observation?

A

The Javelin 100 trial found that Avelumab maintenance led to improved median overall survival of 21.4 versus 14.3 months for observation.

75
Q

What precautions are needed when administering Avelumab, and why?

A

Avelumab carries an increased risk of infusion-related anaphylaxis. Patients are initially premedicated with Benadryl® and acetaminophen, and if no infusion-related events occur, subsequent treatments may be without premedication.

76
Q

What options are available for patients with disease progression on or after 1L chemotherapy or those who defer avelumab maintenance?

A

For patients with disease progression, CPI therapy, including pembrolizumab, nivolumab, and avelumab, is approved in the 2L (second-line) and beyond setting.

77
Q

How does pembrolizumab stand out among the CPI therapies for use in the 2L and beyond setting?

A

Pembrolizumab was associated with improved overall survival, better tolerance, and quality of life compared to chemotherapy. It carries level 1 evidence, indicating strong support for its effectiveness.

78
Q

What is next-generation sequencing, and what is it used for in the context of urothelial cancer?

A

Next-generation sequencing is a process where DNA is extracted from tissue samples to identify specific patterns like FGFR alterations. It helps in finding therapeutic options for patients with advanced urothelial cancer.

79
Q

How does the presence of FGFR alterations expand therapeutic options in urothelial cancer?

A

FGFR alterations are biomarker targets identified through sequencing. Their presence determines the candidacy for specific treatments like erdafitinib, an FDA-approved therapy for urothelial cancer.

80
Q

What is erdafitinib, and how is it used in treating urothelial cancer with FGFR3 alterations?

A

Erdafitinib is an oral FGFR1-4 tyrosine kinase inhibitor used to treat metastatic urothelial cancer with FGFR3 mutations or fusions. It received accelerated FDA approval in 2019 for patients who had undergone prior chemotherapy.

81
Q

: What were the results of the BLC2001 phase II clinical trial involving erdafitinib, and what are some unique toxicities of this class?

A

The BLC2001 trial showed a 40% objective response rate and 13.8-month median overall survival with erdafitinib. Toxicities include hyponatremia, stomatitis, weakness, hyperphosphatemia, and ocular toxicity.

82
Q

How does hyperphosphatemia relate to FGFR inhibition in urothelial cancer?

A

Hyperphosphatemia is a unique toxicity of FGFR inhibitors like erdafitinib. In the case of infigratinib, another FGFR inhibitor, hyperphosphatemia correlated with clinical benefit, possibly serving as a biomarker of response.

83
Q

What are ADCs, and how do they work in targeting cancer cells?

A

ADCs are Antibody-Drug Conjugates that include an antibody (targeting part), a cytotoxic moiety (destructive part), and a linker sequence. They bind to specific antigens on cancer cells, get inside the cells, and release a toxic substance to destroy them.

84
Q

What are the two FDA-approved ADCs for metastatic bladder cancer, and what do they target?

A

The two FDA-approved ADCs are Enfortumab Vedotin (targets Nectin-4) and Sacituzumab Govitecan (targets Trop-2). Both have shown positive results in clinical trials.

85
Q

What are some common side effects of ADCs like Enfortumab Vedotin and Sacituzumab Govitecan?

A

Common side effects include rash, fatigue, decreased neutrophil count or neutropenia for Enfortumab Vedotin, and neutropenia, leukopenia, anemia, and diarrhea for Sacituzumab Govitecan.

86
Q

What is the THOR trial, and what is its purpose?

A

The THOR trial is a study that aims to answer the sequence question in patients with FGFR3 alterations. It’s randomizing patients to different treatments to find the best order for using certain drugs like erdafinitib or pembrolizumab in the treatment of urothelial carcinoma.

87
Q
A